Term
Drugs affecting hematopoiesis involves medications that _____ cell growth. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hematopoiesis is the production and differentiation of What? |
|
Definition
blood cells such as red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets |
|
|
Term
Production and maturation of blood cells occurs in the _____ and is stimulated by ______ growth factors. |
|
Definition
bone marrow, hematopoietic |
|
|
Term
What are the hematopoietic growth factors that stimulate RBC? |
|
Definition
Epoetin Alfa, brand name Epogen or Procrit |
|
|
Term
What are the hematopoietic growth factors that stimulate WBC |
|
Definition
Filgrastim, brand name Neupogen |
|
|
Term
What are the hematopoietic growth factors that stimulate platelets |
|
Definition
oprelvekin or interleukin-1, brand name Neumega |
|
|
Term
which cells are composed of hemoglobin, that carries oxygen to the cells in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the main peptide hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the act of stimulating the production of red blood cells by erythropoietin. |
|
|
Term
____________ is produced by the kidneys when tissues become hypoxic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
_______ are involved in blood coagulation.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Platelet production is naturally stimulated by |
|
Definition
interleukin-6 and a peptide called thrombopoietin |
|
|
Term
Thrombopoietin is produced in the____ and is released when platelet counts are ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
White blood cells differentiate into What three main cells. |
|
Definition
granulocytes, monocytes or lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
Granulocytes are further divided into what three cell types? |
|
Definition
neutrophils, bosophils or eosinophils |
|
|
Term
What is the most abundant Granulocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the formation of granulocytes called?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is myelopoiesis stimulated by?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cells are produced in response to infection, inflammation, and tissue damage or necrosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the physical barrier defense mechanisms to protect it from the invasion of pathogenic microorganisms? |
|
Definition
intact skin and mucous membranes and acidity. |
|
|
Term
Should pathogens overcome one of the physical defense barriers to injure cells, the body responds by: |
|
Definition
activating the nonspecific inflammatory reaction |
|
|
Term
The activating the nonspecific inflammatory reaction includes activation of:
|
|
Definition
granulocytes and macrophages
to destroy foreign antigens and repair tissue damage |
|
|
Term
____________ are the first line of defense against pathogenic organisms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When an acute bacterial infection is present in the body the number of __________ rises dramatically |
|
Definition
neutrophils
This rise in neutrophils includes both mature and immature (bands)
|
|
|
Term
When a significant number of immature neutrophils exists what is it called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does a “shift to the left,” indicate? |
|
Definition
and usually indicates the patient has a bacterial infection |
|
|
Term
What is it called, when the neutrophil count is low? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is neutropenia an indication of?
|
|
Definition
the patient is at greater risk for infection. |
|
|
Term
Should a pathogenic microorganism get past the physical barriers and nonspecific immune system How will the body protect itslef? |
|
Definition
a specific immune response involving T and B lymphocytes is initiated. |
|
|
Term
What is hematopoietic failure?
|
|
Definition
the inadequate production of cells to meet the body’s need for oxygen transportation, blood coagulation, and/or prevention of infection. |
|
|
Term
What is first pathophysiologic consequence of hematopoietic failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a condition that involves a reduced number or circulating red blood cells. |
|
|
Term
What can Anemia be caused by?
|
|
Definition
lack of folic acid, iron, erythopoietin or bone marrow suppression. Or, anemia can be the result of red blood cell hemolysis or through the loss of blood volume. |
|
|
Term
Anemia caused by the lack of
erythropoietin can be treated with: |
|
Definition
exogenous erythropoietin or epoetin alfa. |
|
|
Term
What is the 2nd pathophysiologic consequence of hematopoietic failure?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a condition that involves a significant reduction in circulating neutrophils |
|
|
Term
what is neutropenia typically caused by? |
|
Definition
decreased bone marrow activity and
reduces neutrophil survival. |
|
|
Term
When neutropenia is related to decreased bone marrow activity, it is usually caused by: |
|
Definition
drug therapy such as antineoplastic agents. |
|
|
Term
What is the final pathophysiologic consequence
of hematopoietic failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
a condition that involves a low platelet count
a result of decreased production, shortened survival, or loss of platelets |
|
|
Term
_________ stimulants are hematopoietic growth factors that replace endogenous growth factors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When are Erythropoiesis stimulants used? |
|
Definition
when the body is unable to produce sufficient blood cells to meet the body’s demand because of a lack of growth factor. |
|
|
Term
The prototype drug used to stimulate the production of red blood cells is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Epoetin alfa, also known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Epoetin alfa commonly used to treat?
