Term
How many pairs of wings do biting flies have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kind of skin reaction is caused by biting flies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What general type of parasite can be vectored by Aedes spp.? |
|
Definition
helminth parasites (ie. Dirofilaria immitis) |
|
|
Term
True or False, are biting flies only active during daylight? |
|
Definition
False (ie. mosquitoes are active at dusk) |
|
|
Term
What type of habitat is associated with the larvae of biting flies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What general type of parasite can be vectored by Anopheles spp.? |
|
Definition
protozoal parasites (ie. Plasmodium spp.) |
|
|
Term
What species of fly is a vector for Habronema spp. in horses? |
|
Definition
Musca domestica (housefly) |
|
|
Term
True or False, do muscid flies only occur indoors? |
|
Definition
False (ie. horn and facefly are pasture breeders) |
|
|
Term
stable, house, horn, and face flies all belong to which category of fly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species is a mechanical vector for Moraxella bovis (pinkeye)? |
|
Definition
Musca autumnalis (Facefly) |
|
|
Term
Where does Haemotobia irritans (hornfly) breed? |
|
Definition
in fresh cattle dung pats only |
|
|
Term
What type of mouthparts do Anoplura spp. have? |
|
Definition
piercing and sucking mouthparts |
|
|
Term
In what group of lice is the head narrower than the first thoracic segment? |
|
Definition
Anoplura spp. (sucking lice) |
|
|
Term
What are nits and how are they associated with the host? |
|
Definition
nits are lice eggs, they are glued to the hair shaft of the host |
|
|
Term
What type of treatment route(s) can be used to control Anoplura spp? |
|
Definition
systemic and topical insecticides |
|
|
Term
True or False, lice are very host specific |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
no, all members are wingless |
|
|
Term
What species of lice have broad rounded heads that are larger than the first thoracic segment? |
|
Definition
Mallophaga spp. (chewing lice) |
|
|
Term
What do Mallophaga spp. eat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of treatment route(s) can be used to control Mallophaga spp? |
|
Definition
topical insecticides only |
|
|
Term
What is the term for the clinical disease caused by lice infestation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What stage of the flea life-cycle can be controlled using drugs like lufenuron and diflubenzuron? |
|
Definition
Immature fleas in the envrionment, lufenuron and diflubenzuron are chitin inhibitors (ie. developmental inhibitors) |
|
|
Term
Do flea collars and ultrasonic devices provide good flea control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What stage of the flea life-cycle can be controlled using drugs like imidaclopramide and fipronil? |
|
Definition
These drugs are applied directly to the host animal to kill adult fleas, imidaclopramide (advantage) and fipronil (frontline) are both nerve poisons |
|
|
Term
What are the two components necessary for good flea control? |
|
Definition
1. Eliminate adult fleas from the host 2. Remove other life-cycle stages from the environment |
|
|
Term
Where in the environment can flea larvae and pupae exist that is protected from most insecticides? |
|
Definition
deep under the pile of carpet |
|
|
Term
Ctenocephalides felis can be a biological vector for what species of tapeworm? |
|
Definition
Dipylidium caninum (cucumber seed tapeworm) |
|
|
Term
If an animal has flea bite hypersensitivity, how many fleas are necessary to induce clinical manifestation?T |
|
Definition
Just 1 flea can induce the hypersensitivity reaction in susceptible individuals |
|
|
Term
True or False, adult fleas are laterally compressed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False, flea pupae may delay emergence in order to wait for a suitable host |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Can Sarcoptes spp. live off their host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of treatment route(s) can be used to control Sarcoptes spp? |
|
Definition
Topical and injectable acaricides |
|
|
Term
Can you diagnose sarcoptic mange with skin scrapings? |
|
Definition
yes (according to Dr. Moon....) |
|
|
Term
How many pairs of legs to adult Sarcoptes spp. mites have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of pedicles are present on Sarcoptes spp? |
|
Definition
long unsegmented pedicles |
|
|
Term
Where do female Sarcoptes spp. mites live? |
|
Definition
they burrow in the stratum corneum |
|
|
Term
Sarcoptes spp. cause important clinical disease in what two species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where to Knemidocoptes gallinae live? |
|
Definition
K. gallinae (depluming mite) burrow into the skin alongside feather shafts |
|
|
Term
What is the name of the sarcoptiform mite species that infest birds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species of Psoroptes mites has been eradicated from the US, and is reportable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where do Psoroptes spp. live on the host? |
|
Definition
mites live on the skin at the base of hairs, they do NOT burrow |
|
|
Term
Psoroptes cuniculi can cause otitis in what species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of pedicles are present on Psoroptes spp. mites? |
|
Definition
Long, segemented pedicles |
|
|
Term
What is the most useful morphological distinction used to identify Cheyletiella spp? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are Cheyletiella spp. host specific? |
|
Definition
No, zoonotic potential (ie. cat to human) |
|
|
Term
True or False, transmission of Demodex canis is well understood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are Demodex spp. host specific? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug can you use to treat Demodex infestations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What two morphological features are found only in ticks and not in mites? |
|
Definition
Haller's organ, and a toothed hypostome |
|
|
Term
What tick life-cycles stage(s) have a partial scutum? |
|
Definition
Larvae, nymphs, and adult females |
|
|
Term
Ticks serve as intermediate hosts for what general species of parasites? |
|
Definition
Protozoa (ie. Theileria spp. and Babesia spp.) |
|
|
Term
What tick life-cycle stages have 4 pairs of legs? |
