Term
AR/ VMR/ Both Intranasal corticosteroid |
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Definition
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Term
AR/ VMR/ Both Intranasal antihistamine |
|
Definition
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|
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both oral antihistamine |
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Definition
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|
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both Decongestant |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
AR/ VMR/ Both Ipratropium bromide |
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Definition
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|
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both nasal saline |
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Definition
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|
Term
AR/ VMR/ Both Oral corticosteroids |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the treatment plan for episodic AR? |
|
Definition
treat the symptoms
nasal decongestant, nasal antihistamine, oral antihistamine, eye drops, or nasal saline |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment plan for mild persistent allergic rhinitis? |
|
Definition
1 regular medication
nasal corticosteroid or nasal antihistamine
monetlukast, ipratropium bromide |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment plan for mild to moderate persistent allergic rhinitis? |
|
Definition
2 regular medications
nasal corticosteroid and nasal antihistamine
oral antihistamine, montelukast |
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|
Term
What is the treatment plan for moderate to severe allergic rhinitis? |
|
Definition
2-3 medications
nasal corticosteroid and nasal antihistamine
montelukast, ipratropium bromide, oral antihistamine, nasal saline |
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|
Term
What is the treatment plan for severe persistent allergic rhinitis? |
|
Definition
continue all regularly used medications and add short term use corticosteroids |
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|
Term
How long should you use corticosteroids to treat severe persistent allergic rhinitis? |
|
Definition
Dose packs for 5-7 days 4x per year (no more than every 3 months) |
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|
Term
|
Definition
prescription NSAID eye drop relieves ocular itching |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
OTC antihistamine and mast cell stabilizer |
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|
Term
|
Definition
Rx antihistamine and mast cell stabilizer |
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Term
|
Definition
antihistamine and vasoconstricter limit to 2-3 days because of the naphazoline |
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|
Term
naphazoline + pheniramine |
|
Definition
antihistamine and vasoconstrictor limit to 2-3 days because of naphazoline |
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Term
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Definition
1st gen oral antihistamine causes drowsiness |
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|
Term
|
Definition
1st gen oral antihistamine less drowsy than diphenhydramine |
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Term
|
Definition
1st gen oral antihistamine |
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Term
|
Definition
1st gen oral antihistamine |
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|
Term
|
Definition
Rx 1st gen oral antihistamine antiemetic, sedative, anxiolytic |
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Term
T/F First gen oral antihistamines cross the blood brain barrier because they are lipid soluble. |
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Definition
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|
Term
What cardiovascular effects do first gen oral antihistamines have? |
|
Definition
increase BP and cause prolonged QT interval |
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Term
|
Definition
2nd gen oral antihistamine |
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Term
|
Definition
2nd gen oral antihistamine > 12 180 mg QD doesn't have a lot of drug-drug interactions |
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Term
|
Definition
2nd gen oral antihistamine 2 mo.s-5 yrs 2.5 mg PO QD |
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|
Term
|
Definition
2nd gen oral antihistamine |
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|
Term
|
Definition
2nd gen oral antihistamine > 6 yrs 5 mg PO QPM |
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|
Term
T/F There are cardiovascular effects produced by second gen oral antihistamines. |
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Definition
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|
Term
How are second gen nasal antihistamines dosed? |
|
Definition
1-2 sprays each nostril BID |
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|
Term
azelastine hydrochloride (saline) |
|
Definition
2nd gen nasal antihistamine bitter taste approved for age 5 and up |
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|
Term
azelastine hydrochloride (sucralose/sorbitol) |
|
Definition
2nd gen nasal antihistamines approved for age 12 and up |
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|
Term
|
Definition