|
|
Definition
anemia secondary to chronic renal failure |
|
|
Term
The use of epoetin alfa decreases the need for ____ _______, as it elevates or maintains the red blood cell count to adequate levels. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Epoetin alfa is also used to treat anemia related to: _ |
|
Definition
zidovudine theripy
(Zidovudine is an antiviral medication that prevents human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) cells from multiplying in your body.)
chemotherapy induced anemia in cancer
and patients who are high risk for substantial surgical blood loss.
|
|
|
Term
How is Epoetin alfa administered? |
|
Definition
either intravenously or subcutaneously |
|
|
Term
How is Epoetin alfa Eliminated?
|
|
Definition
through the kidneys, but is not affected by dialysis |
|
|
Term
Epoetin alfa has the same effect on the body as endogenous erythropoietin.
True or Fales? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In patients with chronic renal failure,What is the first sign that epoetin alfa is effective? |
|
Definition
an increase in reticulocyte count or immature red blood cells. |
|
|
Term
What are other important factors that effect the rate and extent of epoetin alfa effectiveness? |
|
Definition
availability of iron stores, baseline hematocrit and any concurrent illnesses |
|
|
Term
What type of pts should not use epoetin alfa?
|
|
Definition
uncontrolled hypertension
patients with hypersensitivity to mammalian cell-derived products or human albumin
patients with chronic renal |
|
|
Term
Why should the use of epoetin alfa be avoided in patients with uncontrolled hypertension? |
|
Definition
blood pressure may rise during therapy, especially during the early phase of treatment. |
|
|
Term
Why should the use of epoetin alfa be avoided in
patients with chronic renal failure?
|
|
Definition
The risk of thrombotic events such as myocardial infarction, transient ischemic attacks, or cerebral vascular accidents can occur in patients with chronic renal failure who are receiving epoetin alfa treatment |
|
|
Term
Before starting a pt on Epoetin alfa the nurse should verify that the anemia is not secondary to: |
|
Definition
to iron or folate deficiency, hemolysis, or bleeding.
As these anemias are treated differently. |
|
|
Term
It is important for the nurse to assess whether the patient has pre-existing vascular disease, as epoetin alfa may increase the patient’s risk for: |
|
Definition
developing adverse thrombolic events |
|
|
Term
Why should a nurse determine the patient’s iron status before starting epoetin?
|
|
Definition
iron is needed to support erythropoiesis. |
|
|
Term
To maximize therapeutic effect and maintain the biologic activity of epoetin alfa, it is important that the nurse knows this about epoetin alfa?
|
|
Definition
not to shake the drug after reconstituting the medication |
|
|
Term
Vigorous _____ of epoetin alfa can denature the glycoprotein, which makes it biologically inactive. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Single-dose 1 ml vials of epoetin alfa do not contain ______. |
|
Definition
preservatives
so it is important to discard any unused portion. |
|
|
Term
What shoul the nurse assess the patient for throughout epoetin alfa therapy? |
|
Definition
hematocrit
blood pressure for hypertension |
|
|
Term
What should the nurse educate the pt about epoetin alfa? |
|
Definition
purpose of the drug
the need for follow-up hematocrits
increase iron intake to aid in the effectiveness of the drug
iron is best absorbed with ascorbic acid
iron should not be taken with phosphate binders.
|
|
|
Term
______ is a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) and the prototype drug that stimulates the production of white blood cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are Colony-stimulating factors? |
|
Definition
glycoproteins that initiates the proliferation and differentiation of blood cells. |
|
|
Term
What is Filgrastim or Neupogen used for |
|
Definition
cancer patients to increase their neutrophil counts
patients with non-myeloid malignancies and who are receiving meylosuppressive chemotherapy |
|
|
Term
Filgrastim is used to increase ______ counts and reduce the patients risk of ______ associated with neutropenia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How isFilgrastim administered? |
|
Definition
as a single daily subcutaneous injection,
short intravenous infusion (over 15-30 minutes) or
by continuous subcutaneous or intravenous infusion. |
|
|
Term
What is the only contraindication to filgastrim? |
|
Definition
hypersensitivity to the drug |
|
|
Term
What is the only consistently reported adverse
side effect of filgastrim? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To maximize the therapeutic effects of filgastrim it is important for the nurse to keep the medication atroom temperature and allow the drug to reach refrigerated temperature before administration.
