Term
|
Definition
A triangular area of new subperiostial bone created when a lesion, often a tumor, raises the periostium away from the bone.
A clinical charactaristic of Osteosarcomas. |
|
|
Term
What can elevated Alkaline Phosphatase levels indicate? |
|
Definition
Bone disease,
cholestatic disorders (obstructive jaundice or interhepatic biliary disease) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Rheumatoid Arthritis associated with splenomegly and neutropenia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hard notdules or enlargements of the DIP joints of the fingers.
Hallmarks of Osteoarthritis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The covering of a newly formed bone enveloping the sequestrum (fragment of necrotic bone) in infections of the bone (osteomyelitis) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Non-collagenous protien found in bone and dentin.
Secreted soely by osteoblasts.
Is itself pro-osteoblastic (bone builders)
Thought to help in metabolic regulation, bone mineralizationa nd Ca2+ ion homeostasis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Vit D deficiency in adults
Results in a shrotage or loss of calcium salts causing bone to become soft, flexible, brittle and deformed.
Can be related to liver dz, cancer, or other issues with vit D metabolism. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Charactarized as a significant ↓ in the bone mineral density (BMD) as measured by standard deviations relative to normal.
*When BMD is T= -1 to -2.5 a person is osteopenic.
If T<-2.5 the person is osteoperotic. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Inflamed synovial granulation tissue.
Seen in chronic RA* |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
aka tuberculous spondylitis
A combined infection (osteomyelitis) of the vertebrae and interverterbral joint spaces caused by miliary/dissiminated TB (typically hematogenous spread).
Can result in spinal deformity and/or perminant neurological deficits. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A fragment of necrotic bone that has become separated form the surrounding tissue.
Is considered a primary sequestrum if it is still firmly attached to its tissue of origin, secondary if loosely attached and tertiary if detached but remains in place. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
A deposit of sodium biurate (precipitated sodium monourate crystals) depositied near a joint in the ear or elsewhere in pt with gout.
Appear on imaging as a white, chalky mass. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An immovable joint with fivrous CT or catilage bw the bone surfaces and no joint cavity.
Incl: synchondrosis (hyline cartilage connects 2 bones),
Suture (rigid joint, as in the skull bones), or
Syndesmosis (slightly movible articulation where 2 bones are attached by an intraosseous ligament (radiocarpal joint) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Congenital myopathy
Demonstartes a loss of mitochondria and other organelles form the central portion of Type I muscle fibers.
Charactarized by weakness and hypotonia but infants w this dz do become mobile. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Congenital Myopathy
Demonstrates tangles of small, rod-shaped granules, mostly in type I fibers.
Wide clinical variation from mild and non-progressive to severe weakness causing death due to respiratory failure. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A mitochondrial myopathy
Exibits non-Mendelian, exclusively maternal mode of inheritance
Charactarized clinically by opthamoplegia (EOM paralysis), pigmentary retinopathy, heart block, cerebellar ataxia.
Ragged red muscle fibers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Decrease in bone mass with BMD<-2.5 standard deviations from the mean
Caused by impaired synthesis, ↑ resorption or both.
A metabolic bone dz typically dx by DEXA scan and diffuse radiolucency of bone on XR.
[Ca2+] and [PO4-] are normal
[Alkaline phosphatase] may be ↓
Bones are not adequate for weight bearing resuting in fractures (commonly compression fractures of the vertebrae leading to kyphosis and shortened stature)
Clinically associated with low estrogen (postmenopausal women), inactivity, hypercorticism, hyperthyroidism, calcium deficiency. |
|
|
Term
What disorder can present with "Brown Tumor"?
|
|
Definition
von Recklinghausen Disease of Bone
(osteitis fibrosa cystica) |
|
|
Term
Von Reckilinghausen Disease of Bone |
|
Definition
aka Osteitis fibrosa cystica
↑ serum [Ca2+], ↓ [PO4], ↑ [Alkaline Phosphatase]
Caused by 1º or 2º hyperparathyroidism.