2nd gen nasal antihistamine age 12 and up |
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|
Term
|
Definition
nasal steroid seasonal and perennial allergic and nonallergic rhinitis |
|
|
Term
fluticasone furoate (dose) |
|
Definition
nasal steroid 2-11 years: 1 spray per nostril QD-BID Adults: 2 sprays per nostril BID |
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Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
nasal steroid - AQ prep 2-11 years: 1 spray each nostril QD adults: 2 sprays each nostril QD |
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Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
beclomethasone diproponate |
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
mast cell stabilizer begin 1 week before to prevent symptoms of allergic rhinits Side effects: nasal stinging, sneezing |
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
anticholinergic agent side effects: nasal dryness, epistaxis, headache |
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|
Term
|
Definition
leukotriene receptor blocker 2-5 years - 4 mg PO QHS 6-14 years - 5 mg PO QHS Adults - 10 mg PO QD |
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|
Term
|
Definition
leukotriene receptor blocker hepatotoxicity |
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|
Term
|
Definition
leukotriene receptor blocker hepatotoxicity |
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|
Term
Name 2 causative agents of folliculitis? |
|
Definition
Staph. aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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|
Term
What oral antibiotic will resolve folliculitis? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What OTC topical agents are used to treat folliculitis? |
|
Definition
bacitracin/neomycin/polymyxin B (Neosporin) and bacitracin zinc/polymyxin B sulfate (Betadine Brand) |
|
|
Term
What Rx topical agents are used to treat folliculitis? |
|
Definition
acne preparations such as benzoyl peroxide (Benzac), doxycycline (Doryx), and clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide (Benzaclin); or mupirocin (Bactroban, Centany) |
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|
Term
How do you treat extensive folliculitis? (hot tubitis?) |
|
Definition
systemic antibiotic - cephalexin (Keflex) |
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|
Term
What is mupirocin (Bactroban nasal) used for? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is furuncle treatment for a closed lesion? |
|
Definition
Broad spectrum abx for 7-10 days; RTC in 5-9 days for incision and drainage - remove the lesion as an intact mass |
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|
Term
How do you treat a carbuncle? |
|
Definition
clean the area daily with soap and water; sterile dressing if purulence; mupirocin to open wounds; wound culture; abx - fluoroquinolone, tetracycline, or amoxicillin/clavulanate |
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|
Term
What typically causes bullous erysipelas? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the treatment for bullous erysipelas? |
|
Definition
rupture of bullae, debridement, and compression stockings
cephalexin |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for impetigo? |
|
Definition
clean the area daily - not with topical disinfectant; mupirocin, retapamulin - ointments or cephalexin, dicloxacillin - oral abx |
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|
Term
What is the treatment for lymphangitis? |
|
Definition
immobilizaion and elevation of the infected area; parenteral abx - penicillin, then after fever abates switch to oral penicillin for 10 days |
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|
Term
How do you treat cellulitis? |
|
Definition
cephalexin (Keflex), amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin), or tirmethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) |
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|
Term
How do you treat serious cellulitis? (orbital cellulitis or large areas of infection) |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the treatment for diabetic foot ulcers? |
|
Definition
PREVENTION Rule out osteomyelitis Oral broad specrum antibiotic - fluoroquinolone, amoxicillin/clavulanate Debridement of the wound to bleeding margins Daily care |
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|
Term
How long do you dose an oral abx for a diabetic foot ulcer? |
|
Definition
10-14 days, if no S/S of infection, discontinue |
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|
Term
What is a more intense treatment for diabetic foot ulcers? |
|
Definition
becaplermin (Regranex) 0.1% gel |
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|
Term
What is in becaplermin (Regranex) 0.1% gel? |
|
Definition
platelet-derived growth factors (PDGFs); these recruit cells around the ulcer and initiate the second phase of healing - proliferation |
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|
Term
What is important to note about becaplermin (Regranex)? |
|
Definition
It is a 12-hour topical treatment. Apply it in the AM and remove in the PM. Use an abx cream/ointment at night. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium bovis |
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|
Term
How do you read a TST (or PPD)? |
|
Definition
Look and feel for induration. Mark the induration with a pen and measure
>15 mm is + >10mm in an exposed, diabetic, or kidney disease individual is + >5mm in an immunocompromised individual is + |
