Term
WHat is this:
blue black macule found over the lumbosacral area in 90% of infants from where (ie population most affected..there are 3) |
|
Definition
mongolian spot
Native American, AA, and Asian descent |
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Term
What is the patho behind mongolian spots? |
|
Definition
conist of spindle-shaped pigment cells located deep in the dermis
lesions fade somewhat with time as a result of darkening of the overlying skin, but some traces may persist into adult life. |
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Term
What is this:
light brown, oval macule that may be found anywhere in body
-if you have six or more of these lesions over 1.5 cm...this can clue you in pt may have _____ |
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Definition
Cafe au Lait Macule
neurofibromatosis |
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Term
Pts with McCune Albright syndrome have what type of cafe au lait macule? |
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Definition
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Term
What is milia?
how big? ie. how would you describe?
what do you call these if you find them in the mouth? |
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Definition
tiny epidermal cysts filled with keratin material
1-2 mm white papules occur predominately on the face
if found in mouth- called Epstein pearls |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What is a harelequin color change?
when does it typically occur?
who in particular is affected?
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Definition
What is a harelequin color change? cutaneous vascular phenomenon occurs when infant place on one side. Dependent half develops an erythematous flush with a sharp demarcation at the midline
when does it typically occur? neonates in the first week of life
who in particular is affected? low birth weight
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Term
Tineaversicolor:
what causes it?
What type of organism?
What does it look like? ie how would you describe? what happens in the winter? |
|
Definition
what causes it? Pityrosporum orbiculare
What type of organism? yeastlike fungus
What does it look like? ie how would you describe? polycyclic connected hypopigmented macules and very fine scales in areas of sun-induces pigmentation.
In the winter- polycyclic macules appear reddish brown
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Term
erosions covered by honey-colored crusts are diagnostic of _____ |
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Definition
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Term
What are important pathogens related to Impetigo?
what's the patho causing it? |
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Definition
staph and group a streptococci
superficial invasion of bacteria into the upper epidermis, forming a subcorneal pustule |
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Term
what's the tx for impetigo? |
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Definition
agent effective against staph auerus such as
b-lactamase resistant PNCS or cephalosporins
clindamycin
amoxicillin-clavulanate for 7-10 days.
Topical mupirocin and fusidic acid (3x daily effective)
ACCORDING TO ANNIE:
first line: bactroban TID
then systemic abx: second gen ceph (Keflex and Cefadroxil (for immunocompromised)
STRESS HAND WASHING! |
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Term
What % of full term infants develop erythema toxicum?
When do infants usually present? how? |
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Definition
50%
Usually within 24-28 hours of age, blotchy erythematous macules 2-3 cm in diameter appear predom on chest..but also on back, face and extremities |
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Term
What would you find if you did a Wright stain on erythema toxicum?
when does it go away? |
|
Definition
eosinophils
no organisms on gram stain
all lesions fase and disappear within 5-7 days |
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Term
What is milaria?
How do pts present? |
|
Definition
obstruction of the eccrine sweat ducts
two presenattions:
1. superficial obstruction in the stratum corneum causes miliaria crystalline, characterized by tiny, superficial grouped vasicles without erythema over intertriginous areas and adjacent skin
2. More common: obstruction of the eccrine sweat ducts deeper in the epidermis results in erythematous grouped papules in the same areas--called miliaria rubra |
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Term
What predisposes pt to miliaria?
What is tx of choice? |
|
Definition
heat and humidity predispose
tx: removal to a cooler environment |
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Term
Pt presents with the following:
acute edema, erythema, and oozing with crusting, mild erythema alone, or lichenification.
what could it be? |
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Definition
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Term
Where does infantile eczema usually begin? (ie. body parts)
What age? |
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Definition
dermatitis begins on the cheeks and scalp and frequently expresses itself as oval patches on the trunk, later involving the extensor surfaces of the extremities.
Age: usual age at onset is 2–3 months, and this phase ends at age 18 months to 2 years.
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Term
What's the patho behind atopic dermatitis (aka eczema)? |
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Definition
Atopic dermatitis results from an interaction among susceptibility genes, the host environment, skin barrier defects, pharmacologic abnormalities, and immunologic respons
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Term
How do you treat atopic dermatitis? |
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Definition
acute phase: wet dressings and topical corticosteroids
chronic: no harsh soaps or shampoo, shower every three days/ twice daily lubricant very important; Tacrolimus and pimecrolimus ointments are topical immunosuppressive agents that are effective in atopic dermatitis.
