Term
| What event initiates the process of atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
| Endothelial injury and release of cytokines |
|
|
Term
Factors associated with endothelial injury in atherosclerosis include all of the following except:
A) autoimmunity.
B) anemia.
C) bacterial infection.
D) smoking. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form of hyperdyslipidemia is associated with the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An unstable plaque in the coronary arteries can result in which complication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the development of primary hypertension, increased sympathetic nervous system (SNS) activity causes:
A) decreased heart rate.
B) increased renal excretion of sodium.
C) peripheral vasoconstriction.
D) decreased insulin resistance. |
|
Definition
| C - peripheral vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| A risk factor that is associated with both atherosclerosis and primary hypertension is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Complications of sustained hypertension include which of the following?
A) Retinal damage
B) Stroke
C) Renal disease
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Atherosclerosis of the aorta can cause isolated systolic hypertension by:
A) promoting thrombus formation.
B) stimulating increased cardiac output.
C) decreasing arterial distensibility.
D) increasing lumen diameter. |
|
Definition
| C - decreasing arterial distensibility |
|
|
Term
| A ruptured cerebral aneurysm often will result in what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clinical manifestations of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the lower leg include what? |
|
Definition
| Pain and edema in the affected limb. |
|
|
Term
| Individuals with Raynaud disease experience vasospasm in the small arteries of the fingers under which conditions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of coronary artery disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is prinzmetal angina is caused by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is myocardial ischemia usually reversible within 20 minutes of interruption of coronary blood flow? |
|
Definition
| Anaerobic metabolism maintains cellular integrity for approximately 20 minutes. |
|
|
Term
| What is unstable angina is considered a precursor to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a myocardial infarction occurs, the myocardial cells surrounding the infarct undergo structural and functional changes. Which one of the following changes can be observed in these tissues following a myocardial infarction?
A) Temporary increase in contractile activity
B) Increased metabolism
C) Myocardial remodeling
D) Necrosis |
|
Definition
| C - Myocardial remodeling |
|
|
Term
| Aortic stenosis results in the incomplete emptying of the what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cardiac valve disease in the United States, which tends to be most prevalent in young women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Many valvular stenosis and regurgitation disorders in adults have a common etiology. What can result in both types of valve dysfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Congestive heart failure (CHF) results in which of the following intraventricular hemodynamic changes?
A) Increased left ventricular preload
B) Increased ejection fraction
C) Decreased right ventricular preload
D) Decreased right ventricular end-diastolic pressure |
|
Definition
| A - Increased left ventricular preload |
|
|
Term
Of the following diseases, which is the most common cause of right heart failure?
A) Primary hypertension
B) Infective endocarditis
C) Left heart failure
D) Pericarditis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What problem is a pathophysiological consequence common to all shock states? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In shock, how does the body maintain blood glucose levels once available glucose and glycogen stores are used up? |
|
Definition
| By breaking down protein to fuel gluconeogenesis |
|
|
Term
| Which shock state manifests with tachycardia, vasoconstriction, and movement of large volumes of interstitial fluid to the vascular compartment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which shock state is characterized by acute, severe bronchoconstriction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock include all of the following except:
A) pulmonary edema.
B) tachycardia.
C) hypotension.
D) oliguria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pathophysiological event causes the severe hypotension observed in neurogenic shock? |
|
Definition
| Decreased peripheral vascular resistance |
|
|
Term
| Anaphylactic shock manifests with the rapid onset of which set of symptoms? |
|
Definition
| Dyspnea, hypotension, and urticaria |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary cause of hypotension in early stages of septic shock? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Low levels of which molecule contributes to the pathophysiology of septic shock? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Secondary MODS is defined as the progressive dysfunction of two or more organ systems resulting from what? |
|
Definition
| An uncontrolled inflammatory response |
|
|
Term
| What is the general definition of anemia? |
|
Definition
| Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood cells |
|
|
Term
| What blood test allows the clinician to visualize structural changes in the erythrocytes such as sickle cells or schistocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In anemia, what factor stimulates the production of erythropoietin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An increase in which laboratory value would indicate the presence of a hemorrhagic or hemolytic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency anemia usually exhibits a red blood cell morphology that is:
A) microcytic and hypochromic.