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|
Term
What is the first phase of treatment for TB? |
|
Definition
8 weeks of daily therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide |
|
|
Term
What is the second phase of treatment? |
|
Definition
18 weeks (daily, 5x/week, or 3x/week) of meds depending on the initial response 31 weeks for phase 2 if cavitation on initial CXR |
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|
Term
What are considered the first line therapies for TB? |
|
Definition
isoniazid, rifampin, amikacin, and kanamycin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, rifabutin |
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|
Term
What are possible side effects of isoniazid? |
|
Definition
fever, skin rashes, drug induced hepatitis |
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|
Term
What are the side effects of rifampin? |
|
Definition
orange color to urine, sweat, tears, and contact lenses; rashes, thrombocytopenia (anemia), and nephritis |
|
|
Term
What drugs used to treat TB can cause drug-induced hepatitis? |
|
Definition
isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide |
|
|
Term
What happens if you use isoniazid with phenytoin? |
|
Definition
you get increased levels of both drugs |
|
|
Term
What TB drug should not be used in children and why? |
|
Definition
ethambutol because of risk of diminished visual acuity |
|
|
Term
What drug regimen do you use to treat children with TB? |
|
Definition
isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide and 4th if there is severe pulmonary disease |
|
|
Term
What is the 3 drug regimen used to treat active TB in pregnant women? Why are these used? |
|
Definition
isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol they are used because of their lack of teratogenic effects |
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|
Term
When a TB patient is in advanced liver disease, which drug(s) do you use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What medications do you use to treat HIV patients with TB? |
|
Definition
same drugs as with non-HIV patients, except if the patient is on antivirals, in which case - no rifampin |
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|
Term
What 3 drugs may increase risk of latent TB becoming active TB? How do they cause this? |
|
Definition
infliximab, etanercept, or adalimumab
they inhibit tumor necrosis factor alpha |
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|
Term
How must isoniazid be taken? |
|
Definition
on an empty stomach, and no antacids for 2 hours |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for resistant TB? |
|
Definition
isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, + 2 or 3 additional agents |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 most common bacteria in AOM? |
|
Definition
1. Strep pneumoniae 40-50% 2. Haemophilis influenzae 30-40% 3. Moraxell catarrhalis 10-15% |
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|
Term
What 3 factors must be present in order to diagnose OM? |
|
Definition
1. History of acute onset 2. Signs of middle ear effusion - immobile, bulging TM 3. Middle ear inflammation - erythema of the TM, otalgia |
|
|
Term
What is the first line of treatment for uncomplicated AOM? |
|
Definition
1. Amoxicillin - safe, inexpensive, acceptable taste, and narrow microbiologic spectrum |
|
|
Term
What is the low dose of amoxicillin for AOM? High dose? |
|
Definition
40-45 mg/kg/day in divided doses BID x 10 days
80-90 mg/kg/day in divided doses BID x 10 days |
|
|
Term
What is the dosing for amoxicillin/clavulanate for AOM? |
|
Definition
1. amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day 2. clavulanate 6.4 mg/kg/day 3. divided doses BID x 10 days |
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|
Term
What is the dosing of Clindamycin for AOM after treatment failure? |
|
Definition
17-25 mg/kg/day in 3-4 doses x 10 days |
|
|
Term
What abxs are used to treat OE> |
|
Definition
Colistin/neomycin/hydrocotisone ofloxacin ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone |
|
|
Term
What is a contraindication for the use of colistin/neomycin/hydrocortisone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which medication is approved for treatment of OE with perforated TM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is ciprofloaxin/dexamethasone (steroid) contraindicated? |
|
Definition
viral or fungal infection |
|
|
Term
How do you treat fungal OE? |
|
Definition
2% acetic acid solution 1% clotrimazole tolnafate |
|
|
Term
How many days must a patient be symptomatic before it is no longer assumed to be VIRAL rhinosinusitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
hat meds are useful for rhinosinusitis? |
|
Definition
oxymetazoline phenylephrine azelastine use 1-3 days only |
|
|
Term
What 4 items are on the diagnostic point system for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis? |
|
Definition
1. purulent nasal discharge - worse on one side 2. bilateral rhinorrhea 3. unilateral maxillary sinus tenderness (or frontal sinus tenderness) 4. Pus in the nasal cavity on examination |
|
|
Term
How do you treat ABRS in peds? |
|
Definition
1. high dose amoxicillin 2. high dose amoxicillin/clavulanate 3. cefidinir 4. clindamycin |
|
|
Term
How do you treat ABRS in adults? |
|
Definition
1. high dose amoxicillin or amoxicillin/clavulanate 2. cefpodoxine 3. moxifloxacin 4. clarithromycin |
