Term
Explain Respiratory Failure. |
|
Definition
The respiratory system cannot fulfill the function of gas exchange. |
|
|
Term
What are the PO2 limits for acute respiratory failure? |
|
Definition
PO2 < 50 mm HG with/without PCO2 > 50 mm Hg.
Note: these are partial arterial blood gases that can only be measured by the amount of pressure the gas is contributing to the vascular system. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is happening when Respiratory Acidosis (Hypoventilation) is occuring? |
|
Definition
The respiratory system is not blowing off enough CO2 so the CO2 levels are rising. This will ALWAYS cause respiratory acidosis. This CO2 mixes with H2O creating carbonic acid that turns into hydrogen ions (the hydrogen ions are what makes something acidic). |
|
|
Term
Why does potassium go up when someone is acidotic? |
|
Definition
If we get acidic then we try to compensate for the acidity by sucking hydrogen ions into the RBCs to get them out of circulation, therefore the more potassium I am kicking out of the RBCs (hypervolemic). |
|
|
Term
What is happening when Respiratory Alkalosis (Hyperventilation) is occuring? |
|
Definition
You are blowing off too much CO2 which leads to less carbonic acid, less hydrogen ions, so the patient is more alkaline (hypovolemic).
|
|
|
Term
Which body system has the most dramatic and fastest effect on change in blood pH? |
|
Definition
The respiratory system, followed by the renal system. |
|
|
Term
True or False? Over 90% of primary lung tumors are malignant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
About 95% of malignant lung neoplasms are what? |
|
Definition
Bronchiogenic Carcinomas (they originate in the bronchial tree and are epithelial tissue). |
|
|
Term
Bronchial cancer is most common in what three parts of the lungs? |
|
Definition
Right side lung, upper lobes, and anterior segments of the lungs. |
|
|
Term
Lung cancers are correlated with what three things? |
|
Definition
Smoking, air pollution, and genetics. |
|
|
Term
Lung cancers are categorized by where we find them and by what type of epithelial cells we see. What are the four most common Bronchiogenic Lung cancers from most common to least common?
|
|
Definition
Squamous Cell, Adenocarcinomas, Large Cell Carcinomas & Small Cell Carcinomas (oat cell). |
|
|
Term
Explain Squamous Cell Carcinomas in the lungs. |
|
Definition
This generally occurs in the midpart of the bronchial tree and is slow growing. The patient will oftentimes complain of a persistent cough or may have had pneumonia. If diagnosed early, this has a very high cure rate. |
|
|
Term
Explain why Adenocarcinomas can be such a problem. |
|
Definition
Cancer in a gland is such a problem because they generally metastasize early because it will spread with the excretions of the gland. It is not unusual to pick up the metastasizing site before the primary site. |
|
|
Term
Explain Large Cell Carcinomas. |
|
Definition
These are pretty immature cells that named this because the malignant cells look large. Do not want this because it will metastasize early and does not have a good prognosis. |
|
|
Term
Explain Small Cell Carcinoma. |
|
Definition
These are really immature cells that have a quick doubling time and the five year survival rate is <5%.
Note: to figure out the doubling time you take ten cells and monitor how long it takes them to get to 20 cells. |
|
|
Term
Explain why we say TB is such a hardy bacteria? |
|
Definition
It could be on a tabletop and still live for up to 36-48 hours. |
|
|
Term
True or False? You can get TB of any organ in the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of TB is most common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the lungs, what sort of infection is TB sometimes mistaken for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False? TB is a quick growing bacteria. |
|
Definition
False. TB is a slow growing bacteria. Someone could have it for ten years and never show symptoms. |
|
|
Term
What does it mean when you have a localized reaction to a TB skin test? What will normally be done at this point? |
|
Definition
This means that you either have TB or have had it in the past and now have the antibody. If this is a first positive skin test, there will be a chest x-ray done and it would be assumed you had TB and treatment with INH would begin and last six months to a year. You would be inactivated almost immediately but would still stay on treatment. |
|
|
Term
True or False? TB does not respond to antibiotics. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the normal ranges for RBC, HgB & HCT for males and females? |
|
Definition
|
Males
|
Females
|
RBC
|
4.7-6.1 mm3
|
4.2 – 5.2 mm3
|
HgB
|
13.4 – 17.6 gm/100mL
|
12.0 – 15.4 gm/100mL
|
HCT
|
42-53%
|
38-46%
|
|
Million/cubic
|
|
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Red Blood Corpuscle. They have no nucleus so they are not really a cell. |
|
|
Term
Why do men have more RBCs than women? |
|
Definition
This is because they have more muscle mass, higher testosterone, and do not have menstruation. |
|
|
Term
Do men or women have more hemoglobin? Explain. |
|
Definition
Men have more hemoglobin simply because they have more RBCs, NOT because their RBCs have more hemoglobin than women's do. |
|
|
Term
Explain what Hematocrit is. |
|
Definition
Hematocrit is a percentage volume of RBCs. It should always be roughly three times the patient's hemoglobin.
Note: when drawing blood and putting the sample in a tube, the hematocrit is the portion of the tube that is RBCs. |
|
|
Term
When are MCV (size measurement) and MCHC (amount of HgB) measurements used? |
|
Definition
The measurements are usually not used unless trying to figure out if a patient is anemic.
Mean Corpuscular Volume and Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentrations |
|
|
Term
What is the range for a normal WBC count? |
|
Definition
4,000-10,000 mm3 (million per cubic meter) |
|
|
Term
What type of WBC primarily phagocytizes bacteria? |
|
Definition
PMNs (polymorphanuclear neutrophils) or "segs" make up to 38-70% of WBCs and are the primary cell for phagocytizing bacteria, which is why we have so many.