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Term
What's the difference between primary irritant contact dermatitis and allergic eczematous contact dermatitis? |
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Definition
Primary irritant dermatitis develops within a few hours, reaches peak severity at 24 hours, and then disappears.
Allergic eczematous contact dermatitis has a delayed onset of 18 hours, peaks at 48–72 hours, and often lasts as long as 2–3 weeks even if exposure to the offending antigen is discontinued.
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Term
What causes diaper dermatitis? |
|
Definition
prolonged contact with urine or feces (ie. urea and intestinal enzymes) |
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Term
How do you treat diaper dermatitis? |
|
Definition
changing diapers frequently.
Washing should be done with a wash cloth and warm water only.
avoid rubber or plastic pants bc prevent evaporation of the contactant and enhance its penetration into the skin
Air drying is useful.
Treatment of long-standing diaper dermatitis should include application of nystatin or an imidazole cream with each diaper change.
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Term
When does seborrhea dermatitis usually occur? Why?
How do you treat? |
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Definition
infants and puberty- bc points of maximum hormonal stimulation
treat: low potency corticosteroids |
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Term
What skin disorder does this describe:
erythematous papules covered by thick white scales
Where do you often see this?
|
|
Definition
psoriasis
seen where? scalp, elbows, knees, periumbilical area, ears, sacral area, and genitalia
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Term
What's the patho behind psoriasis? |
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Definition
ncreased epidermal turnover; psoriatic epidermis has a turnover time of 3–4 days versus 28 days for normal skin. These rapidly proliferating epidermal cells produce excessive stratum corneum, giving rise to thick, opaque scales.
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Term
|
Definition
bilateral dusky mottled discoloration of the hands, feet, and sometimes the face.
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Term
How do you distinguish acrocyanosis from Raynaud phenomenon? |
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Definition
painless
pulses present
trophic changes do NOT occur
**these are referring to acrocyanosis
Raynaud: typically episodical, painful and related to arterial disease |
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Term
What's tx for acrocyanosis?
Who gets it? |
|
Definition
No tx: just keep extremities warm
usually develops in adolescence; genetically determined |
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|
Term
How do you diagnose tinea corporis? |
|
Definition
diagnosis is made by scraping thin scales from the border of the lesion, dissolving them in 20% KOH, and examining for hyphae.
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|
Term
What could this be:
Thickened, broken-off hairs with erythema and scaling of underlying scalp are the distinguishing features
what causes?
|
|
Definition
tinea capitus
In endemic ringworm, hairs are broken off at the surface of the scalp, leaving a "black dot" appearance. Pustule formation and a boggy, fluctuant mass on the scalp occur in M canis and T tonsurans infections. This mass, called a kerion, represents an exaggerated host response to the organism. Diffuse scaling of the scalp may also be seen. Fungal culture should be performed in all cases of suspected tinea capitis.
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Term
If hair is involved in dermatophytosis (which is what?),
What is best tx? why? |
|
Definition
fungal infection
griseofulvin bc topical tx will not penetrate to hair |
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Term
What is the tx for tinea versicolor? |
|
Definition
selenium sulfide: apply to whole body and leave on overnight |
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|
Term
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the most common cause of otitis externa? |
|
Definition
loss of the cerumen which usually acts as a protectant |
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Term
What are some indications for hospitalizing a child with pneumonia (community acquired) |
|
Definition
most infants younger than four months of age, unless a viral etiology or Chlamydia trachomatis is suspected and they are relatively asymptomatic. A child of any age whose family cannot provide appropriate care and assure compliance with the therapeutic plan needs to be hospitalized.
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Term
What type of tx do you give child with pneumonia? |
|
Definition
supportive
antipyretic/analgesic |
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Term
Children with CAP pneumonia are at risk for what? |
|
Definition
SIADH
syndrome of inapproporiate diuretic hormone |
|
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Term
What do you want to monitor in child with pneumonia? |
|
Definition
• Temperature
• Respiratory rate
• Heart rate
• Oxygen saturation
• Work of breathing (eg, presence of retractions, nasal flaring, grunting)
• Auscultatory findings
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Term
viral pneumonia is ______ and associated with preceding upper airway symptoms. Auscultatory findings are usually _____ and _____. Infiltrates are usually ______.
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Definition
viral pneumonia is gradual and associated with preceding upper airway symptoms. Auscultatory findings are usually diffuse and bilateral. Infiltrates are usually interstitial.