|
|
Term
What is the first line of therapy for ABRS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a patient is allergic to penicillins, what do you use to treat ABRS? |
|
Definition
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or a macrolide |
|
|
Term
If a patient has used abx in the last 4-6 weeks, what do you use to treat ABRS? |
|
Definition
1. fluoroquinolone 2. high dose amoxicillin/clavulanate |
|
|
Term
What is included in the diagnostic point system for GABHS pharyngitis? |
|
Definition
1. Tonsilar exudates 2. absence of cough 3. tender anterior cervical lymph nodes 4. history of fever >100.4 5. <15 years 6. >45 years |
|
|
Term
What is the DOC for GABHS pharyngitis? |
|
Definition
1. penicillin G bezathine IM 2. Penicillin VK in adults 3. Macrolide for penicillin allergy - clarithromycin |
|
|
Term
What might you use to treat watery, itchy eyes? |
|
Definition
olopatadine azelastine
both are antihistamine and mast cell stabilizers |
|
|
Term
How long is the treatment course for bacterial UTI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why do we use 1 day treatments for bacterial UTI if they are less effective than longer treatments? |
|
Definition
longer treatments have higher risk for adverse effects and are not very much more effective. |
|
|
Term
How long is the treatment course for complicated UTI? |
|
Definition
7-14 days except Nitrofurantoin 7-10 days - safe to use in pregnant women |
|
|
Term
What is a urine dip test done to detect? |
|
Definition
presence of leukocyte esterase, presence of blood, presence of nitrates |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name some bacteria that may be the cause of complicated urinary tract infection. |
|
Definition
Staphylococcus saprophyticus (gram +), enterobacteria (Klebsiella or Proteus) |
|
|
Term
What is the empiric treatment for women with suspected UTI? |
|
Definition
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 3 days ciprofloxacin 3 days |
|
|
Term
T/F History and physical exam trump dipstick analysis when it comes to diagnosing UTI. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In microscopic analysis, what # of WBCs and RBCs indicate infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pyridium - a urinary analgesic |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for acute uncomplicated cystitis? |
|
Definition
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 800/160 mg bid x 3days ciprofloxacin 250 mg bid x 3 days fosfomycin 1 day nitrofurantoin 100 mg bid x 7 days cephalexin amoxicillin/clavulanate |
|
|
Term
How is nitrofurantoin cleared from the body? |
|
Definition
kidneys, so do not prescribe with creatinine clearance < 40 ml/min |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of nitrofurantoin? |
|
Definition
nausea and vomiting - 17% of patients rash - 1%
rare pulm hypersensitivity: acute fever, cough, dyspnea, myalgias, eosinophilia, infiltrates pulm fibrosis: insidious onset, nonproductive cough, dyspnea, interstitial infiltrates hemolytic anemia peripheral neuropathy |
|
|
Term
What 3 abx used for the treatment of UTI are pregnancy category B? |
|
Definition
nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, and cephalexin |
|
|
Term
Which abx is the treatment of choice for UTI in pregnant women? Why? |
|
Definition
Nitrofurantoin - cat. B and cheap
fosfomycin is more expensive cephalexin isn't as effective |
|
|
Term
How does a UTI presentation differ in the elderly? |
|
Definition
no fever, asymptomatic bacteriuria, altered mental status, change in eating habits, GI complaints |
|
|
Term
How do you treat significant (max on urine dip) hematuria? |
|
Definition
urinalysis, 10 days of tx with TMP/SMX and RTC to repeat urine dip |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for pyelonephritis in an immunocompetant patient that can tolerate oral therapy? |
|
Definition
ceftriaxone and levofloxacin follow up in 24-72 hours |
|
|
Term
How do you treat schistosomiasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for acute prostatitis? |
|
Definition
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for chronic prostatitis? |
|
Definition
same as UTI, but longer (4 weeks - 3 months) |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for infectious hematospermia? |
|
Definition
2 weeks of quinolone, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, or doxycycline |
|
|
Term
Between age 14-35 what are the most common causes of epididymitis? |
|
Definition
N. gonorrhea or Chlamydia |
|
|
Term
What is the most likely cause of epididymitis in men older than 35? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you rule out testicular torsion when you suspect epididymitis? |
|
Definition
pain with testicular elevation, acute onset of pain, epididymis appears normal, decreased blood flow on doppler |
|
|
Term
What % of interstitial cystitis patients have therapeutic results from evaluation by hydrodistension? How long do the effects last? |
|
Definition
30-60% and last 2-8 weeks |
|
|
Term
T/F Bronchitis is generally considered a viral etiology. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Pneumonia is generally considered a bacterial infection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long does acute bronchitis last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for whooping cough? |
|
Definition
Erythromycin (EES) 30-50 mg/kg/day as 3 divided doses x 10 days |
|
|
Term
How soon should treatment be started with whooping cough? |