Charactarized by widespread osteolytic lesions.
May manifest as "Brown Tumor" of bone, cystic spaces lined by multinucleated osteoclasts filled with vascular fibrous stroma, often with hemorrage giving it its brown discoloration.
XR shows diffuse radiolucency (mimics osteoperosis) |
|
|
Term
What is osteomalacia called when it is secondary to renal disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Children with rickets have thin, frail growth plates |
|
Definition
False
In rockets there is ↓ calcification but an ↑ accumulation of osteoid which thickens the epiphyseal growth plates and causes other skeletal deformities. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Thinning and softening of the occiptial and parietal bones of the skull.
Seen in children with Rickets |
|
|
Term
What does it mean when a pt has late closing of the fontanelles?
|
|
Definition
Fontanelles are the soft spots on a neonates skull which fuse after birth.
In children with rickets, this fusion is delayed, possibly leading to cranial abnormalities. |
|
|
Term
What is a Rachitic Rosary and in what condition(s) is it found? |
|
Definition
A Rachitic Rosary is a thickening of the costochondral juctions resulting in a string-of-beads-like appearance.
Seen in children with rickets. |
|
|
Term
What is Harrison's Groove and in what condition(s) is it found? |
|
Definition
Harrison's Groove is a depression along the line of insertion of the diaphragm into the rib cage.
It appears in children with rickets. |
|
|
Term
T/F Children with rickets can have profoundly decreased height? |
|
Definition
True
Spinal deformities caused by skeletal weakness can cause decreased height and stooped posture in children with rickets. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
=Padget Disease of Bone
Most common in the elderly, unknown etiology (possible role played by viruses)
↑ activity of both osteoclasts and osteoblasts causes abnormal bone architecture and severe bone deformities.
Bones commonly involved are the spine, pelvis, calvarium, femur and tibia. Can involve one or many bones (mono or polyostotic).
Manifest clinically by a marked ↑↑↑ in serum alkaline phosphatase (blast activity) but with normal serum Ca2+ and phosphorous. |
|
|
Term
T/F In Padget Disease of bone there is a minor ↑ in alkaline phosphatase, calcium and phosphate levels in the pt serum. |
|
Definition
False
Padget Dz is charactarized by a marked ↑ in serum alkaline phosphatase but normal serum Ca and phosphorous. |
|
|
Term
Describe the morphologic phases of Paget Dz |
|
Definition
1) Osteolytic Phase: Osteoclastic resorption predominates
2) Mixed Phase: activity of both osteoclasts and osteoblasts, new bone formation leads to a charactaristic mosaic pattern.
3) Late Phase: bone density is ↑, trabeculae are thick and the mosaic pattern is prominent. |
|
|
Term
Name 3 complications of Padget Dz |
|
Definition
Bone pain (resulting from fractures, though thick the bone lacks strength and is prone to micro and macrofractures)
High-output Cardiac failure (AV shunts within highly vascular early lesions)
Hearing Loss (narrowing of the auditory canal or involvement of the small bones of the ear)
Osteosarcoma (this is the one instance where osteosarcoma affects older people, is generally a tumor of younger people). |
|
|
Term
What are the bony manifestations of Scurvy? |
|
Definition
Painful subperiostial hemorrage
Osteoporosis (esp at the metaphyseal ends of bones)
Failure of the Epiphyseal cartilage to be replaced by osteoid. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of inherited dwarfism? |
|
Definition
Achondroplasia
Autosomal Dominant
Mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene.
Charatarized by normal trunk and head but short, thick extremities.
Bones are short and thick and fail to elongate with bony sealing off of the area bw the epiphyseal plate and the metaphysis. Narrow growth plates. |
|
|
Term
What disorder is charactarized by the replacement of portions of bone with fibrous tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Monostotic vs Polyostoic Fibrous Dysplasia |
|
Definition
Monostotic: Solitary lesions that are often asymptomatic but can result in sponaneous fractures with swelling and pain, deformity is possible.