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Term
What are clues that a patient may have bacterial pneumonia? |
|
Definition
Clues to bacterial pneumonia include alveolar infiltrate, lobar or segmental consolidation, large pleural effusion, elevated CRP, leukocytosis, signs of sepsis, and chills. Other complications (pneumatoceles, cavitations, necrotizing processes) also are suggestive of typical bacterial etiology.
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Term
What are the two most common types of atypical pneumonia in children? |
|
Definition
M. pneumoniae and Chlamydophila pneumoniae
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Term
What are clues to atypical pneumonia? |
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Definition
Clues to atypical bacterial pneumonia include abrupt onset of constitutional findings (malaise and myalgia, headache, conjunctivitis, photophobia, sore throat), and gradually worsening non-productive cough despite improvement of other symptoms, wheezing, rash, and interstitial infiltrates
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Term
What are organisms responsible for bacterial pneumonia? |
|
Definition
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common type of bacterial cause of pneumonia in children of all ages
S. aureus, including methicillin-resistant S. aureus,
Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus),
Haemophilus influenzae type b (if unimmunized),
nontypeable H. influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis
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Term
Who is predisposed to getting bacterial pneumonia? |
|
Definition
aspiration, immunodeficiency or immunosuppression
congential anomalies (intrapulmonary sequestration, tracheoesophageal fistula or cleft plate)
abnormalities in clearance of mucus (CF, ciliary dysfunction, tracheomalacia, or bronchiectasis), congestive heart failure and perinatal contamination |
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Term
True or false.
Pt who has pneumonia. Could they complain about abdominal pain? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Bacterial pneumonia.
True or False
Clinical resolution precedes resolution apparent on chest radiograph. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a bacterial pneumonia caused by legionella or mycoplasma..what is abx of choice? |
|
Definition
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Term
Most pneumonias in children are caused by ____ (give examples) |
|
Definition
viruses!!!
RSV
parainfluenza (1,2,3)
influenza A and B
human metapneumovirus |
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Term
What typically precedes a viral pneumonia?
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|
Definition
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|
Term
What are tests that can be done for a viral pneumonia? |
|
Definition
rapid viral diagnostic methods:
fluorescent antibody tests
enzyme linked immunosorbent assay |
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Term
How do you characterize bronchioloitis? |
|
Definition
characterized by one of the following:
coughing
tachypnea
labored breathing
hypoxia |
|
|
Term
Typical presentation:
acute onset of tachypnea, cough and expiratory wheezing after 1-2 days of rhinorrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?
Other causes? |
|
Definition
most common: RSV
other: parainfluenza, human metapneumovirus, influenza, adenovirus, mycoplasma, chlamydia, ureaplasma |
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Term
who is at risk for hospitalization from broncholoitis? |
|
Definition
young infants (<6 mts
esp if hx of prematuring
underlying cardiopulmonary disorders |
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|
Term
|
Definition
respiratory pause lasting more than 20 seconds
OR any pause accompanied by cyanosis and bradycardia |
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Term
A chest radiograph shows hypoexpanison and air bronchograms.
what could it be? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the most common cause of respiratory distress in the preterm infant? |
|
Definition
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Term
What causes hyaline membrane disease? |
|
Definition
defienciency in surfactant
results in poor lung compliance and atelectasis
the infant must expend a great deal of effort to expand the lungs each breath, respiratory failure ensures |
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Term
what is the role of surfactant? |
|
Definition
decreases surface tension in the alveolus during expiration, allowing the alveolus to remain partly expanded and maintain a functional residual capacity |
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Term
What may you see on chest x ray in pt with hyaline membrane disease? |
|
Definition
diffuse bilateral atelectasis, causing ground glass appearance
atelectatic air sacs create air bronchograms
In unintubated child, doming of the diaphrahm and underexpansion occur |
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Term
What is the initial intervention for hyaline membrane disease? |
|
Definition
supplemental oxygen
nasal CPAP
early intubation for surfactant administration and ventilation
placement of umbilical artery and vein lines |
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Term
What are the names of the surfactant used in hyaline membrane disease? |
|
Definition
Survanta
Infasurf
Curosurf |
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|
Term
When does pyloric stenosis typically begin? (ie age) |
|
Definition
vomiting usually begins btw 2 and 4 weeks
can start as late as 12 weeks |
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Term
What is unique about vomiting in pyloric stenosis? |
|
Definition
usually projectile
rarely bilious
may be blood streaked |
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Term
What are symptoms of pyloric stenosis? |
|
Definition
constipation
weight loss
fretfulness
dehydration
apathy
upper abdomen may be distended after feeding
and prominent gastric peristaltic waves
oval mass in RUQ may be palpated |
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Term
What lab findings are associated with pyloric stenosis?