B) macrocytic and normochromic.
C) normocytic and normochromic.
D) macrocytic and hypochromic. |
|
Definition
| B - macrocytic and normochromic. |
|
|
Term
| Why is gastric bypass surgery for morbid obesity a risk factor for the development of pernicious (vitamin B12 deficiency) anemia? |
|
Definition
| Intrinsic factor production by the gastric epithelium is reduced. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following population groups are at the highest risk for developing a folate deficiency anemia?
A) Children born with a congenital intrinsic factor deficiency
B) Alcoholics
C) Menstruating women
D) Vegetarians |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following problems is not a known cause of iron deficiency?
A) Blood loss
B) Inadequate dietary iron
C) Severe diarrhea
D) Disorders of iron metabolism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In evaluating for iron deficiency, which lab test provides the most accurate assessment of iron stores in the tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The reticulocyte count in iron deficiency, vitamin B12, and folate deficiency is:
A) increased.
B) decreased.
C) absent.
D) impossible to measure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the underlying pathophysiological cause of sideroblastic anemia? |
|
Definition
| Available iron is not incorporated into the developing erythrocyte. |
|
|
Term
| What is the general cause of aplastic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In addition to a low serum hemoglobin and hematocrit, which of the following problems also manifest with aplastic anemia?
A) Elevated bilirubin levels
B) Formation of deep vein thromboses
C) Increased risk of acquiring serious infections
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
| C - increased risk of acquiring serious infections |
|
|
Term
| What are immediate, life-threatening consequences of a massive hemorrhage primarily related to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a unique manifestation of hemolytic anemia (i.e., generally absent in other forms)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are reasons why chronic infections (HIV disease, hepatitis), rheumatological diseases, and malignancies result in anemia of chronic inflammation (anemia of chronic disease), except:
A) decreased erythropoiesis.
B) disordered iron utilization by developing erythrocytes.
C) decreased erythrocyte survival.
D) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following descriptions is characteristic of sickle cell disease?
A) Malformed, sickle-shaped platelets lead to thrombocytopenia and bleeding.
B) Hemoglobin reacts to deoxygenation or dehydration by sickling the erythrocytes.
C) Sickled erythroblasts are unable to form adequate amounts of hemoglobin.
D) Production of antibodies that attach to erythrocytes, causing sickling. |
|
Definition
| B - Hemoglobin reacts to deoxygenation or dehydration by sickling the erythrocytes. |
|
|
Term
| In the United States, sickle cell disease is most common among _________ population? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Secondary polycythemia caused by hypoxemia at high altitude manifests with which problems? |
|
Definition
| Increased erythrocyte production and hyperviscosity of blood. |
|
|
Term
| What are symptoms such as pica and pagophagia are most commonly associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an increase in the production of neutrophils in response to infection is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Agranulocytosis increases a person’s risk of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mononucleosis is caused by infection of the B lymphocytes by which microorganism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary transmission route of the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis? |
|
Definition
| Transfer of saliva through close personal contact |
|
|
Term
Leukemia is classified as:
A) differentiated or undifferentiated.
B) benign or malignant.
C) proliferative or nonproliferative.
D) acute or chronic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acute lymphocytic leukemia most commonly occurs in which population? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an important difference between acute and chronic leukemias? |
|
Definition
| In chronic leukemia the cancerous cells are more differentiated than in acute leukemia. |
|
|
Term
| In multiple myeloma, immunoglobulin fragments called Bence Jones proteins cause injury to which organ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Other symptoms that often present with Hodgkin lymphoma include:
A) headache, visual changes, and hearing loss.
B) night sweats, low-grade fevers, and weight loss.
C) hypertension, tachycardia, and chest pain.