Polyostotic: Multiple sites are involved, can be associated with severe deformity. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, Precocious puberty, cafe-au-lait spots, and short stature.
Occurs in very young girls. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a charactaristic site of aseptic necrosis?
-Tibia
-Fibula
-Navicular Bone
-Femur
|
|
Definition
Fibula is not.
All of the other sites are typical locations for infarction leading to aseptic/avascular necrosis of bone. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of aseptic necrosis of bone? |
|
Definition
Trauma/Embolism
Includes those due to thrombosis, decompression syndroem (the bends) and SSA. |
|
|
Term
What is avascular necrosis in the head of the femur called? |
|
Definition
Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Aseptic necrosis of the tibial tubercle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Aseptic necrosis of the navicular bone
(tarsal bone of the foot) |
|
|
Term
The synthesis of what protein is defective in pt with OI? |
|
Definition
Collagen
Several different gene mutations can cause these defects but failure to properly produce collagen results in generalized CT abnormalites affecting the teeth, skin, eyes, and bones. |
|
|
Term
How is the most common type of OI inherited? |
|
Definition
Autosomal Dominant
This type is charactarized by multiple childhood fractures and blue sclerae. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Another name for Osteopetrosis/Marble Bone Dz
|
|
|
Term
T/F Osteopetrosis is caused by overactivity of osteoblasts |
|
Definition
False
Caused by the failure of osteoclast activity.
Accompanied by greatly ↑ bone density but bones are weak resulting in multiple fractures.
Also associated with anemia, deafness, blindess, and CN involvement because of narrowing of the foramina. |
|
|
Term
What is the inheritance pattern of the two major clinical forms of osteopetrosis? |
|
Definition
Autosomal Recessive varient is typically fatal in infancy.
Autosomal Dominant form is less severe. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of Pyogenic osteomyelitis in neonates?
In children? In Adults? In SSA pt? In IV drug users? |
|
Definition
In neonates: GBS or E. coli
In Children: Staph aureus (hematogenous spread)
In Adults: a complication of compound fractures or surgery, no one agent.
In SSA pt: Salmonella
In IV drug users: Psudomonas |
|
|
Term
Where do pyogenic osteomyelitis infections typically begin? |
|
Definition
Pyogenic infections of bone most often initially involve the metaphysis.
The distal end of the femur, proximal end of the tibia and proximal end of the humerus. |
|
|
Term
What are the stages of pyogenic osteomyelitis? |
|
Definition
Acute stage (may resolve with abx)
May progress to involve vasculature with pyogenic exudate→ ischemic necrosis of bone and marrow.
Necrotic bone=Sequestrum acts as a foreign body and a locus for persistent infection.
Subperiostial dissection by pyogenic exudate may further impari blood supply, rupture into surrounding tissues and form sinuses (even draining through the skin).
Involucrum=a sleeve fo new bone forms around the sequestrum.
May be walled off by surroundign granulation tissue forming a Brodie Abscess. |
|
|
Term
T/F Amyloidosis is a complication of pyogenic osteomyelitis.
|
|
Definition
True
Secondary reactive systemic amylodisis may complicate pyogenic osteomyelitis.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A subacute osteomyelitis.
A wall of granulation tissue walls off the infection within the bone.
May present as an abscess draining through the skin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tuberculous osteomyelitis of the vertebrae.
Vertebrae can collapse leading to spinal deformity. |
|
|
Term
What bones does Tuberculous Osteomyelitis typically affect? |
|
Definition
Vertebrae (Pott Disease)
Hip
Femur
Tibia
Bones of the hands and feet |
|
|
Term
What disorder or group of disorders has the charactaristic finding fo Birbeck Granules |
|
Definition
Histiocytosis X
Birbeck Granules are tennis reacket-shaped cytoplasmic structures which are charactaristic of the proliferative histiocytic cellss of this dz. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A group of disorders charactarized by the proliveration of histiocytic cells that closely resemble epidermal Lagerhans cells with Birbeck granules and distinctive surface antigens.