What will you see in barium upper GI series? |
|
Definition
hypochloremic alkalosis with K depletion
dehydration causes elevated Hgb and Hct
upper Gi series: retention of contrast in the stomach and a long narrow pyloric channel with a double track of barium; hypertrophied muscle mass produces typical semilunar filling defects in the antrum. |
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Term
How do you treat a pyloric stenosis? |
|
Definition
pyloromyotomy-incision down to the mucosa along the pyloric length |
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Term
What are the four basic problems in Tetralogy of Fallot? |
|
Definition
1. Stenosis of the pulmonary artery
2. Intraventricular communication
3. Deviation of the origin of the aorta to the right
4. Concentric right ventricular hypertrophy
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Term
What are reasons to hospitalize children with pneumonia? |
|
Definition
Age < 6 months
Sickle cell anemia
Multi-lobe involvement
Immunocompromised child
Patient appears toxic
Severe respiratory distress
Patient needs supplemental oxygen
Patient is dehydrated
Patient is vomiting
Not responding to oral antibiotics
Non-compliant parents
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Term
What is somnambilism?
What do parents need to know? |
|
Definition
somnambilism- sleep walking
During a night terror, the child may sit up in bed screaming, thrashing about, and exhibiting rapid breathing, tachycardia, and sweating. The child is often incoherent and unresponsive to comforting. The episode may last up to half an hour, after which the child goes back to sleep and has no memory of the event the next day. The parents must be reassured that the child is not in pain and that they should let the episode run its course.
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Term
How should a parent manage night terrors? |
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Definition
Management of night terrors is by reassurance of the parents plus measures to avoid stress, irregular sleep schedule, or sleep deprivation which prolongs deep sleep when night terrors occur. Scheduled awakening (awakening the child 30–45 minutes before the time the night terrors usually occur) can be used in children with nightly or frequent night terrors.
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Term
What causes herpetic gingivostomatitis? |
|
Definition
herpes simplex virus type 1 |
|
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Term
Young child presents with prodrome of fever (100.4ºF)), anorexia, irritability, malaise, sleeplessness, and headache
It then develops into vesicular lesions on their mucous membranes and gingiva. What could it be?
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|
Definition
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|
Term
Describe what a herpetic gingivostomatitis looks like in a young child.
What areas are affected? |
|
Definition
The enanthem begins with red, edematous marginal gingivae that bleed easily and clusters of small vesicles.The vesicles become yellow after rupture and are surrounded by a red halo. They coalesce to form large, painful ulcers of the oral and perioral tissues .They bleed easily and may become covered with a black crust
The lesions involve the buccal mucosa, tongue, gingiva, hard palate, and pharynx; the lips and perioral skin are affected in approximately two-thirds of cases
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Term
How do you diagnose herpes gingivostomatitis?
What is another option? |
|
Definition
diagnosis made clinically
HSV-1 can be diagnosed with viral culture, serology, immunofluorescence, or polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
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Term
What is the tx for apthous stomatitis?
What is it often confused with? How do you rule it out? |
|
Definition
There is no specific therapy for this condition. Rinsing the mouth with liquid antacids provides relief in most patients. Topical corticosteroids in a gel base may provide some relief. In severe cases that interfere with eating, prednisone, 1 mg/kg/d orally for 3–5 days, will suffice to abort an episode. Colchicine, 0.2–0.5 mg/d, sometimes reduces the frequency of attacks.
confused with herpes simplex. A smear of the base of such a lesion stained with Wright stain will aid in ruling out herpes simplex by the absence of epithelial multinucleate giant cells.
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Term
What could this be?
white curdlike plaques, predominantly on the buccal mucosa, which cannot be washed away after a feeding
How do you treat? |
|
Definition
thrush: oral candida albicans
tx: nystatin oral suspension. Treatment may begin by removing large plaques with a moistened cotton-tipped applicator, and half the nystatin may be rubbed on the lesions with an applicator.