D) hematuria, flank pain, and ascites. |
|
Definition
| B - night sweats, low-grade fevers, and weight loss. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a characteristic of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)?
A) NHL will often spread to the nasopharynx, gastrointestinal tract, and bone.
B) NHL remains localized in one set of lymph nodes.
C) NHL usually only involves the T cells.
D) NHL is diagnosed on the basis of the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in the blood. |
|
Definition
| A - NHL will often spread to the nasopharynx, gastrointestinal tract, and bone. |
|
|
Term
| Following a splenectomy (removal of the spleen), a person has a higher risk of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) occurs in 5% to 15% of all individuals receiving heparin therapy. In these individuals, the administration of heparin induces what? |
|
Definition
| Platelet aggregation and thrombus formation |
|
|
Term
Which of the following group of symptoms would lead you to suspect your pediatric patient has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
A) Multiple infections and erythematous rash
B) Epitaxis, gum bleeding, and petechiae
C) Lower extremity that is warm to touch, edematous, and painful
D) Fatigue, weakness, and pale skin |
|
Definition
| B - Epitaxis, gum bleeding, and petechiae |
|
|
Term
| In addition to a reduced platelet count, what other problem arises in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is hemophilia is caused by? |
|
Definition
| Inherited clotting factor deficiency. |
|
|
Term
| An elevation in the serum level of which molecule is consistently observed in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? |
|
Definition
| Fibrin degradation products |
|
|
Term
Factors associated with the development of thrombi in the veins, as described by the Virchow triad, include all of the following except:
A) venous stasis.
B) endothelial injury.
C) increased heparin levels.
D) hypercoagulability. |
|
Definition
| C - increased Heparin levels |
|
|
Term
| Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) results in excessive what? |
|
Definition
| Renal retention of water without sodium retention |
|
|
Term
| What are neurological symptoms of SIADH are related to? |
|
Definition
| Decreased serum sodium concentrations |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a serious complication of SIADH?
A) Permanent neurological damage
B) Renal failure
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Panhypopituitarism |
|
Definition
| A - Permanent neurological damage |
|
|
Term
| Damage to the posterior pituitary caused by a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) results in _____ diabetes insipidus (DI). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Classic symptoms of diabetes insipidus (DI) include all of the following except:
A) hypertension.
B) dehydration.
C) low urine osmolarity.
D) thirst. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When evaluating the kidney function of an individual with diabetes insipidus (DI), the nurse would observe:
A) high volume urine output.
B) high urine osmolarity.
C) blood in the urine.
D) protein in the urine. |
|
Definition
| A - high volume urine output |
|
|
Term
| In adults, the most serious consequence of panhypopituitarism is the loss of what hormone? |
|
Definition
| Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) |
|
|
Term
| Acromegaly is caused by increased secretion of what hormone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prolactinomas (pituitary tumors that secrete prolactin) cause which of the following problems in women?
A) Heavy menstrual periods
B) Infertility
C) Breast milk production without pregnancy
D) Hair loss |
|
Definition
| C - breast milk production without pregnancy |
|
|
Term
A clinician would suspect thyrotoxicosis if a patient presented with which of the following symptoms?
A) Confusion and gait disturbances
B) Weight loss and enlarged thyroid gland
C) Slow tendon reflexes and muscle stiffness
D) Peripheral edema and dry skin |
|
Definition
| B - Weight loss and enlarged thyroid gland |
|
|
Term
Graves disease is characterized by:
A) ectopic secretion of thyroid hormone by a tumor.
B) excessive production of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin.
C) autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland.
D) injury to the pituitary, resulting in decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone secretion. |
|
Definition
| B - excessive production of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin. |
|
|
Term
| Graves disease is an example of a ___ hypersensitivity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In Graves disease, accumulation of edema in the orbit can lead to:
A) optic nerve damage.
B) eye muscle palsies.
C) exophthalmos.
D) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the cause of exophthalmos in Graves disease?