There are several varient forms of this disease but the above holds true for each form. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Acute disseminated Lagerhans Cell Histiocytosis.
An aggressive, typically fatal, disorder of infants and small children.
Charactarized by hepatosplenomegly, lymphadenopathy, pancytopenia, pulmonary involvement, and recurrent infections (as a result of widespread histiocytic proliferation). |
|
|
Term
Hand-Schuller-Christian Disease typically presents with a triad of symptoms; what are they? |
|
Definition
1) Skull Lesions
2) Diabetes Insipidus
3) Exopthalmos (caused by orbital invovement) |
|
|
Term
Hand-Schuller-Christian Disease |
|
Definition
Chronic, Progressive Histiocytosis
Typically presents before age 5, better prognosis than Letterer-Siwe.
Charactarized by histiocytic proliferation mixed with inflammatory cell infultration within the bones particularily in the skull, liver, spleen and other tissues.
Manifests with the Classic Tirad: Skull lesions, Diabetes insipidus and exopthalmos (orbit involvement). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The form of histiocytosis X with the best prognosis of the group (fatalaties rare).
Charactarized by histiocytic proliferation mixed with inflammatory cells (ordinary macrophages, lymphocytes and lots of eosinophils).
Can present as a solitary bone lesion. Extraskeletal involvement is typically limited to the lung. |
|
|
Term
What are the two most frequently occuring benign tumors of bone? |
|
Definition
Osteochondroma and Giant Cell Tumor |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 most frequently occuring malignant tumors of bone? |
|
Definition
Osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma and Ewing Sarcoma
*Excludes metastasis to bone which are more common than primary bone tumors* |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
aka Osteochonndroma
One of the most common benign tumors of bone.
A cartilage-capped subpareisotial projection from the bone surface.
Typically occur 'about the knee' in males < 25 yo |
|
|
Term
Giant Cell tumors are typically found _________ (location) in pts who are _______(M/F) between the ages of _____ and ______. |
|
Definition
Giant Cell tumores are typically found about the knee in pts who are Females between the ages of 20 and 40. |
|
|
Term
What are the charactaristics of giant cell tumors? |
|
Definition
Multinucleated giant cells and fibrous stroma.
Oval or spindle-shaped cells intermingled with the giant cells.
Most often on the epiphyseal end of long bones (typically about the knee).
Although benign, is a locally aggressive tumor that often recurs after removal. |
|
|
Term
Which disorder to pt have who are prone to malignant transformation of typically benign osteochondromas? |
|
Definition
Multiple Familial Osteochondromatosis
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Benign tumor of bone, relatively rare.
An intramedullary cartilaginous neoplasm typically affecting the bones of the hands and feet. |
|
|
Term
What is the name of a benign tumor of dense, mature boen that typically effects the skull/facial bones of males? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Benign bone tumor.
Neoplastic proliferation of osteoid and fibrous tissue typically occuring about the knee in males <25 yo. |
|
|
Term
T/F Osteosarcoma is the single most common primary tumor of bone, it typically occurs about the knee. |
|
Definition
True
Osteosarcomas are tyically found in males, 10-20 y/o about the knee.
It is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone. |
|
|
Term
What are some clinical charactaristics of osteosarcomas? |
|
Definition
Bone pain
Swelling, occasionally a pathological fracture.
Serum Alkaline phosphase is very high (2-3x normal)
Codman Tirangle with a Sunburst pattern on XR*** |
|
|
Term
Are osteosarcomas prone to spread? If so, where? |
|
Definition
Yes, this is a highly aggressive tumor with early hematogenous spread.