|
Definition
macrolide should be started within the first 2 weeks |
|
|
Term
How long should a patient with whooping cough be isolated? |
|
Definition
first 5 days of treatment |
|
|
Term
Name 3 primary bacterial agents that can cause acute bronchitis in rare cases. |
|
Definition
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Bordetella pertussis |
|
|
Term
Name 3 causes of secondary bacterial infection in acute bronchitis. |
|
Definition
Streptococcus ssp., Staphylococcus spp., Hemophilis spp. |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for acute bronchitis? |
|
Definition
symptomatic and supportive care - fluids and bed rest, antipyretics, vaporizer to lessen respiratory secretions (especially in infants < 1 year) |
|
|
Term
Where is acetominophen metabolized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is ibuprofen metabolized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the maximum dosage of acetominophen for an adult? |
|
Definition
short term 4g/day long term 3g/day |
|
|
Term
What characterizes Reye's syndrome? |
|
Definition
severe increase of intracranial pressure and an abnormal accumulation of fat in the liver; first symptom is uncontrollable vomiting and nausea; swelling in the brain may cause seizures and the child may stop breathing |
|
|
Term
How do you treat Reye's syndrome? |
|
Definition
drugs to control the swelling in the brain and IV fluids to restore normal blood chemistry; ventilator to aid in breathing |
|
|
Term
Name 3 cough suppressants used to treat acute bronchitis. |
|
Definition
dextromethorphan, codeine, and hydrocodone |
|
|
Term
How does dextromethophan work? |
|
Definition
Penetrates the CNS to act on the brainstem to inhibit the cough center; inhibits glutamenergic synaptic transmission of inputs from sensory receptors in the airway as a result of facilitation of serotonergic mechanism |
|
|
Term
T/F Expectorants are recommended for acute bronchitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do expectorants do to ease symptoms? |
|
Definition
promote drainage of mucus from the lungs by thinning the mucus and lubricating the irritated respiratory tract |
|
|
Term
What is the dosing for guafenesin (Mucinex)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is benzonatate (Tessalon)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you dose benzonatate? |
|
Definition
100 mg perles bid-tid Walmart $4 prescription |
|
|
Term
What criteria are used to diagnose chronic bronchitis? |
|
Definition
cough and sputum expectoration occurring on most days for at least 3 months of the year and for at least 2 consecutive years without the presence of other pulmonary or cardiac causes |
|
|
Term
How do we treat chronic bronchitis? |
|
Definition
depends on classification 1, 2, or 3 symptomatic and supportive care, maybe antibiotics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you dose bronchodilators? |
|
Definition
2 puffs prn up to QID - if more than 1 is used, still QID TOTAL |
|
|
Term
How do you dose duoneb (albuterol + ipratripium) updraft solution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Abuterol is a short acting beta agonist. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F While using beta agonists, it is important to avoid concomitant beta-blocker therapy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does albuterol have little effect on adrenergic receptors of the heart? |
|
Definition
It is a selective better blocker, blocking beta2 receptors which relaxes the airway smooth muscle but not blocking beta1 receptors of the heart |
|
|
Term
How does ipratropium bromide act as a bronchodilator? |
|
Definition
it blocks the action of Ach at parasympathetic sites in bronchial smooth muscle |
|
|
Term
What is the DOC bronchodilator for COPD patients? How is it dosed? |
|
Definition
albuterol + ipratropium bromide 2 puffs prn QID |
|
|
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for simple chronic bronchitis with mild symptoms? |
|
Definition
no antibiotics, just symptomatic and supportive care |
|
|
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for simple chronic bronchitis with intense symptoms? Give dosage |
|
Definition
symptomatic and supportive care and antibiotics azithromycin, 3 pack 500 mg po QD x 3 days doxycycline trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 800/160 mg po bid x 10 days |
|
|
Term
How does trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole work? |
|
Definition
prevents bacterial proteins and nucleic acids from being synthesized |
|
|
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with COPD and mild symptoms? |
|
Definition
azithromycin, doxycycline, co-trimaxazole (bactrim DS) |
|
|
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with COPD and severe symptoms? |
|
Definition
levofloxacin, 750 mg QD x 7 days clarithromycin 500 mg ii tabs QD x 7 days |
|
|
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with severe COPD and mild symptoms? |
|
Definition
levofloxacin amoxicillin-clavulanate 1000/62.5 mg 2 tabs po q12h x 10 days |
|
|
Term
What is the antibiotic therapy for chronic bronchitis with severe COPD and severe symptoms? |
|
Definition
consider hospitalization for IV abx as for pneumonia - run cultures ceftriaxone 1 g IM with levofloxacin or Augmentin and follow up in 24 h. |
|
|
Term
What age is the peak incidence of bronchioloitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 3 viruses account for most cases of bronchiolitis? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the clinical presentation of bronchiolitis? |