A) Decreased blood flow to the eye
B) Degenerative changes in the muscle and orbital edema
C) High levels of TSH causing retinal toxicity
D) Optic nerve damage |
|
Definition
| B - Degenerative changes in the muscle and orbital edema |
|
|
Term
| The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The physiologic stress of illness or surgery can induce a severe response in individuals who have unrecognized and untreated thyrotoxicosis. The pathophysiology of thyroid storm, also known as thyrotoxic crisis, involves:
A) hypotension and bradycardia leading to shock.
B) pulmonary edema and bronchoconstriction leading to respiratory arrest.
C) hypercoagulability and formation of deep vein thromboses leading to pulmonary emboli.
D) fever and tachycardia leading to high-output heart failure. |
|
Definition
| D - fever and tachycardia leading to high-output heart failure. |
|
|
Term
An endocrinologist orders a series of lab tests to assess thyroid function. Low levels of thyroid hormone (T3 and T4) and high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) are indicative of:
A) primary hypothyroidism.
B) secondary hypothyroidism.
C) primary hyperthyroidism.
D) secondary hyperthyroidism. |
|
Definition
| A - primary hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
| If left untreated, congenital hypothyroidism results in what? |
|
Definition
| mental retardation and stunted growth |
|
|
Term
Signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include all of the following except:
A) weight gain.
B) diarrhea.
C) myxedema.
D) lethargy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common cause of primary hypothyroidism in adults is:
A) bacterial infection of the thyroid gland.
B) viral infection of the thyroid gland.
C) congenital hypothyroidism.
D) autoimmune thyroiditis. |
|
Definition
| D - autoimmune thyroiditis. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following thyroid disorders can be caused by exposure of the thyroid gland to ionizing radiation?
A) Graves disease
B) Hashimoto thyroiditis
C) Thyroid cancer
D) Subacute thyroiditis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Causes of myxedema coma include:
A) untreated hypothyroidism.
B) subclinical hyperthyroidism.
C) thyroid storm.
D) a reaction to abnormally high levels of thyroid autoantibodies. |
|
Definition
| A - untreated hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
Thyroid carcinoma usually presents with the following thyroid tissue changes:
A) small nodules.
B) elevated T3 and T4.
C) large, diffuse goiter.
D) thyroid gland atrophy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chronic hyperparathyroidism will lead to all of the following conditions except:
A) osteopenia.
B) renal calculi (stones).
C) weight loss.
D) pathologic bone fractures. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following disorders can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism?
A) Chronic renal failure
B) Primary hyperparathryroidism
C) A pituitary tumor
D) Graves disease |
|
Definition
| A - chronic renal failure |
|
|
Term
The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is:
A) hypothalamic inactivity.
B) pituitary hyposecretion.
C) parathyroid adenoma.
D) parathyroid gland injury or removal. |
|
Definition
| D - parathyroid gland injury or removal |
|
|
Term
| What is one problem associated with untreated hypoparathyroidism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) involves:
A) autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
B) production of antibodies against insulin.
C) type IV hypersensitivity against pancreatic islet cells.
D) all of the above. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes is based on:
A) random serum glucose levels.
B) fasting plasma glucose levels and glucose tolerance tests.
C) genetic testing.
D) the presence of symptoms only. |
|
Definition
| B - fasting plasma glucose levels and glucose tolerance tests. |
|
|
Term
| What are hyperglycemia and lipid abnormalities in type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) a result of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Signs and symptoms common to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) include all of the following except:
A) polyphagia.
B) weight loss.
C) polydipsia.
D) polyuria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Signs and symptoms that a person with type 1 diabetes has administered too much insulin include:
A) Kussmaul respirations and acetone breath.
B) dizziness and confusion.
C) abdominal cramping and nausea.
D) pain at the site of injection. |
|
Definition
| B - dizziness and confusion |
|
|
Term
The purpose of monitoring glycosylated hemoglobin levels in persons with diabetes is to:
A) check for hyperlipidemia.