Note: Segs are made up of grainy segments which is what phagocytizes the bacteria using bleach and hydrogen peroxide. |
|
|
Term
Explain the structure and function of Eosinophils. |
|
Definition
Eosinophils have a segmented nucleus and a granulated cytoplasm. These granules have the ability to kill parasites and produce histamines because they have IgE receptors. This is why they are primarily involved in parasitic infections and allergic reactions. |
|
|
Term
Explain the structure and function of Basophils. |
|
Definition
Basophils have a segmented nucleus with granules, but sometimes the granules are so big you can hardly see the nucleus. Don't know much about them but that the granules can produce histamine and that it is normal to not have any of these cells. |
|
|
Term
Explain the structure and function of a Stab (Band). |
|
Definition
The nucleus is bandlike with a grainy cytoplasm. These are young/adolescent segs that will eventually become a full grown seg. They think they can phagocytize as well as a full grown seg, but cannot yet.
Note: If seg numbers go up, so do stab numbers. In a few days they will become segs. |
|
|
Term
What are the three WBCs that are non-granulocytic and cannot phagocytize? |
|
Definition
Lymphocytes, Monocytes (can sort of phagocytize) & Macrophages. |
|
|
Term
Explain the structure and function of Monocytes. |
|
Definition
Monocytes are the largest WBC you have. They have an indented nucleus with only a few granules in the cytoplasm so they can sort of phagocytize.
Note: They have the ability to change themselves into Macrophages which eat up up bacteria and dead cells. This is why their number goes up in the repair process. |
|
|
Term
Explain the structure and function of Lymphocytes. |
|
Definition
Lymphocytes are the second most common cell making up half of your cells. They have a big nucleus with a smooth cytoplasm and are extremely important because they kill viruses.
Note: If a patient has a high lymphocyte count, you would assume they have a virus. |
|
|
Term
What are Platelets a part of? |
|
Definition
Platelets are little pieces of the cytoplasm of a bigger cell called a Megakaryocyte that have broken off and are in the peripheral blood where they survive for four or five days in circulation and then are broken down while more are made. Since this cytoplasm is sticky, platelets are sticky.
Note: One Megakaryocyte can give us 50,000-70,000 platelets. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
During RBC development, occurring in the bone marrow, red cells have a nucleus. Once they go through the stages of development, they eject the nucleus and we end up with a full fledged red cell.
A Reticulocyte is an immature RBC that has yet to eject its' nucleus remnants. This reticulocyte does not have the ability to carry oxygen until it gets rid of the nucleus remnants. A reticulocyte is to a RBC what a band is to a seg.
|
|
|
Term
What is a high Reticulocyte count associated with? |
|
Definition
Acute Anemias. The body is rapidly trying to produce red cells. |
|
|
Term
What question should you always ask yourself when looking at blood work? |
|
Definition
What does this cell do? So, why would you need more of it? |
|
|
Term
True or False? You should never have nucleated RBCs in your peripheral blood. |
|
Definition
True. Nucleated RBCs cannot carry CO2 or Oxygen. This means something is pathologically going on. |
|
|
Term
What is the ONLY thing RBCs are designed to do? |
|
Definition
Carry oxygen and CO2 (can carry both at the same time because they are carried on different spots - oxygen on heme and carbon dioxide on globin). |
|
|
Term
Hemoglobin is concentrated on what part of a RBC? |
|
Definition
Around the edge, so oxygen only has to make it to the edge of the cell. |
|
|
Term
What is the life span of a RBC in the peripheral blood once it is no longer a reticulocyte? |
|
Definition
80-120 days (you lose 1% of your RBCs everyday) |
|
|
Term
Why are renal patients always so profoundly anemic? |
|
Definition
When the kidneys are not properly perfused, they are not able to make the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to create RBCs. |
|
|
Term
What three things will be checked if a professional runner is suspected of blood doping? |
|
Definition
RBC count, Hemoglobin & Hematocrit. |
|
|
Term
What are two causes for anemia? |
|
Definition
Blood loss/volume problem (3 pints or more) or a decreased amount of hemoglobin in RBCs. |
|
|
Term
What are the two categories for classifying RBCs? |
|
Definition
Morphological: size of cell/amount of hemoglobin
Etiology: Increased RBC loss/decreased RBC production |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Normal amounts of color which relates to Hemoglobin.
Note: Color is more intense on the outer edges of RBCs because hemoglobin is on the outside but not in the center. |
|
|
Term
Define Normocytic/Normochromic Anemia. |
|
Definition
Not enough RBCs either due to not producing enough RBCs or losing them. |
|
|
Term
Define Macrocytic/Normochromic. What is this a classic sign of? |
|
Definition
Cells are bigger than normal and have normal amounts of hemoglobin. Classic signs of B12 and Folic Acid deficiencies. |
|
|
Term
Define Microcytic/Hypochromic. What causes this? |
|
Definition
Small RBCs and not enough Hemoglobin (less color). This is caused by iron deficiencies and chronic blood loss. |
|
|
Term
What is the stem cell of all blood cells (RBCs, WBCs, & platelets)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is a hemocytoblast related to aplastic anemia? What is this called? |
|
Definition
In aplastic anemia, the hemocytoblast shuts down so there are no RBCs or WBCs and platelets. This is a production problem.