True or Fales? |
|
Definition
Fales.
To maximize the therapeutic effects of filgastrim it is important for the nurse to keep the medication refrigerated and allow the drug to reach room temperature before administration. |
|
|
Term
It is important for the nurse to dilute filgastrim in what and why? |
|
Definition
5% dextrose with albumin to prevent absorption by plastic materials.
Absorption into plastic materials such as IV container and tubing. |
|
|
Term
It is imperative not to dilute filgastrim in normal saline, Why? |
|
Definition
as this will cause the drug to precipitate causing a physical inconpatibility. |
|
|
Term
Should the nurse shake filgastrim why or why not? |
|
Definition
the nurse should not shake the drug, as this will damage the glycoprotein |
|
|
Term
filgrastim should be administered with the ___ cycle of _________ for those patients at risk for febrile neutropenia or low neutrophil counts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Filgastrim is preservative free and requires that the nurse discard any vial that has been at room temperature for more than 24 hours.
True or Fales? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
filgastrim is a multi-dose vial and that unused medication should be refrigerated.
True of Fales? |
|
Definition
Fales
filgastrim is a single-dose vial and that unused medication should be discarded.
|
|
|
Term
filgastrim
patient and family education : |
|
Definition
Neutropenic patients are at extreme risk for infection
importance of frequent handwashing, avoiding crowds and avoiding people with illnesses. |
|
|
Term
What is important for the nurse to closely monitor the patients for throughout treatment with filgastrim? |
|
Definition
temperature- may indicate an infection
white blood cell count - to evaluate relative risk of infection and effectiveness of treatment.
|
|
|
Term
Oprelvekin stimulates the production of what? |
|
Definition
platelet
and is the prototype for interleukins |
|
|
Term
What is Oprelvekin or Neumega used to treat ? |
|
Definition
severe thrombocytopenia or low platelet counts |
|
|
Term
What is Oprelvekin or Neumega useful in reducing the need for? |
|
Definition
platelet transfusions (FFP)
|
|
|
Term
what type of pt is Oprelvekin or Neumega used? |
|
Definition
for patients with
myelosuppressive chemotherapy
nonmyeloid malignancie |
|
|
Term
how is Oprelvekin or Neumega given? |
|
Definition
once daily subcutaneously |
|
|
Term
What is Oprelvekin’s primary hematopoietic function? |
|
Definition
to stimulate the production of megakaryocytes and thrombopoietin, both of which stimulate the production of platelets. |
|
|
Term
What is only contraindication to oprelvekin? |
|
Definition
hypersensitivity to the drug or any of its components. |
|
|
Term
What are most commonly reported and serious adverse effect of oprelvekin? |
|
Definition
fluid retention -weight gain, peripheral edema, dyspnea, hemodilution, and an increased incidence of pleural effusion
Fluid overload- can lead to cardiovascular complications such as tachycardia, palpitations, syncope, and atrial dysrythmias. |
|
|
Term
What should the nurse to assess the patient for before starting a pt on oprelvekin? |
|
Definition
congestive heart failure, pleural or pericardial effusion, as these are potential complications due to fluid retention |
|
|
Term
What should the nurse to assess the patient for during oprelvekin theripy?
|
|
Definition
cardiac status
(atrial fibrillation and flutter ) |
|
|
Term
True or Fales?