B) detect acute complications of diabetes.
C) monitor long-term serum glucose control.
D) measure fasting glucose levels. |
|
Definition
| C - monitor long-term serum glucose control |
|
|
Term
| What is the symptom of polyuria in diabetes mellitus (DM) is caused by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What effect does the presence of advanced glycosylation end products (AGEs) have in diabetes?
A) Increased ketone formation
B) Tissue injury
C) Dawn phenomenon
D) Reduction of chronic complications |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The development of an acute metabolic acidosis from insulin deficiency is due to which of the following processes?
A) Protein catabolism with ammonia release
B) Anaerobic metabolism of glucose
C) Fatty acid metabolism with ketone production
D) Renal failure |
|
Definition
| C) Fatty acid metabolism with ketone production |
|
|
Term
Alterations in lipid and protein metabolism lead to chronic complications of DM through which of the following processes?
A) Activation of protein kinase C
B) Induction of the polyol pathway
C) Glycosylation
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chronic complications of DM include which of the following?
A) Peripheral neuropathies
B) End-stage renal disease
C) Coronary artery disease
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is cushing disease is commonly caused by? |
|
Definition
| Ectopic production of ACTH from a lung tumor |
|
|
Term
Which of the following alterations would you expect to find in a patient with untreated Cushing disease or syndrome?
A) Weight loss
B) Pale skin
C) Truncal obesity
D) Peripheral edema |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which problem arises from primary hyperaldosteronism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Metabolic abnormalities in Addison disease include all of the following except:
A) hyperkalemia.
B) hyponatremia.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) hypercalcemia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of Addison disease? |
|
Definition
| Autoimmune injury to the adrenal cortex. |
|
|
Term
Hypersecretion of androgens from an adrenal tumor in female children causes virilization, which is:
A) the early development of female sex characteristics.
B) the development of male sex characteristics.
C) a form of hypercortisolism.
D) sterility. |
|
Definition
| B) the development of male sex characteristics. |
|
|
Term
Diffuse axonal injury results from:
A) blunt focal trauma.
B) open skull fractures.
C) rotational acceleration forces.
D) cerebral edema. |
|
Definition
| C) rotational acceleration forces. |
|
|
Term
All of the following signs are associated with diffuse axonal injury except:
A) Loss of consciousness
B) Headache
C) Alterations in breathing patterns
D) Altered pupillary reactions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most forms of focal brain injury or diffuse axonal injury are associated with increased what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A concussion is defined as temporary axonal disturbance with loss of consciousness lasting less than ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Spinal shock involves loss of:
A) skeletal motor function.
B) peripheral sensory function.
C) autonomic function.
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In individuals with spinal cord injuries, autonomic hyperreflexia occurs:
A) before spinal shock.
B) during spinal shock.
C) after spinal shock is resolved.
D) in individuals who did not develop spinal shock. |
|
Definition
| C - after spinal shock is resolved |
|
|
Term
Vital to the management of individuals with spinal cord trauma is preventing long-term complications. All of the following are potential complications of spinal cord trauma except:
A) skin breakdown.
B) thromboembolism.
C) pneumonia.
D) immunosuppression. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Autonomic hyperreflexia is often caused by:
A) pain stimulation below the level of the spinal cord lesion.
B) bowel or bladder emptying.
C) stress and anxiety.
D) dehydration. |
|
Definition
| A) pain stimulation below the level of the spinal cord lesion. |
|
|
Term
| In terms of risk factors, what are cerebral vascular accidents (strokes) are most similar to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is obstruction of a cerebral artery by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the pathophysiology of cerebral infarction, the release of which substance is associated with neuron hyperpolarization and seizure activity?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Endotoxin
C) Excitotoxins
D) Calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), blood accumulates where? |
|
Definition
| In the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) between the brain and skull |
|
|
Term
All of the following problems are complications of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) except:
A) vasospasm.
B) increased cerebral blood flow.
C) cerebral edema.