|
Definition
prodrome - irritability, restlessness, mild fever (lasts 2-7 days) dehydration - cough prevents fluid intake; emesis, diarrhea, fever tachypnea (40- 80 RR) labored breathing, retractions of the chest wall, nasal flaring, and grunting |
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Term
When are bronchodilators used in the treatment of bronchiolitis and why? |
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Definition
only for bronchospasm with clear therapeutic benefit because they may be detrimental to patients |
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Term
What treatment regimen helps reduce rate of hospital admission in bronchiolitis patients? |
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Definition
epinephrine nebulizer treatment dexamethasone shot then oral treatment for 5 days |
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Term
How is palivizumab given? |
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Definition
injection once a month for several months (max 3-5 doses) |
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Term
What is the most common cause of death from infection in the US? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the 3 ways in which microorganisms access the lungs? |
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Definition
1. inhaled aerosolized particles 2. through the blood stream from an extrapulmonary site of infection in sepsis 3. aspiration of oropharyngeal contents |
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Term
What is the most common cause of CAP? |
|
Definition
Streptococcus pneumoniaee |
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Term
Why is urinary antigen detection for the C polysaccharide from the pneumococcal cell wall used to determine if someone has Strep. pneumoniae? |
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Definition
because it remains positive for weeks after initial symptoms and can be used after abx are begun |
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Term
How do you determine if someone has severe CAP? |
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Definition
One major criteria or 2 minor criteria |
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Term
What are the major criteria for determining severe CAP? |
|
Definition
serum p < 7.3 systolic pressure < 90 mm Hg |
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|
Term
What are the minor criteria for determining severe CAP? |
|
Definition
respirations > 30 BUN > 30 altered mental status age > 80 years multi-lobular/bilateral infiltrates on CXR Pa02 < 54 mm Hg |
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Term
What is the outpatient abx therapy for adults with CAP? |
|
Definition
levofloxacin 750 mg QD x 10 days gemifloxacin 320 mg po QD x 7 days clarithromycin 500 mg ii tabs QD x 10 days |
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|
Term
What is the outpatient abx therapy for pediatrics with CAP? |
|
Definition
clarithromycin amoxicillin/clavulanate ceftriaxone |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 pneumonia vaccines and when are they used? |
|
Definition
Pneumovax 23 - used in those with weakened immune systems and those over 65 Prevnar - covers 80% of pneumococcal infections in peds population
Also, yearly flu vaccine helps prevent pneumonia cases caused by flu |
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|
Term
What are 3 atypical pathogens that may cause pneumonia? |
|
Definition
Mycoplasma penumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, and Legionella pneumoniae |
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|
Term
How is Legionella pneumoniae spread? |
|
Definition
spray from stagnant water no person to person spread has 14% mortality rate |
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|
Term
How do you treat atypical pneumonia? |
|
Definition
levofloxacin clarithromycin 500 mg ii tabs QD x 10 days doxycycline |
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|
Term
How should nursing home acquired pneumonia be treated outpatient? |
|
Definition
levofloxacin or moxifloxicin
OR
amoxicillin/clavulanate or cefuroxime or cefpodoxime AND azithromycin |
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|
Term
How should nursing home acquired pneumonia be treated inpatient? |
|
Definition
3 medications IV
1. antipseudomonal - cephalosporin (cefepime), cabapenem (imipemem/cilastatin), B-lactam (piperacillin-tazobactam) 2. antipsudomonal - fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin), aminoglycoside (tobramycin) 3. Anti-MRSA - vancomycin or linezolid |
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|
Term
What is the risk of acquiring gonorrhea after 1 encounter? |
|
Definition
male -> female 50-60% female -> male 20-30% |
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|
Term
What culture techniques are used to diagnose gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
male - urethral swab female - endocervical swab |
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|
Term
What lab test is used to diagnose gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) used to check for chlamydia too men - urine female - endocervical |
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|
Term
How do you treat uncomplicated gonorrhea in adults? |
|