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Term
What are ways you can get meningitis? |
|
Definition
1. From nasal colonization
2. Rarely from trauma or instrumentation
Neurosurgical procedures
Sinus fracture
3. Rarely to the newborn
Via maternal transmission
4. Impaired splenic function
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Term
What etiologies are neonates susceptible to getting meningitis?
What abx do you use empirically to treat? |
|
Definition
1. Group B Streptococci
2. Listeria
3. Enteric gram negative pathogens
E. Coli
Abx: ampicillin and gentamicin or other aminoglycoside
OR
ampicillin and third generation cephalosporin
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Term
What etiologies are infants or older children susceptible to in getting meningitis?
|
|
Definition
Neisseria meningitis
Strep pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
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|
Term
Pt presents with the following sxs:
what could it be?
Fever
Stiff neck
Photophobia
Headache
Altered mental status
Seizures (up to 25% of the cases)
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|
Definition
|
|
Term
What will CSF fluid show in bacterial meningitis? for the following:
CSF Color
Opening Pressure
WBC
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|
Definition
CSF color
Normal CSF is clear
Cloudy or purulent CSF
Opening Pressure
Normal opening pressure is <170 mm
Elevated opening pressure(>300mm)
WBCs (mononuclear and PMN types)
Normally <5 mononuclear cells
Mononuclear cells are >1000/ul
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Term
In bacterial meningitis:
what will labs results be for the following:
PMNs
CSF Glucose
CSF protein |
|
Definition
PMNs
Normally 0 percent
>80% in meningitis
CSF Glucose
Normal > 40mg/dl)
Glucose- < 40mg/dl in meningitis
CSF Protein
Normal < 50 mg/dl)
> 200 mg/dl in meningitis
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Term
What are immediate complications of bacterial meningitis? |
|
Definition
Septic shock
DIC
Coma
Seizures
Cerebral Edema
Septic Arthritis
|
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|
Term
What are delayed complications for bacterial meningitis? |
|
Definition
Deafness
Cranial Nerve Dysfunction
Recurrent Seizures
Paralysis
Subdural effusions
Hydrocephalus
Gangrene
|
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|
Term
What are medications that can be given for prophylaxis tx of bacterial meningitis? |
|
Definition
Rifampin 600mg BID for 4 doses
Cipro 500mg for one dose
Rocephin 250mg for one dose
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|
Term
What causes aseptic meningitis?
How do you treat? |
|
Definition
non bacterial organisms
self-limited disease |
|
|
Term
What are causes of aseptic meningitis? |
|
Definition
Enteroviruses
Herpes viruses
Polio viruses
Mumps virus
Arboviruses
|
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|
Term
Pt presents with the following:
what could it be?
–Sick but clearly not bacterial meningitis
–Fever
–Stiff neck
–Photophobia
–Lymphadenopathy
–No petechial rash
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|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is viral encephalitis?
define it. |
|
Definition
viral infection of brain parenchyma producing a inflammatory response
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Term
When should you consider if patients have viral encephalitis? |
|
Definition
Consider in patients that look like viral meningitis but have
New psychiatric symptoms
Cognitive deficits
Aphasia
Amnestic syndrome
Confusional states
|
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|
Term
How do you diagnose acute bronchitis? |
|
Definition
cough lasting more than 3 weeks
fever, productive cough, constitutional sxs |
|
|
Term
What is the cause of most acute bronchitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the cause of most acute bronchitis?
Name some. (6) |
|
Definition
virus
influenza, rhinovirus, adenovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza, and respiratory syncytial virus
|
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|
Term
Acute bronchitis is often confused with ______.
How can you differentiate? |
|
Definition
pneumonia
get a chest xray |
|
|
Term
What could be on your differential for acute bronchitis? |
|
Definition
asthma
CHF
reflux esophagitis
bronchogenic tumors |
|
|
Term
What is tx for acute bronchitis? |
|
Definition
mainly supportive
some say bronchodilators, but not proven |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
spectrum of disease that ranges from inflammation of the mastoid periosteum to bony destruction of the mastoid air system (coalescent mastoiditis) or abscess development.
|
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|
Term
What bugs cause mastoiditis? |
|
Definition
Strep pneumo
Strep pyogenes
(most common above) |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with the following:
postauricular pain, fever, and an outwardly displaced pinna
what could it be?