It is important for the nurse to keep
the powdered drug (oprelvekin) and diluent refrigerated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
it is important to keep oprelvekin out of direct light
True or fales? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Oprelvekin reconstituted with? |
|
Definition
preservative free, sterile water for injection diluent
that is provided with the drug. |
|
|
Term
Why must the nurse not shake or
agitate the vial of Oprelvekin?
|
|
Definition
this can denature the protein and alter the effectiveness of the medication. |
|
|
Term
How should the nurse mix Oprelvekin? |
|
Definition
. The nurse should gently swirl the vial or slowly roll vial between hands. |
|
|
Term
Why is it important for the nurse not to reenter or
reuse single dose oprelvekin? |
|
Definition
because neither the drug nor the sterile water used to dilute the medication contains preservative
it will go bad
|
|
|
Term
when must oprelvekin be administed by
after reconstitution? |
|
Definition
within 3 hours of reconstitution |
|
|
Term
What must the nurse to closely monitor through Oprelvekin
treatment?
|
|
Definition
platelet count - until greater than or equal to 50,000 cells/mm3.
bleeding- include petichiae, echymosis and guiac positive stools
|
|
|
Term
Drugs affecting immune response involve biologic modulators, are also called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What goup of drugs alter the body’s immunologic responses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are Biologic modulators or modifiers classified?
|
|
Definition
by their specific biologic mechanism of activity and by whether they suppress or stimulate the immune system. |
|
|
Term
What are three kinds of drugs that alter biologic activity? |
|
Definition
cytokines, antibodies and immune modulators |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
immunologic toxins produced by white blood cells in response to foreign antigens. |
|
|
Term
What is the prototype cytokine drug?
|
|
Definition
interferon alfa-2a, brand name Roferon-A, |
|
|
Term
What is interferon alfa-2a, brand name Roferon-A
used for? |
|
Definition
used to treat certain leukemia and autoimmune disorders. |
|
|
Term
What two type of Antibodies
are there in drug theripy?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are Monoclonal antibodies used for? |
|
Definition
used and have been engineered to attach to tumor cells for diagnosis or treatment of malignancies or to target T lymphocytes to cause immunosuppresion. |
|
|
Term
What is the prototype monoclonal antibodie? |
|
Definition
rituximab, brand name Rituxan. |
|
|
Term
Immune modulators are a group of several
drugs that are used for what?
|
|
Definition
to alter T and B cell or lymphocyte activity. |
|
|
Term
what is the Immune modulator prototype drug? |
|
Definition
cyclosporine
brand name: Sandimmune, Neoral and SangCya.
|
|
|
Term
What are the immunologically active tissue and cells, in the lymph system? |
|
Definition
spleen, liver, lungs, gastrointestinal tract and brain
hemopoietic cells, such as lymphocytes, Leukocytes |
|
|
Term
___________ or white blood cells are the main component to all immune responses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A _____ immune response is initiated when foreign antigens, such as a virus, is able to get past the ______ barriers and overcome _______ immunity. |
|
Definition
specific, physical, nonspecific |
|
|
Term
A specific immune response involves activation of what cells? |
|
Definition
T and B lymphocytes, also called T and B cells |
|
|
Term
T cells mature in the thymus to develop into what 3 types of cells? |
|
Definition
cytotoxic T cells
helper T cells
suppresor T cells |
|
|
Term
Waht is the roll of the cytotoxic T cells (CD 8) |
|
Definition
attack foreign antigens using lymphokines |
|
|
Term
What is the roll of the helper T cells ( CD 4) |
|
Definition
T cells that stimulate more T lymphocyte production |
|
|
Term
what is the roll of suppresor T cells? |
|
Definition
slow down the T cell reaction |
|
|
Term
T cell activity is referred to as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
B cells respond to a specific foreign antigen by producing what? |
|
Definition
antibodies or immunoglobulins |
|
|
Term
B cell activity is referred to as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
B cells-
When the antibodies react with the foreign antigen, an antigen-antibody complex is forms which enables the complement to do what? |
|
Definition
further destroy the foreign antigen.
****This reaction also induces chemotaxis, which makes the foreign antigen more attractive for phagocytosis. |
|
|
Term
What chemicals are critical to a specific immune response and what they do? |
|
Definition
interferons-prevent viral replication and suppress malignant cells and tumor growth
interleukins- activates more T and B cells.
|
|
|
Term
Initially, B lymphocytes, also called B cells, produce antibodies to attack a specific foreign antigen. After this initial response, the B cells produce memory B cells that are able to immediately produce antibodies whenever a foreign antigen is encountered.