This is called "pancytopenia" which means a lack of all cells. |
|
|
Term
What happens to the bone marrow during aplastic anemia? |
|
Definition
The bone marrow becomes hypoplasiac due to the lack of all blood cells and the body starts putting fatty tissue in the bone. This can be a side effect of some medications. |
|
|
Term
What is an example of people trying to induce aplastic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Explain Aplastic Anemia morphologically. |
|
Definition
Morphologically, aplastic anemia is normocytic/normochromic
Production problem |
|
|
Term
Lady comes into clinic after having worked all day and her main complaint is she is tired all the time. Her RBC count is in the basement, hemoglobin is 6 so her hematocrit is roughly 18. Her fingernails break easily, has a pale smooth tongue, hair looks frizzy, and she will complain of a lot of split ends. She would be admitted to find out what is wrong. What would be a good guess as to what could be wrong? |
|
Definition
Her levels are extremely low and this could be due to chronic blood loss or sickness. She is obviously iron deficiency anemic. |
|
|
Term
Why is it important not to take too much iron supplement and only take if directed by physician? |
|
Definition
Too much free iron provides food for bacteria to thrive on, so you will acquire more infections. It is also toxic to the liver and can shut it down. |
|
|
Term
Explain Iron Deficiency Anemia morphologically. |
|
Definition
It is microcytic/hypochromic (small cells/less color) |
|
|
Term
What are the two classic ways to get Megaloblastic Anemia? Why? |
|
Definition
A decrease in B12 or Folic Acid Deficiency. Both are used in the construction of the cell wall of RBCs, so when you are deficient in either one, the walls are flimsy and big and can be broken down easily.
Note: you would first assume this is from pernicious anemia (B12 deficiency) since you need intrinsic factor to absorb B12 or maybe a tapeworm. Nothing special is needed to absorb folic acid. |
|
|
Term
Explain Megaloblastic Anemia morphologically. |
|
Definition
It is Macrocytic/Notmochromic. |
|
|
Term
What is the structure of Hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
Hemoglobin is a protein made of two alpha chains and two beta chains of amino acids in specific arrangements. |
|
|
Term
What is occuring to this structure when a patient has Sickle Cell Anemia? |
|
Definition
All that sickle cell is is that two amino acids flipped spaces in the hemoglobin structure. An amino acid in the second position (Valine) changes places with an amino acid in the sixth postion from another chain (glutamic acid). This changes the protein and we now have Hgb S (sickle cell) instead of Hgb A (adult anemia). |
|
|
Term
What happens when a RBC has HgB S and is exposed to lower oxygen levels? |
|
Definition
This causes the hemoglobin in the cell to crystalize which causes the cell to sickle (point to two ends). |
|
|
Term
Sickle Cell Anemia is under what category? |
|
Definition
Hemoglobinopathies (pathology of Hemoglobin) |
|
|
Term
How many amino acids make up hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What happens when Sickle Cell Anemia patients get clots in their joints? Why can this be so dangerous? |
|
Definition
When cells sickle in these areas, they plug the area up which slows down blood flow and decreases oxygen to the area. This will cause a backup of blood that will eventually cause a clot. This can be extremely dangerous if the clot moves to the brain or lungs. |
|
|
Term
What is Hemoglobin C disease? |
|
Definition
This is when RBCs are broken down sooner than they should be. Two pair switch places. It is genetic. |
|
|
Term
What is Hemoglobin SC disease? |
|
Definition
This is when you have the gene for Hemoglobin S (sickle cell) and Hemoglobin C and two pairs switch places. This causes the sickle cell to be stiff. |
|
|
Term
Why do some believe sickle cell began as a defense against malaria? |
|
Definition
Malaria parasite cannot reproduce in a sickle cell. This may be why sickle cell anemia is a norm for people in Africa. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is the antithesis of anemia. It is when there are too many blood cells. |
|
|
Term
What are three ways to get Polycythemia? |
|
Definition
Relative, Absolute, & Absolute with high RBC count |
|
|
Term
What is going on in a patient if the RBC count is 6.5, hemoglobin is 15 and hematocrit is 68%? |
|
Definition
Red count and hemoglobin are normal, but the hematocrit is too high. This is because the patient is dehydrated which is making the blood volume go down since serum is made mostly of water.
Note: you would not know this by only looking at the hematocrit. |
|
|
Term
What is going on if your patient's RBC count is 9.7, hemoglobin 20, and hematocrit is 62%? |
|
Definition
This is a true increase of RBCs called Absolute Polycythemia. This is not a good thing because the viscocity of the blood becomes very thick (like trying to pump jello). This patient will be hypertensive and the left ventricle will hypertrophy. |
|
|
Term
Explain Absolute Polycythemia in regards to the problem it poses with iron. |
|
Definition
When RBCs are extremely high, more red cells are dying and letting of iron. In order for new RBCs to use this iron, we much attach it to a protein (transferin) that is carried to bone marrow. If you do not have transferin (because it can only compensate for 1% of RBCs lost), then you are left with mass amounts of free floating iron in the blood that is toxic to the liver. |
|
|
Term
Explain an example of Reactive Polycythemia. |
|
Definition
Heavy smokers generally get this as a defensive reaction. Their bodies simply make an excess of RBCs to compensate for the fact that the Red cells they have are carrying carbon monoxide. |
|
|
Term
What are the three problems related to Polycythemia? |
|
Definition
Bleeding & Liver problems and Iron toxicity. |
|
|
Term
True or False? WBCs have a nucleus and RBCs do not. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Explain what Leukocytosis is. |
|
Definition
Leukocytosis is an overall increase in WBCs above our normal limit (>10,000 mm3) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An increase in Granulocytes (segs/bands/basophils/eosinophils). Usually refers to an increase in segs, though. |
|
|
Term
Why do you sometimes see toxic granulation noted during Granulocytosis? |
|
Definition
This toxic granulation generally refers to something that is in the segs -- it means that the granulation in the cytoplasm of these cells is bigger, more intense, and larger in numbers than normal. This is usually in response to some sort of nasty bacteria since these granules are what phagocytize bacteria. This does not happen acutely (takes a few days). |
|
|
Term
What does Neutrophilia refer to? |
|
Definition
Specifically, an increase in segs. |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between left and right shifts? |
|
Definition
Left shift is an increase in segs and bands and a right shift is an increase in monocytes and lymphocytes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is when there is an increase in monocytes. This usually occurs during the recuperating phase of infection. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is an increase in lymphocytes. This is expected to be seen when the immune system is battling a virus/viral infection. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a decrease in WBCs under the minimum normal limit (<4,000 mm3) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a decrease or absence of all WBCs (usually segs since they are more prevalent). |
|
|
Term
What will be ordered to avoid percentages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are Leukemias categorized? |
|
Definition
By acute versus chronic and the type of WBC involved. |
|
|
Term
Explain how/why Acute Myelocytic Leukemia occurs. |
|
Definition
It begins with the promyelocyte (only one cell from stem cell) that does not differentiate into a myelocyte like it is meant to. This means that these immature promyelocytes will begin rapidly reproducing in the bone marrow which is bad.