To the Lungs, Liver, and Brain.
|
|
|
Term
Can one be predisposed to developing osteosarcomas? |
|
Definition
Yes
Paget dz pt, those who have recieived ionizing radiation, had bone infarcts or have Familial Retinoblastoma are more prone to developing osteosarcomas. |
|
|
Term
T/F Chondrosarcomas are tumors of young boys |
|
Definition
False
This malignant bone tumor has a peak incidence in men aged 30-60. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Malignant cartilaginous tumors with peak incidence in men 30-60 years old.
Can arise as a primary tumor or from transformation of a preexisting cartilagenous tumors (especially multiple familial osteochondromatosis or multiple endochondromatosis) |
|
|
Term
What are the chief sites of origin of chondrosarcomas? |
|
Definition
Pelvis, spine, scapula, proximal humerus, proximal femur, or about the knee. |
|
|
Term
What tumor is described as a "Small Blue Cell" tumor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Ewing sarcomas are very analplastic |
|
Definition
True
These bone tumors actually have a morpholgical resemblance to malignant lymphomas.
Extremely malignant with early metastases.
However, responds well to chemo. |
|
|
Term
Who typically gets Ewing's Sarcoma and where? |
|
Definition
Boys < 15 y/o
Most often in the long bones, scapula, ribs and pelvis. |
|
|
Term
What genentic lesion is charactaristic of Ewing Sarcoma?
What other type of tumor shows this lesion? |
|
Definition
Ewing Sarcoma is charactarized by a 11;22 chomosomal translocation*
This translocation is identical to that found in Peripheral Neuroectodermal Tumors (PNETs, soft tissue neoplasms of neural crest origin). |
|
|
Term
In its early stages, what might Ewing Sarcoma be mistaken for? |
|
Definition
Acute Osteomyelitis
Similar pain. |
|
|
Term
T/F: RA most commonly appears in women aged 55-65
|
|
Definition
False
Younger! Most commonly in women aged 20-50 yrs. |
|
|
Term
What percentage of individuals with RA are RF+? |
|
Definition
~80%
RF is an IgM (usually) Ab with anti-IgG Fc domain specificity. |
|
|
Term
T/F RF is highly specific for but not charactaristic of RA |
|
Definition
False
RF is highly charactaristic of (80% have it) but not specific for RA (70% of pt with Sjogrens are also RF+) |
|
|
Term
What haplotype(s) are most commonly associtied with RA? |
|
Definition
HLA-DR4+ individuals are more likely to have RA |
|
|
Term
What is the presenting sign of RA and how does it initially progress? |
|
Definition
Synovitis (inflammation of the synovial membrane) is the most charactaristic manifestation of RA.
Early changes incl acute inflammatory reactions at the joint site with edema and inflammatory inflitrate (neutrophils, lymphocytes, plasmacells).
Hyperplasia and hypertorphy of the cllls of the synovial lining lead to the formation of finger-like villi.
Pannus (granulation tissue) extends ove the articular cartilage and destructive inflammation ensues. |
|
|
Term
What is pannus and in which condition(s) is it found? |
|
Definition
Pannus is granulation tissue that extends over articulate cartilage in RA.
Extension of pnnus to subchondral bone results in the characatristic erosion and cyst formation of RA.
This can lead to deformation of cartilage and bone. |
|
|
Term
T/F Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules develop in less than half of patients with RA |
|
Definition
True
Rheumatoid nodules develop in approx 1/3 of RA pt. |
|
|
Term
T/F joint involvement in RA is symmetrical and polyarticular |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What joints are typically involved in RA long-term? |
|
Definition
PIP and metacarpophalangeal joints of the hands are frequent sites.
Any joint has the potential to be involved though the small joints of the hands and feet as well as the knees are commonly invoved. |
|
|
Term
What causes ulnar deviation in RA? |
|
Definition
Synovitis of ligaments of the hand. |
|
|
Term
What are some extra-articular manifestations of RA? |
|
Definition
Episodic changes include fever, malaise, anorexia, fatigue and myalgia.
Other manifestations include pleural and pericardial effusions, anemia of chronic dz, vasculitis, lymphadenopathy, secondary reactive amylodosis and neurological changes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
RA varient.