This is referred to as what? |
|
Definition
active immunity
***and is the basis of immunizationing against various viral infections. |
|
|
Term
Cytokines generally enhance an _______ response |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
many _________ have antiviral, antiproliferative and antineoplastic qualities. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Both interferons and interleukins are _____ produces by a ________. |
|
Definition
cytokines, activated lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
What is Interferon Alfa 2A used to treat? |
|
Definition
malignancies: Kaposi sarcoma, chronic myelogenous leukemia.
viral infections: hepatitis C and cytomeglovirus. |
|
|
Term
How is Interferon Alfa 2A typically administered? |
|
Definition
subcutaneously or intramuscularly,
although intravenous administration is indicated in some instances. |
|
|
Term
How does Interferon Alfa 2A creat an action on the body? |
|
Definition
by inhibiting the growth of tumor cells and by blocking the replication of a virus in the body. |
|
|
Term
Interferon Alfa 2A should not be used when: |
|
Definition
a history of hypersensitivity to interferon or its components exists.
during pregnancy or lactation should be avoided. |
|
|
Term
What is a common side effect of interferon alfa 2A?
|
|
Definition
hypothyroidism, as it may occur in up to 10% of cases. |
|
|
Term
Why is it important for the nurse to note other drugs that the patient is taking during treatment with interferon alfa-2A? |
|
Definition
An increased incidence of theophylline toxicity occurs if the patient is taking interferon alfa 2A at the same time as theophylline.
**Theophylline is used to prevent and treat wheezing, shortness of breath, and difficulty breathing caused by asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and other lung diseases |
|
|
Term
Interferon alfa-2A can cause toxicity when combined with drugs that are neurotoxic, hematotoxic and cardiotoxic.
what is this due to? |
|
Definition
This toxicity is due to the inability of the body to clear similer drugs through the liver |
|
|
Term
Prior to administering interferon alfa-2A it is important for the nurse to assess the patient for what conditions? |
|
Definition
cardiovascular, pulmonary and neurological disorders,
as these conditions may exacerbate the adverse effects of this treatment.
hypothyroidism (before and after)
|
|
|
Term
Why is it important to assess the patient’s blood glucose before/ during/ after administering interferon alfa-2A?
|
|
Definition
glucose intolerance is a common effect of interferon alfa-2A. |
|
|
Term
After administering interferon alfa-2A it is important for the nurse to assess the patient for what? |
|
Definition
glucose intolerance
hypothyroidism- T3 T4 TSH
bone marrow suppression- CBC
liver damage- liver function tests |
|
|
Term
the nurse to obtain baseline blood counts and chemistries
prior to administering interferon alfa-2A
These include: |
|
Definition
white blood cell counts, red blood cell counts and platelet counts. |
|
|
Term
Why is isimportant for the nurse to ensure adequate sleep and proper nutrition for the pt on interferon alfa-2A?
|
|
Definition
to enhance the patient’s immunologic function. |
|
|
Term
It is important for the nurse to follow treatment guidelines such as premedicating patients with drugs to reduce the adverse side effects of the drug.
Premedication drugs include: |
|
Definition
acetaminophen-Tylenol
diphenhydramine- Benadryl
*to reduce flu-like effects of interferon alfa-2A. |
|
|
Term
. Why is it prudent to administer interferon alfa-2A injections in the evening? |
|
Definition
so that the patient can sleep through most of the adverse side effects of the drug |
|
|
Term
T/F
During treatment (interferon alfa-2A ) the patient should observe infection precautions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What areAntibodies used to suppress? |
|
Definition
immune cell type or receptor site. |
|
|
Term
Monoclonal antibodies are used to react with what? |
|
Definition
a specific tumor receptor site to diagnose or treat a malignancy |
|
|
Term
The prototype monoclonal antitumor antibody is call: |
|
Definition
rituximab
brand name Rituxan. |
|
|
Term
What is Rituximab used to treat? |
|
Definition
several different kinds of cancer and a variety of autoimmune disorders. |
|
|
Term
How is rituximab administrered?
|
|
Definition
a slow intravenous infusion |
|
|
Term
What is the only contraindication to rituximab? |
|
Definition
hypersensitivity or anaphylaxis to the drug or any of its components
epecially murine proteins. |
|
|
Term
What are the infusion related adverse effects of rituximab?
|
|
Definition
respiratory distress and hypotension
occur in up to 80% of all patients |
|
|
Term
What patients are advised not to have of any type during treatment with rituximab?