Note: 80% of cases seen in ages 20-35. |
|
|
Term
What signs/symptoms would you see in someone with Acute Myelocytic Leukemia? |
|
Definition
Been feeling very tired for 3-4 weeks with no energy, feel flu-like, no appetite, and have petichiae due to decrease in platelets. They will have an extremely high WBC count, but these WBCs cannot phagocytize because they are so immature. |
|
|
Term
What are three classic signs of Leukemia? |
|
Definition
Infections due to immature WBCs not being able to phagocytize bacteria, Anemia due to lack of production of RBCs, and bleeding due to lack of platelet production. |
|
|
Term
What is the ultimate goal of Chemotherapy? |
|
Definition
Chemotherapy attacks rapidly producing cells in order shut them down. The goal is to get them to eventually turn back on and reproduce normally.
Note: Sometimes they do not turn back on and can cause Aplastic Anemia or will turn back on as if nothing happened. |
|
|
Term
What age range is Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia seen more often in? |
|
Definition
80% of cases are seen in children, especially between the ages of 3-4. |
|
|
Term
What symptoms might you see in a child suspected of having Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia? |
|
Definition
The child has been lethargic and sleepy for a while, no appetite, flu-like symptoms, petechiae on legs and trunk, enlarged spleen and liver, extremely high WBC count (not as high as myelocytic, though).
Note: over 95% of these patients can be put into remission for the rest of their lives and 5% can be treated with bone marrow transplants. |
|
|
Term
Explain what is occuring during Chronic Granulocytic Leukemia. |
|
Definition
WBCs gradually increasing over months
Note: 80% have abnormal gene on chromosome 22 and average survival time is about 3 years with or without treatment (usually die from pre-existing vulnerabilities). |
|
|
Term
What age range does Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia generally effect? |
|
Definition
Usually seen in older adults around 60-62 and i more common in males (2:1) |
|
|
Term
What signs/symptoms would you expect to see in a patient with Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia? |
|
Definition
WBC count gradually increasing over time, abdominal/bowel complaints due to enlarged spleen or liver. Average survival rate is 4-5 years and they generally die from pre-existing vulnerabilities as well.
Note: 50% of people will have an abnormal gene on chromosome 12. |
|
|
Term
True or False? We don't know what causes Lymphomas. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the virus correlated with Lymphomas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are Lymphomas differentiated? |
|
Definition
By the predominant cell that we find in the lymphnodes, age, and symptoms (Hodgkins & Non-Hodgkins) |
|
|
Term
What is the ONLY way to diagnose lymphomas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the median age for Hodgkins Lymphoma? |
|
Definition
Ages 18-35 and is more common in males than females. |
|
|
Term
What presentations do 75% of patients with Hodkins Lymphoma present? |
|
Definition
A lump that developed weeks ago under the arm, in the groin area, or on neck that won't go away. The lump feels hard and rubbery.
Note: The other 25% of them have the same presentation but with night sweats since the lump showed up. |
|
|
Term
Explain each of the four stages of Hogkins Lymphoma. |
|
Definition
Stage One: one single node involved (all other clear)
Stage Two: two or more adjacent and two or more non-adjacent nodes on one side of the diaphragm.
Stage Three: Nodes above and below the diaphragm
Stage Four: Metastasis to other organs |
|
|
Term
Explain what it means for surgeons to biopsy lymph nodes according to Sutten's Law. |
|
Definition
This means that they will biopsy the largest lymph node regardless of where it is and how uncomfortable it makes the patient because that is where the cancer is. |
|
|
Term
What is the only difference between Hodkins and Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma? |
|
Definition
Age (median in Non-Hodkins is 50) and the type of cell in the lymph node.
Note: With Non-Hodkins they have greater liklihood of nightsweats and survival is 8-10 years. |
|
|
Term
Explain what occurs in patients with Multiple Myelomas. |
|
Definition
This is a proliferating disorder (similar to Leukemia) that causes them to produce malignant plasma cells and stop producing red cells, white cells, and platelets (this is pancytopenia).
Since plasma cells are precursors to B-lymphocytes, which are involved in antibody production, these people make abnormal antibodies as well. |
|
|
Term
Why do people with Multiple Myelomas have Osteoporosis? |
|
Definition
They do not produce any bone
Note: Uncommon to see under age 40 and is treated with Chemo. |
|
|
Term
What is Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia? |
|
Definition
This is when there is an overproduction of IgM antibodies that cause increased volume and viscocity of the blood (causing hypertension and LV hypertrophy).