Sjogren Dz + RA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
RA syndrome
Splenomegly + Neutropenia + RA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Juvenile ideopathic RA
Often preceeded or accompanied by generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatospnelomegly, and acute onset with fever. |
|
|
Term
What is a spondyloarthropathy? |
|
Definition
Seronegative form of arthritis
Charactarized by absence of RF and involvement of the peripheral and sacroilial joints*
|
|
|
Term
Which haplotype(s) are predisposed to seronegative arthritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A seronegative arthritis with a high association to HLA-B27 haplotype (up to 90% of pt have it)
Chronic condition affecting the spine and sacroiliac joints which can lead to rigidity and fixation of these joints due to bone fusion (ankyosis) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A seronegative arthritic syndrome.
Charactarized by urethritis, conjunctivitis and arthritis.
|
|
|
Term
With what type of infection(s) is Reiter Syndrome typically associated? |
|
Definition
Venerial or intestinal infections* |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Seronegative arthritis that occurs in approx ~10-30% of pt with the skin condition psoriasis. |
|
|
Term
T/F IBS can trigger arthritis |
|
Definition
True
There is a form of arthritis associted with IBS and other inflammatory bowel diseases (ulcerative colitis, Crohn's Dz). Can be accompanied by peripheral arthritis or ankylosing spondylitis. |
|
|
Term
What type of arthritis is known as "wear and tear arthritis"? |
|
Definition
Osteoarthritis (OA)
The most common form of arthritis
A degenerative, non inflammatory dz charactarized by degeneration of articular catilage acoompanied by new formation of bone subchondrally and at the margins of affected joints. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common form of arthritis and who does it typically affect? |
|
Definition
Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis.
It typically affects older individuals (50+yrs) with women having a higher incidence than men.
|
|
|
Term
What is the difference between primary and secondary OA? |
|
Definition
Primary OA has no known cause and many factors are likely to be at work.
Secondary OA occurs in joints damaged by known mechansms such as mechanical trauma, metabolic disorders (ochronosis=homogentisic acid deposition) and inflammatory disorders. |
|
|
Term
What is a Heberden node and where is it found? |
|
Definition
Heberden nodes are osteophytes at the DIP joints of the fingers of pt with OA. |
|
|
Term
What is a Bouchard node and where is it found? |
|
Definition
An osteophyte found at the PIP joint of pt with OA. |
|
|
Term
What are the classic morphological changes that accompany OA? |
|
Definition
Loss of elasticity and fraying of cartilage, enubration (smooth polished appearence of bone due to erosion of cartilage), cystic changes in subchondral bone, and new bone formation (Osteophytes forma nd bone density increases). |
|
|
Term
What is an osteophyte and in which condition(s) is it most commonly found? |
|
Definition
Osteophyte=Bone spur
Commonly form at the perimeter of the articular surface and at points of ligament attachement to bone.
Associated with Osteoarthritis (OA) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
XR finding in pt with OA
Fragments of separated cartilage and chunks of osteophyte (bone spur) that have broken off and are floating in the synovial fluid. |
|
|
Term
What condition(s) lead to the formation of nodular trophi? |
|
Definition
Gout
(Arthritis of metabolic origin)
Trophi are located about joints, the helix/antihelix of the hear and the achilles tendon.
Consist of urate crystals in a protein matrix surrounded by fibrous CT, all demostrating a foreign body giant cell rxn. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Acute Gouty Arthritis in the metatarsalphalangeal joint of the great toe. |
|
|
Term
What are they key features of a metabolic arthritis associated with hyperurecemia? |
|
Definition
Gout
Marked by an intense inflammatory reaction beginning with opsinization fo urate crystals by IgG followed by phagocytosis by neutrophils and eventually bh the release of proteolytic enzymes and inflammatory mediators from phagocytic cells.