Why? |
|
Definition
vaccines
because of potential drug interactions and risk for allergic and anaphylactic reactions.
|
|
|
Term
Before stating rituximab what is important for the nurse to assess for in the patient? |
|
Definition
pre-existing cardiac
respiratory problems
***This drug should be administered cautiously in patients with these types pre-existing conditions |
|
|
Term
common adverse effects of rituximab include: |
|
Definition
cardiac dysrythmias, angina, hypo and hypertension and worsening respiratory status. |
|
|
Term
What is Rituximab is mixed in? |
|
Definition
either normal saline or dextrose solutions in a plastic bag |
|
|
Term
Why should mixing Rituximab
in a glass container be avoided? |
|
Definition
the antibodies adhere to glass and alters the amount of drug administered. |
|
|
Term
All antibodies can produce allergic reactions.
True or fales |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
As a reslute of all antibodies can produce allergic reactions,
What are the usual
administration guidelines for Rituximab? |
|
Definition
premedicating: acetaminophen and diphenhydramine,
emergency resusitation equipment: corticosteroids, and adrenaline readily available.
It is important for patients with cardiac and respiratory risk factors to have continuous cardiac monitoring and frequent assessment during infusion. |
|
|
Term
What are Immune modulators? |
|
Definition
drugs that act directly on the function of T and B lymphocytes by either suppressing or stimulating the immune response. |
|
|
Term
What is the prototype for Immune modulators?
|
|
Definition
cyclosporine (Sandimmune and Neoral)
|
|
|
Term
How does cyclosporine have an effect on the body? |
|
Definition
suppress the immune system by blocking the normal function of the immune system in the body. |
|
|
Term
What types of pts need cyclosporine? |
|
Definition
organ transplantation to prevent the body’s immune system from destroying the grafted foreign tissue, such as a transplanted kidney, and in
autoimmune disorders, in which the body attacks its own tissue. |
|
|
Term
What drug is typically given in conjunction with Cyclosporine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cyclosporine is contraindicated in patients with: |
|
Definition
hypersensitivity to castor oil
Kidny disfunctions- there is a significant risk for nephrotoxicity
|
|
|
Term
What are the most common adverse side effects of cyclosporine?
|
|
Definition
renal damage, tremors, hirsutism, hypertension, and gingival or gum hyperplasia
risk for malignancies, especially that of skin cancer, is increased
Hirsutism is a condition where women have excess facial and body hair that is dark and coarse. |
|
|
Term
It is important for the nurse to assess what as a baseline and as therapy continues. |
|
Definition
hepatic and renal function
CBC and differential
blood pressure
tremors, seizures, mental status, visual disturbances |
|
|
Term
If a pt on cyclosporine has newly reported tremors, seizures, mental status, visual disturbances what is it an indication of? |
|
Definition
these are signs and symptoms of neurotoxicity, which is indicative of high blood levels of cyclosporine. |
|
|
Term
What kind of diet increases the bioavailability of this drug and can lead to high blood levels of cyclosporine? |
|
Definition
A high fat diet
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to assess the patient’s fat intake. |
|
|
Term
The nurse should monitor blood levels of cyclosporine to avoid toxicity.
True or Fales? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Cyclosporine administered? |
|
Definition
intravenously,
however, the oral form should be used as soon as possible to achieve steady blood levels |
|
|
Term
The nurse should never mix oral cyclosporine with
any type of juice.
True or Fales? |
|
Definition
Fales
The nurse should mix oral cyclosporine with a juice to increase the palatability
However, this medication should not be refrigerated or mixed with grapefruit juice
|
|
|
Term
It is important for the patient to not take cyclosporine with foods, especially foods high in fat.
True or Fales? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Wah should the nurse do if the boold test of Cyclosporine
comes bake high or there are sings of toxicity?
|
|
Definition
The drug should be held and the physician notified |
|
|
Term
After the adminastation of Cyclosporine what are the interventions the nurse should have in place?
|
|
Definition
protect the patient from exposure to infection
assess the patient for neurotoxicity and hypertension. |
|
|
Term
Waht teaching should a nurse
give to a pt on Cyclosporine? |
|
Definition
Teach patient to avoid sun exposure due to the increased risk of skin malignancies |
|
|