Note: Since IgM is extremely temperature sensative, these people will definitely have Reynaud's Disease. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
This is a rise in platelets (thrombocytes) over the upper limit of 400,000. So many platelets causes a decrease in the efficiency of the platelets. |
|
|
Term
What is Thrombocytopenia? |
|
Definition
This is when platelets are below the lower limit of 100,000.
Bleeding problems below 50,000.
Petechiae below 30,000.
Possibility of cranial bleeding below 20,000.
|
|
|
Term
How long do the intrinsic and extrinsic sides of the first stage of the Coagulation Process take? |
|
Definition
5-10 minutes for the intrinsic side which activates the extrinsic side that takes 5-12 seconds. |
|
|
Term
How many stages are there in the Coagulation Process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What coagulation factors are involved in stage one (extrinsic & intrinsic) of coagulation? |
|
Definition
Intrinsic: Coagulation factors are in plasma
(8, 9, 11, 12)
Extrinsic: Coagulation factors are in tissue
(7) |
|
|
Term
True or False? After stage one, everything is happening on a common pathway and there is no longer an intrinsic and extrinsic side. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of stage one of coagulation? |
|
Definition
The formation of Prothrombinase in order to initiate stage two. |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of stage two of coagulation? |
|
Definition
Stage two is activated by the prothrombinase created in stage one. In stage two, prothrombin is converted to thrombin which then initiates stage three to begin. |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of stage three of coagulation? |
|
Definition
The thrombin in stage two initiates stage three. In stage three, fibrinogen is converted to fibrin. |
|
|
Term
True or False? All clotting factors exist in excess of what is actually needed to form a clot. |
|
Definition
True. Only the specific amount of factor needed to initiate the next reaction is activated. This makes it possible to have multiple clots made in short periods of time if needed. |
|
|
Term
True or False? In normal individuals, the same mechanism is involved in clot formation and clot lysis. |
|
Definition
True. There is a control mechanism to activate each of these two processes. |
|
|
Term
Most clotting deficiencies are single, but what are two exceptions to this rule? |
|
Definition
Liver disease and vitamin K deficiencies can result in multiple clotting factor deficiencies due to the fact that the liver produces a lot of these factors and many of the factors rely on vitamin K. |
|
|
Term
Give a brief description of what will occur when a blood vessel is injured/cut? |
|
Definition
Following the injury, local vessels constrict and the exposed collagen attracts platelets that will attach to this collagen and release serotonin (vasoconstrictor). This platelet mass "plugs" the vessel and the serotonin minimizes blood loss. Platelets form a lipoprotein surface on which coagulation proteins are activated. Thrombin (created in stage 2) encourages more platelet aggregation and Fibrinogen (converted to fribrin in stage 3) strengthens the platelet plug now attached to the vessel wall. The fibrolytic mechanism will effect the removal of the clot when it has served its purpose. |
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Term
True or False? You can either inherit or acquire a Plasma Factor Deficiency. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the difference between Hemophilia A and Hemophilia B? |
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Definition
Hemophilia A is a deficiency or total lack of factor 8 and Hemophilia B is a deficiency or total lack of factor 9 (Christmas disease). |
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Term
How would prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time be effected in hemophilia A & B? |
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Definition
PT would be normal, but PTT would increase (abnormal). |
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Term
True or False? The bleeding time in someone with Hemophilia is normal. |
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Definition
True. Hemophilia is NOT a bleeding problem, it is a coagulation problem. A platelet deficiency is what would cause excess bleeding. |
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Term
What is Von Willerband's disease? |
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Definition
This is when someone has Hemophilia A or B and a platelet deficiency. In this case, they have increased bleeding and coagulation problems. |
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Term
What does Fibrinolysis do? |
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Definition
It breaks down clot formations. |
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Term
Explain the process of Fibrinolysis. |
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Definition
When the coagulation process begins, plasminogen is activated and basically floats around in the blood until the it is time to break down the clot. At this point, plasminogen is turned into plasmin, which is a fibrolytic enzyme that acts on fibrin. |
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Term
Why would it be dangerous to use a TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) while someone is having a stroke without doing a CT scan first? |
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Definition
This TPA will convert plasminogen into plasmin which will break a clot down, but if the patient's stroke is not due to a clot formation and is from a bleed, the TPA will break down the clot the body is trying to form (this would not be good). |
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Term
What are the only two things that could be occuring with Acquired Coagulation Factor Deficiencies? |
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Definition
Either the patient is not producing enough of the coagulation factor or have an increased consumption of it. |
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Term
What two things does decreased production of coagulation factors classically correlate with? |
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Definition
The liver (factors 2, 5, 7, 9, 10) causes lack of these factors or Vitamin K (2, 7, 9, 10) does not allow factors to activate. |
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Term
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Definition
It decreases the available level of Vitamin K. |
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Term
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Definition
It decreases the availability of Thrombin, preventing the second stage of coagulation (our liver makes some Heparin). |
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Term
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Definition
It makes the platelets less sticky so they cannot clump |
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Term
Explain Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). |
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Definition
This can occur in a pregnancy if the placenta prematurely detaches from uterus and allows massive amount of thromboplastin into blood stream or during mass injury or acute infection. The body is basically making and breaking down clots from head to toe and the person runs out of clotting factors. You must assess and substitute missing factors in case they bleed out. |
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Term
What is Dysphagia? What are some examples of conditions that could cause this? |
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Definition
An impairment of difficulty in swallowing past the pharynx. This could be caused by strokes, Muscular Dystrophy, MS (it is not always caused by GI stuff). |
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Term
What is the most common reason for inflammation of the esophagus? |
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Definition
Reflux Esophagitis, which is correlated with having a hiatus hernia, is also known as heartburn. |
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Term
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Definition
The cardiac sphincter weakens and allows part of the stomach to protrude into the esophagus. This is a herniation of the stomach into the esophagus. It can happen with age. |
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Term
True or False? Benign tumors of the esophagus are rare. |
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Definition
True. You will normally see malignant tumors in the esophagus. |
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Term
True or False? There are no early warning signs to most GI tract cancers. |
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Definition
True. This includes cancer of the esophagus, colon, and stomach. |
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Term
What age range do you usually see cancers of the esophagus in? |
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Definition
Older people ages 50-70 and it is seen more in males than females. |
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Term
What type of cells are normally involved in esophagus cancer? |
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Definition
Squamous cell carcinomas (usually in the upper 2/3 of the esophagus). |
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Term
What is cancer of the esophagus correlated with? |
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Definition
Correlated to some degree with cigarette smoking and genetics.