Inflammatory response leads to painful acute arthritis and bursitis. |
|
|
Term
What is urate neuropathy? |
|
Definition
Rapidly declining renal function in gout pt caused by interstital deposition of urate crystals causing obstruction of the collecting tubules.
Made worse by the formation of urate and calcium stones. |
|
|
Term
T/F Urate crystals are positively bifringent under polarized light |
|
Definition
False
Urate crystals are negatively bifringent under polarized light. This means they appear yellow when their long axis is parallell to the light.
Pseudogout (calcium phosphate) crystals appear blue when their long axis is parallel to the light (positive bifringence) |
|
|
Term
Distinguish primary from secondary gout |
|
Definition
Primary Gout is due to hyperuricemia without evident cause (is the most common form of gout, MC in middle aged males)
Secondary Gout is much less common, hyperuricemia with known cause (leukemia, multiple myeloma, renal dz w dec excretion of urate, Lesch Nyhan) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Secondary gout
Hyperurecemia with severe neurologic manifestations (self-mutilation) due to X-linked hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT) deficiency. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
aka psudogout
Same clinical presentaiton as gout but the crystals are Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals (positive bifringence, blue under polarized light when parallel). |
|
|
Term
What is the most common form of bacterial arthritis? |
|
Definition
Gonococcal arthritis
Purulent synovial fluid (charactaristic of all forms of infective arthritis)
Typically monoarticular (knee, wrist and small joints) |
|
|
Term
How is Lyme Disease classified with respect to arthritis? |
|
Definition
Infective Arthrits
Caused by infection with the spyrochete Borrelia burgdorfi (typically from a lxodes dammini tick)
Charactarized by a skin lesion: Erythema Chronicum Migrans a slowly spreadking lesion with a bull's-eye appearence.
Leads to polyarticular arthritis as ell as cardiac and neurolgic changes. |
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Term
How is Lyme Disease diagnosed? |
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Definition
Presence of IgM antibodies to Borrelia burgdorgeri (spirochete that causes lyme dz) |
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Term
What type of arthritis is associted with systemic disorders (COPD, cyanotic heart dz, cirrhosis of the liver, inflammatory bowel disease) |
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Definition
Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
Chronic condition that often manifests as clubbinf of the fingers with associated periostitis at the distal end of the radius and ulna.
Can also have painful swelling and tenderness of the peripheral joints. |
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Term
What form of arthritis typically manifests with clubbinf of the fingers? |
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Definition
Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy |
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Term
What causes a ganglion cyst? |
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Definition
Myxoid degeneration fo CT which causes the formation of a small, cystic nodule in the tendon sheath or joint capsule of the wrist. |
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Term
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma of children wand what are the names of its varients? |
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Definition
Rhabdomyosarcoma
A malignant tumor of skeletal muscle
Variants include pleomorphic, embryona, and alveolar rhabdomyosarcomas. |
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Term
T/F Synovial sarcomas are typically mild in their disease course. |
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Definition
False
Synovial sarcomas are highly malignant soft tissue tumors that typically originate in the tissue adjacent to the joint cavity (rather than in the cavity itself).
Most often occurs in the lower extremities. |
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Term
What type of tumor is charactarized by a biphasic growth pattern in whci both epithelial and spindle cells are seen? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Benighn soft tissue tumor consisting of a mix of fibroblasts and histiocytes. |
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Term
What is the most common soft tissue tumor of middle and old age? |
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Definition
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (fibroblasts and histiocytes) |
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Term
What is the charactaristic finding of a fibrosarcoma? |
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Definition
This malignant soft tissue tumor of fibroblasts is charactarized by spindle-shaped cells demonstrating a herringbone pattern. |
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Term
What is the most common overall soft tissue tumor and what is the prognosis typically associated with this tumor? |
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Definition
Lipoma is the most common soft tissue tumor overall (all age groups, malignant or benign)
It is a benign tumor of mature adipose tissue.
Prognosis is good (as it is with the malignant counterpart: Liposarcoma) |
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