Definition
ceftriaxone 250 mg IM once cefixime 400 mg PO once |
|
|
Term
T/F N. gonorrhea is increasingly resistant to quinolones in some geographic areas. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How do you treat disseminated gonorrhea in adults? |
|
Definition
hospitalization ceftriaxone 1 g IM Q24h |
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|
Term
How do you treat PID from gonorrhea outpatient? |
|
Definition
ceftriaxone doxycycline metronidazole |
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|
Term
T/F Concomitant treatment for chlamydia infection should always take place. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How do you treat chlamydia? |
|
Definition
doxycycline 100 mg bid x 7 days azithromycin 1 g orally once |
|
|
Term
How do you treat gonorrhea in pregnant women? |
|
Definition
Avoid fluoroquinolones ceftriaxone 125 mg IM spectinomycin 2 g IM cefixime |
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|
Term
How do you treat chlamydia in pregnant women? |
|
Definition
azythromycin or amoxicillin |
|
|
Term
What is the organism that causes Syphilis? |
|
Definition
Treponema pallidium a spirochete |
|
|
Term
What is the risk of transmission of syphilis on a single encounter? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When does the chancre of syphilis form? How long does it last? |
|
Definition
10-90 days (average of 21) lasts 3-6 weeks |
|
|
Term
When does secondary syphilis present? |
|
Definition
4-10 weeks after primary infection |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical presentation of secondary syphilis? |
|
Definition
skin rash, fever, myalgias, malaise, lympadenopathy or mucocutaneous lesions |
|
|
Term
Which diagnostic tests are used to detect syphilis? |
|
Definition
VDRL - screening FTA-ABS - confirmation |
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|
Term
What is the treatment for acute syphilis? |
|
Definition
penicillin G IM once
if allergy: ceftriaxone IM 8-10 days or doxycycline po 14 days or tetracycline po 14 days |
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|
Term
What is the treatment for latent syphilis? |
|
Definition
penicillin G IM 3 doses over 2 weeks |
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|
Term
What is the treatment for neurosyphilis? |
|
Definition
benzathine penicillin G IV for 10-14 days
oral doxycycline is NOT appropriate |
|
|
Term
T/F Congenital syphilis can present itself early or as late as puberty. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the treatment for syphilis during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
Penicillin - it's the only treatment for during pregnancy so desensitize allergic patients |
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|
Term
T/F Chlamydia has a high incidence of asymptomatic disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is lymphogranuloma veneruem? |
|
Definition
another form of Chlamydia that is hard to kill |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for lymphogranuloma venerueum? |
|
Definition
DOC: doxycycline 100 mg bid x 21 days
alternative: erythromycin same time |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for chlamydia? |
|
Definition
azithromycin once doxycycline 7 days |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for chlamydia during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
azythromycin once amoxicillin 7 days alt: erythromycin 7 days |
|
|
Term
If after treating chlamydia there is persistent urethritis, how do you treat? |
|
Definition
metronidazole + erythromycin |
|
|
Term
T/F Most neonates that contract genital herpes die. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the treatment for the first episode of genital herpes? |
|
Definition
acyclovir 400 mg tid x 10 days famciclovir 250 mg tid x 10 days valacyclovir 1 g bid x 10 days |
|
|
Term
What is the episodic treatment for genital herpes? |
|
Definition
acyclovir famciclovir valacyclovir
half the time |
|
|
Term
What is the suppressive treatment for genital herpes? |
|
Definition
acyclovir famciclovir valacyclovir
treat 1 year then only resume if recurrence |
|
|
Term
T/F Trichomoniasis is subclinical infection in men. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the treatment for trichomoniasis? |
|
Definition
metronidazole 2 g once (no alcohol) tinidazole 2 g once (no alcohol) |
|
|
Term
Which types of HPV are associated with 90% of genital warts cases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which 2 types of HPV are highly oncogenic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many types of HPV are oncogenic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What % of HPV related cancers are caused by HPV-16? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for genital warts? |
|
Definition
podophyllotoxin gel or solution imiquimod cream sinecatechins ointment
cryotherapy |
|
|
Term
What HPV types are covered in the vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many doses are there in the HPV vaccine? |
|
Definition
3 doses at 12 week intervals |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for chancroid? |
|
Definition
azythromycin once ceftriaxone once Cipro 3 days erythromycin 7 days |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for a superficial genital bite wound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the empiric therapy for genital bite wound? |
|
Definition
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