Note: 70% die withing a year and <10% within 5 years. |
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Term
What does Gastritis mean? What are the two most common types? |
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Definition
Inflammation of the gastric mucosa that can be acute, chronic, superficial, diffused, or localized. Two most common are acute superficial and chronic atropic gastritis |
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Term
What is the difference between acute superficial and chronic atrophic gastritis? |
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Definition
Acute Superficial Gastritis is an insult/inflammation to the gastric lining from lifestyle (like eating mexican food) and Chronic Atrophic Gastritis is a progressive atrophy of the glandular epithelium of the stomach and a decrease in chief cells which inhibits the production of glandular stuff (pepsin, intrinsic factor, hydrochloric acid).
Note: Chronic Atrophic Gastritis typically starts in mid-life and predisposes them to stomach cancer and stomach ulcers. |
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Term
What is the difference between a peptic ulcer and an erosion? |
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Definition
An ulcer is a break in the mucosal lining that goes all the way through the epithelial lining of the stomach. If the break occurs in the mucosal lining but does not go through the epithelial lining, this is an erosion. |
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Term
Where do the two most common peptic ulcers occur? |
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Definition
In the stomach and the duodenum.
Note: Stomach ulcers occur more commonly in the older population and duodenal ulcers occur more commonly in the younger population. |
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Term
True or False? There is a lower incidence of duodenal ulcers in females than males. |
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Definition
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Term
On what part of the Duodenum do 90% of duodenal ulcers occur? |
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Definition
On the anterior or posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. |
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Term
On what part of the stomach do 90% of stomach ulcers occur? |
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Definition
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Term
People with what blood type are 30% more likely to have a gastric or duodenal ulcer? |
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Definition
People with type O blood. |
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Term
How does the H. pylori bacteria get into the stomach if bacteria cannot live in a pH below two? |
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Definition
H. pylori grows in the epithelial lining and produces achlorhydrate which neutralizes hydrochloric acid, making it easier for it to get up to the mucosal lining.
Note: Ulcers are now treated with antibiotics. |
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Term
Explain the epigastric pain associated with ulcers. |
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Definition
Patients complain of this pain more often when their stomachs are empty (like in the morning) and say that the pain is better after they have eaten. |
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Term
Intractibility is a common problem with ulcers. What does this mean? |
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Definition
This means that no matter what we give them, medical treatment fails to control their symptoms even though 75% of the time we are dealing with antibiotics. |
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Term
Statistically, 25% of ulcers do what? |
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Definition
Hemorrhage. This is on a continuum from a little blood in the stool, to being anemic from the blood loss, etc. |
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Term
Statistcally, 5% of ulcers do what? |
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Definition
Perforate. This puts a hole through the duodenum or stomach that definitely requires emergency surgery. |
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Term
A suspected ulcer in the duodenum is almost always an ulcer, but a suspected ulcer in the stomach is actually what 7-10% of the time? |
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Definition
Cancer of the stomach. This is why it is so important to document. |
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Term
What type of cancer accounts for 3% of cancer deaths? |
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Definition
Cancer of the stomach (more common in males over 40). |
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Term
True or False? Stomach cancer has been declining for the past 50 years. |
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Definition
True. We are beginning to believe it has something to to with environment/diet. |
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Term
What type of cancers are the majority of stomach cancers? |
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Definition
Adeno carcinomas (glandular part of the stomach). |
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Term
What is the only fixed part of the small intestines? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the difference between malabsorption and maldigestion? Which is seen more often in pathologies of the small intestines? |
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Definition
Malabsorption is when food can be broken down but cannot be absorbed and Maldigestion is when food cannot be broken down. It is more common to see single nutrient or multiple nutrient malabsorption in the small intestines |
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Term
What will the GI tract typically do if if can't absorb something? |
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Definition
It will dilute it out with water and give you diarrhea (downfall is you will not absorb much of anything you do need). |
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Term
Why don't gastrectomies effect absoprtion very much? |
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Definition
In a gastrectomy, part of the stomach is removed. Since the stomach does not absorb much, absorption is not too effected. |
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Term
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Definition
The atrophy of villi in the small intestines which prevents them from being able to absorb gluten (vegetable albumin found in wheat, oats, barley, and most grains).
Note: we believe this has a genetic correlation and that it may be autoimmune since these people have an antibody to gluten. |
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Term
What common side effect do people with Celiac Disease have? |
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Definition
It causes diarrhea which causes loss of fluid and electrolytes like sodium and potassium. |
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Term
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Definition
Lactase is an enzyme that breaks Lactose down into glucose and galactose.