What test can you do to find out extent of the disease?
|
|
Definition
mastoiditis
Ct scan can show extent of disease |
|
|
Term
What can be a serious complication of mastoiditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is initial therapy for mastoiditis? |
|
Definition
ceftriaxone plus nafcillin or clindamycin until culture results are returned
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
infection of the nasolacrimal sac and results in erythema and edema over the nasolacrimal sac
|
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|
Term
What is the difference btw acute and chronic dacrocystitis? |
|
Definition
Acute dacryocystitis presents with inflammation, swelling, tenderness, and pain over the lacrimal sac (located inferior to the medial canthal tendon). Fever may be present. The infection may point externally. A purulent discharge and tearing can be expected, because the cause of infection is almost always nasolacrimal obstruction.
Chronic dacryocystitis are mucopurulent debris on the lids and lashes, tearing, injection of the palpebral conjunctiva, and reflux of pus at the puncta when pressure is applied over the sac. Chronic dacryocystitis and recurrent episodes of low-grade dacryocystitis are caused by nasolacrimal obstruction.
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|
Term
How do you treat dacrocystitis?
mild and severe cases and chronic? |
|
Definition
mild: oral abx
severe: IV abx
chronic: warm compresses are helpful, topic abx are adjuncant |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
acute encephalopathy of children and adolescents, usually between 2 and 16 years of age
|
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|
Term
What causes Reye syndrome? |
|
Definition
cause of Reye's syndrome is unknown, but it is a recognized rare complication of influenza B, influenza A, and herpesvirus varicella-zoster infections
|
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|
Term
What are the atypical neuroleptics? What are their major side effects? |
|
Definition
Olanzapine (Zyprexa) weight gain Risperidone (Risperdal) galactorrhea Clozapine (Clozaril) agranulocytosis Quetiapine (Seroquel) sedation Aripiprazole (Abilify) partial agonist/antagonist Ziprasidone (Geodon) arrhythmias |
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|
Term
What atypical neuroleptic causes weight gain?
Which causes galactorrhea? |
|
Definition
Olanzapine (Zyprexa) weight gain Risperidone (Risperdal) galactorrhea |
|
|
Term
Which atypical neuroleptic causes agranulocytosis? |
|
Definition
Clozapine (Clozaril) agranulocytosis |
|
|
Term
What atypical neuroleptic causes arrythmias? which causes sedation? |
|
Definition
Quetiapine (Seroquel) sedation
Ziprasidone (Geodon) arrhythmias |
|
|
Term
Which atypical neuroleptic is a partial agonist/anagonist? |
|
Definition
Aripiprazole (Abilify) partial agonist/antagonist |
|
|
Term
"Typical" neuroleptics work on what symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the typical neuroleptics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of neuroleptics work better on negative symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the good, bad and the ugly of neuroleptics? |
|
Definition
Good- ↓ positive symptoms *does not eliminate them Bad- neuroendocrine effects- 1) galactorrhea, amenorrhea, infertility, gynecomastia 2) weight gain and insulin resistance→diabetes mellitus 3) hyperlipidemia *primarily “atypicals” “Metabolic Syndrome” Ugly- movement disorders |
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Term
What is tx for EPS sxs of typical neuroleptics? |
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Definition
Treatment- decrease or d/c drug; benztropine (Cogentin); b blockers, diphenhydramine, and benzos are also used |
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Term
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome- most commonly occurs in what type of presentation? ie population/ what drug? |
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Definition
Most common presentation is in young males who have had a recent IM dose of Haldol. |
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Term
A pt who is taking Clozaril requires what? |
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Definition
agranulocytosis: requires weekly CBC’s x 6 months, then biweekly thereafter |
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Term
What are the clusters for axis II disorders? |
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Definition
- Clusters for Axis II Diagnosis: o A (paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypical) o B (Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic) o C ( Avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive) |
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Term
What is contraindicated in pt with bipolar I or II? |
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Definition
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Term
5 types of suicidal ideation |
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Definition
1) Wish to be dead 2) Non- specific active suicidal thoughts 3) Active Suicial Ideation with any methods (not a plan) without intent to act 4) Active Suicidal ideation with some intent to act, without a specific plan 5) Active suicidal ideation with a plan and intent |
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Term
What are negative sxs related to EPS? |
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Definition
lack of social interaction, absence of flat affect, inability to be socially engaged with someone |
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Term
What are positive sxs related to EPS? |
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Definition
hallucinations and dellusions |
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Term
If pt taking Zyprexa, what do you need to monitor? |
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Definition
When taking Zyprexa need to check fasting blood sugar, CBC, lipid profile |
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Term
What is a side effect of Trazadone? |
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Definition
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