D) seizures. |
|
Definition
| B - increased cerebral blood flow |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common source of life-threatening meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Symptoms of bacterial meningitis can include all of the following except:
A) mild frontal headache.
B) skin rash.
C) nuchal rigidity.
D) vomiting. |
|
Definition
| A - mild frontal headache |
|
|
Term
| Encephalitis is usually caused by what type of infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis is caused by? |
|
Definition
| Immunologic and inflammatory demyelination of central nervous system neurons |
|
|
Term
An individual who is unable to visually recognize and identify objects because of injury to the sensory cortex has:
A) anomia.
B) dysphasia.
C) agnosia.
D) echolalia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The tonic phase of an epileptic seizure is characterized by:
A) involuntary muscle contraction and loss of consciousness.
B) cessation of seizure activity.
C) aura and prodromal signs.
D) alternating muscle contraction and relaxation. |
|
Definition
| A - involuntary muscle contraction and loss of consciousness. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following vertebral disorders involves a structural defect (often hereditary) that causes forward displacement of affected vertebra?
A) Spinal stenosis
B) Spondylosis
C) Degenerative disk disease
D) Herniated nucleus pulposus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following problems are likely to occur following a severe focal brain injury?
A) Cerebral edema
B) Subdural hematoma
C) Contrecoup injury
D) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is related to which of the following physiological changes?
A) Increase in cerebral blood flow
B) Decrease in arterial blood pressure
C) Decrease in intracranial pressure
D) Cerebral artery vasodilation |
|
Definition
| B - Decrease in arterial blood pressure |
|
|
Term
The displacement of the temporal lobe into the tentorial notch resulting in brain stem compression is know as a(n):
A) central herniation.
B) interstitial herniation.
C) infratentorial herniation.
D) uncal herniation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) accumulation in the ventricles or subarachnoid space called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The main source of bleeding in subdural hematomas is:
A) arterial.
B) venous.
C) capillary.
D) sinus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which intervertebral disks are most likely to be herniated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Risk factors for stroke syndromes include all of the following except:
A) primary hypertension.
B) anticoagulant medications.
C) atrial fibrillation.
D) diabetes mellitus. |
|
Definition
| B - anticoagulant medications |
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Term
The most common neurologic disorder observed in individuals with AIDS is:
A) peripheral neuropathies.
B) stroke.
C) encephalopathy.
D) central nervous system (CNS) tumors. |
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Definition
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Term
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is caused by the degeneration of:
A) motor neurons in the spinal cord and peripheral nerves.
B) skeletal muscle tissue.
C) myelin in the peripheral nervous system.
D) myelin in the central nervous system. |
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Definition
| A - motor neurons in the spinal cord and peripheral nerves |
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Term
Immediately following a spinal cord injury, spinal reflexes below the level of the lesion are disrupted because of:
A) accumulation of toxic metabolites.
B) spinal cord swelling.
C) parasympathetic disruption.
D) disruption of impulses to higher brain centers. |
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Definition
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Term
Symptoms of autonomic hyperreflexia include the following:
A) Headache and blurred vision
B) Nausea and dizziness
C) Chest pain and shortness of breath
D) Hyperactive patellar reflex and muscle spasms |
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Definition
| A - headache and blurred vision |
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Term
| A severe focal injury to the temporal region of the skull can rupture the middle meningeal artery, resulting in an epidural hemorrhage. In this type of intracranial hemorrhage, the bleeding occurs between the dura mater and the ___? |
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Definition
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Term
A major risk factor for the development of a chronic subdural hematoma is:
A) trauma.
B) brain cancer.
C) alcoholism.
D) meningitis. |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is not a type of subdural hematoma?
A) Chronic
B) Intracerebral
C) Acute
D) Subacute |
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Definition
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Term
Intracerebral hemorrhages most frequently occur in the:
A) frontal and temporal lobes.
B) occipital and parietal lobes.
C) diencephalon and midbrain.
D) cerebral cortex. |
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Definition
| A - frontal and temporal lobes |
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