Note: Lactose is the principle carbohydrate found in milk and dairy products. |
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Term
True or False? Lactase Deficiency is not genetic. |
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Definition
False. It is genetic and is seen most often in African Americans (80-90% have it) |
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Term
How do you treat Lactase Deficiency? |
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Definition
To avoid the bloating, cramping, and abdominal distention after eating dairy products, take the enzyme before you eat. |
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Term
What is Regional Enteritis? |
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Definition
This is a chronic inflammatory disease of the GI tract that classically involves the terminal ileum (80% of the time). |
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Term
What occurs in someone with Chron's disease? |
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Definition
This patient has an inflammatory reaction that thickens the submucosal layer, which pushes it into the mucosal layer and causes a restriction of flow through the intestines.
Note: some will have skip lesions. |
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Term
True or False? Areas of inflammation in Chron's disease are correlated with where lymph nodes are located. |
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Definition
True. This leads us to believe this could be an autoimmune or allergic reaction. |
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Term
Why are they saying Chron's might be related to some sort of localized infection? |
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Definition
There was a mycobacterium cultured from a submucosal layer. |
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Term
What is the most common reason for abdominal surgery in young adults? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the location and function of the appendix? |
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Definition
It is located off of the cecum (externally at McBurney's point), is about the size of your little finger and has no known function. |
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Term
What happens when the appendix becomes inflamed? |
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Definition
It gets larger and thinner, which means it could rupture if it gets thin enough. This would cause fecal matter to flow out into your abdomen. |
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Term
What classic signs will someone with appendicitis show? |
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Definition
Rebound tenderness, low grade fever, elevated WBCs.
Note: if the appendix ruptures, peritonitis occurs. |
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Term
What is Peritonitis? How is it treated? |
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Definition
This is the inflammation of the peritoneal cavity from something bacterial. Always one step away from septicemia (moving to the blood supply) because the area is so vascularized. Treated with hardcore antibiotics. |
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Term
What commonly forms during peritonitis? |
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Definition
Absess formations form from fibrous exudates to isolate things off.
Note: fibrous exudates also occur in the pleural cavity and the pericardium. |
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Term
Where are most intestinal obstructions located? |
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Definition
In the small intestines, since there is more surface area.
Note: the obstruction can be chronic, acute, partial, complete, or a variation of them. |
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Term
Intestinal obstructions are etiologically categorized as mechanical and non-mechanical. What is the difference between the two? |
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Definition
Mechanical: something is physically there blocking the intestines. Non-Mechanical: there is not something physically there, but the blockage is a result of slowed peristalsis (usually see after surgery, especially when big time morphine is used). |
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Term
What is typically occuring when there is a mechanical obstruction in the large intestines and the small intestines? |
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Definition
In the large intestines, 80% of the time it is cancer of the colon. In the small intestines, 50% of the time it is adhesions. |
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Term
What would people with obstructions, particularly mechanical, complain of? |
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Definition
Cramping, maybe vomiting, distended abdomen, pain in the general area of the belly button, and would most likely have absolute constipation. |
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Term
What characterizes Diverticulae? |
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Definition
Herniations (protrusions) of the mucosal lining through the muscular lining of the intestines that form a sacculus that becomes inflamed.
Note: occurs with age and rare under age 35. |
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Term
Where do 90% of diverticulae occur? |
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Definition
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Term
Although we do not know the exact etiology, what is believed to be correlated with diverticulae? |
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Definition
Fiber/Roughage in the diet. High fiber diets have less diverticulae. |
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Term
What is Ulcerative Colitis? |
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Definition
It causes ulcerated lesions in the colon that bleed, form abscesses, and cause a lot of pain. People tend to be very short-fuzed and it is genetic. |
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Term
Ulcerative Colitis has three different presentations. What are they from least common to most common? |
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Definition
Acute Fulminating - sudden abrupt onset with severe bloody diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, electrolyte/hydration disturbance, anemia. Poor Prognosis.
Chronic Intermittent- much slower onset with same symptoms, but will come back and forth
Chronic Continuous - most common with continuous diarrhea, bleeding and electrolyte problems (is very painful and must be taken care of). |
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Term
What is the major complication of Ulcerative Colitis? |
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Definition
Megacolon (also called toxic dilation). This is when they have lost peristalsis in the transverse colon, so the food being pushed into it by the ascending colon just sits there. This makes the transverse colon stretch and get thinner and eventually rupture. There will then be stuff flowing into the abdomen and peritonitis can occur. Must get immediate colostomy surgery. Mortality is 30% if rupture occurs.
Avoid nuts and alcohol. |
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Term
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Definition
Polyps are growths that arise from the mucosal lining of the intestines that extend inward and do not go through the muscular lining. |
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Term
What are the three types of Polyps from most common to least common? |
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Definition
Polyploid adenomas - Benign, are harmless and do not seem to be related to anything, but maybe diet.
Villous adenomas - a little larger than polyploids and both occur in the sigmoid and rectum. 25% become malignant over time.
Familial polyposis - Rare, 100% chance od becoming malignant around 40 years old and begin around puberty, are caused by a dominant gene. |
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Term
What is the most common spot for GI cancers? |
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Definition
Colon Rectal Cancer (recto sigmoid/easily accessed), then the 2nd most common is in the cecum (not accessible), followed by the ascending colon. Least common spot is the transverse colon.
Note: Colon Cancer is the 3rd most common spot in the entire body. |
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Term
True or False? Colon Cancer is more common in females and Rectal Cancer is more common in males. |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
They are simply varicose veins (dilations and elongation of veins/venous congestion) in the anal canal that can be internal or external. |
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Term
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Definition
This is a tear in the lining of the anus that is commonly seen in young children that are really constipated. If not addressed, it can cause an anorectal abscess. |
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Term
What is an anorectal abscess? |
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Definition
This is a localized infection on the anal canal that can occur if an anal fissure is not addressed. Caused by gram negative rods or gram positive cocci. If this is not addressed, they run the risk of getting and anal fistula (nasty canal opening to the outside). |
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Term
Jaundice is the result of what? |
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Definition
It is the result of bile pigments (yellow/golden) that are the reults of bilirubin (which is the end product of the breakdown of RBCs that has no use). |
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Term
What are the four mechanisms by which bilirubin can increase and jaundice can occur? |
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Definition
Increased production, impaired uptake, impaired conjugation and decreased excretion of bilirubin. |
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Term
What would increase the production of bilirubin? What type of bilirubin is involved? |
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Definition
Increased destruction/hemolysis of RBCs would give you more unconjugated/indirect bilirubin, which means it is attached to albumin to go to the liver and could not be excreted through the urine.
Note: this person would have jaundice skin and sclera, but normal urine. |
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Term
What organ normally splits albumin and bilirubin in order to reuptake the bilirubin? What could prevent this? |
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Definition
The liver normally separates the two and reuptakes the albumin, but some medications (antibiotics/contrast dies) can prevent this separation from happening.
Note: this person would have jaundice skin and sclera, but have normal urine because you are still dealing with unconjugated/indirect bilirubin. |
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Term
What occurs in impaired conjugation of bilirubin? |
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Definition
This occurs when there is a decrease or total lack of the enzyme required to absorb bilirubin into the liver. At this point, the bilirubin is no longer attached to albumin and is called direct bilirubin. This person will have jaundice skin, sclera, and urine.
Will see sometimes in newborns (phylo-jaundice) and Gilbert's syndrome (child cannot make enzyme at all, usually dead by 3 months). |
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Term
What sort of bilirubin are you dealing with when there is a problem with excretion? |
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Definition
If someone is having difficulties excreting bilirubin, this means that they have liver problems and are dealing with direct bilirubin. This bilirubin is already detached from the albumin and can be excreted through the urine, but the liver is not able to do so. This person will have jaundice skin, sclera and urine. |
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Term
50% of Cirrhosis cases are found in who? |
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Definition
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Term
What will an alcoholics liver look like? |
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Definition
Enlarged, grainy and grayish in color due to fat accumulation (could die from fat emboli). |
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Term
Which organ is the best at rejuvinating itself? |
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Definition
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Term
What supplement is given to alcoholics to prevent acidosis, which causes potassium to rise? |
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Definition
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Term
Is Biliary Cirrhosis related to alcoholism? |
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Definition
No, it is not related to alcoholism and is much less common. This is the destruction of liver cells around the bile ducts due to obstruction of bile ducts. |
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Term
What is the textbook definition of Liver Failure? |
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Definition
When greater than 80% of the liver is destroyed. |
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Term
What is a major complication that exists with cirrhosis of the liver, especially with alcoholism? Explain. |
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Definition
Portal Hypertension. With cirrhosis, the liver enlarges and presses on the portal vein and increases blood pressure through the liver and spleen. |
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Term
What does the body try to do to decrease the pressure of the portal vein? What is the problem with this? |
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Definition
The body creates new veins called collateral vericese. The problem with these veins is that they are not as strong as the originals and are thinner. If this vessel ruptures, this person will be bleeding into their esophagus and have 3-4 minutes to do something before they bleed out. They cannot clot due to liver disease so this is very serious. |
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Term
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Definition
Inflammation of the gallbladder, usually due to gallstones but not always. |
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Term
What is the main cause of gallstones? |
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Definition
Changes in bile composition caused by changes in contractility of gallbladder, hormonal (birth control), infection. |
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Term
What is an easy way to determine if someone has gallstones? |
|
Definition
They will have extreme pain after eating a high fat meal in their upper right abdomen and right shoulder/upper back. |
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Term
Why would you see the liver failing, pancreatitis, and gallbladder problems (colicystitis) all at the same time? |
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Definition
This is due to the fact that gallstones can block the entire system at the sphincter of Ode.
Note: Hepatic duct comes out of liver, Cystic duct comes out of gallbladder, Pancreatic duct comes out of pancreas and all attach to common bile duct which turns into the narrow vader area that leads to the spincter. |
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Term
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Definition
Inflammation of the pancreas that can be acute or chronic (exocrine). |
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Term
True or False? Acute and Chronic Pancreatitis are both correlated with alcoholism. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Are we more worried about acute or chronic pancreatitis? |
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Definition
Acute has 5-10% mortality with edema and 50-80% mortality with hemorrhage and necrosis. |
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Term
What would you measure to determine pancreas function? |
|
Definition
Amylase (breaks down starches). The more the amylase, the more tissue damage to the pancreas. |
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Term
Besides alcoholism, what other two things are associated with chronic pancreatitis? |
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Definition
Malabsorption and a decrease in weight. |
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Term
True or False? Primary cancer of the liver and gallbladder is uncommon. |
|
Definition
True. You will generally see metastatic cancers in the liver.
Note: Primary cancer of the pancreas is NOT unusual. |
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|
Term
What is pancreatic cancer correlated with? |
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Definition
Smoking. It is 30% higher in males. |
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Term
True or False? Pancreatic cancer has many early warning signs. |
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Definition
False. There are no early warning signs of Pancreatic cancer. These people usually die within the first year.
Note: We do not do well with transplanting the pancreas. |
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