|
Definition
adults and nymphs (larvae have 3 pairs) |
|
|
Term
What is the defining/diagnostic morphological feature of Ixodid ticks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what family of ticks is the capitulum visible from the dorsal aspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False, Ixodid ticks may have either short mouthparts (brevirostrata) or long mouthparts (longirostrata) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many larval and nymphal stages to Ixodid ticks have? |
|
Definition
a single larval stage, and a single nymphal stage |
|
|
Term
Most Ixodid ticks have a __ host life-cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ascending and symmetrical paralysis due to a neurotoxin the in the tick's saliva, reversible if the tick is removed |
|
|
Term
What species of Ixodid tick has a one host life-cycle? |
|
Definition
Dermacentor albipictus (Winter tick, DH: moose) |
|
|
Term
Ixodes scapularis is a vector for what disease? |
|
Definition
Lyme disease (Ixodes scapularis is the blacklegged tick) |
|
|
Term
What type of climate is required by Argasid ticks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common name and appearance of Argasid ticks? |
|
Definition
Soft ticks, appear leathery |
|
|
Term
What life-cycle stage of Otobius megnini feeds on the host? |
|
Definition
Otobius megnini (Spinose ear tick) feeds only as a nymph |
|
|
Term
How many nuclei are present in fully developed cysts of Entamoeba histolytica? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many nuclei are present in fully developed cysts of Entamoeba coli? |
|
Definition
8 nuclei, Entamoeba coli is a non-pathogenic comensal of primate GI |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Entamoeba invadens causes anorexia and bloody diarrhea in what species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of amoebic dysentery? |
|
Definition
Entamoeba histolytica (10-20% of human infections are asymptomatic) |
|
|
Term
Entamoeba histolytica can cause abscesses in what organs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the etiologic agent of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species of amoeba has a huge nuclear endosome that resembles a bull's eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What environment is associated with Naegleria fowleri? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the typical route of infection of Naegleria fowleri? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Trichomonas foetus causes venereal disease and early abortions in what species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is Trichomonas foetus maintained in bulls? |
|
Definition
In the preputial cavity, infection in bulls is usually asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
What are some morphological characteristics of Trichomonas foetus? |
|
Definition
three anterior flagella and an undulating membrane |
|
|
Term
What current management process has significantly decreased the prevalence of Trichomonas foetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Trichomonas gallinae is very common in what species of birds? |
|
Definition
Adult pigeons (raptors can be infected from preying upon infected pigeons) |
|
|
Term
Trichomonas gallinae is most pathogenic in birds of what age? |
|
Definition
young birds, spread via 'pigeons milk' from the crop |
|
|
Term
True or False, there are significant differences in virulence between strains of Trichomonas gallinae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Histomonas meleagridis infection can be asymptomatic in _____, but very pathogenic in _______ |
|
Definition
asymptomatic in chickens very pathogenic in turkeys |
|
|
Term
Histomonas meleagridis causes pathognomonic necrotic lesions in what organ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What parasite serves as the intermediate host for Histomonas meleagrids? |
|
Definition
Heterakis gallinarum (cecal worm) |
|
|
Term
How does Histomonas meleagridis reproduce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the best diagnostic method to identify Giardia cysts in the feces? |
|
Definition
Centrifugal flotation with zinc sulfide |
|
|
Term
Can Giardia trophozoites survive for long periods of time outside of the host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the typical characteristics of diarrhea caused by Giardia infection. |
|
Definition
Malodorous mucusy diarrhea with gas, (hematochezia is rare, ie. no blood) |
|
|
Term
Does interspecies transmission of Giardia occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three stages of the Coccidia life-cycle? |
|
Definition
shizogony/(merogony), gametogony, and sporogony |
|
|
Term
Are Coccidia spp. monoxenous (1 host)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many sporocysts are present in sporulated oocysts of Eimeria spp.? |
|
Definition
4 sporocysts, each containing 2 sporozoites |
|
|
Term
What is the primary diagnostic stage for Coccidian spp.? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many sprocysts are present in sporulated oocysts on Isospora spp.? |
|
Definition
2 sporocysts, each containing 4 sporozoites |
|
|
Term
What are the two most pathogenic species of bovine Coccidia? |
|
Definition
Eimeria bovis and Eimeria zuerni |
|
|
Term
How many generations of shizogony do Coccidia spp. undergo prior to gametogony? |
|
Definition
2 generations of shizogony |
|
|
Term
What is the only genus of Coccidia found in the dog? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do Coccidia spp. oocysts sporulate inside the host? |
|
Definition
No (unsporulated oocysts in FRESH feces) |
|
|
Term
Monensin, lasalocid, and sulfa drugs can all be used to treat what bovine parasite? |
|
Definition
Bovine Coccidia (e. bovis and e. zuerni) |
|
|
Term
Are there species of Coccidia that live as commensals within the host? |
|
Definition
No, all members are parasitic |
|
|
Term
Are Eimeria spp. host specific? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species of Coccidia affects horses, and is it common in MN? |
|
Definition
Eimeria leuckarti, uncommon in MN |
|
|
Term
What is the most pathogenic of chicken coccidia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Eimeria tenella is most pathogenic at what age, and where are the primary lesions? |
|
Definition
Most pathogenic in young birds (older birds develop immunity), primarily damages the cecum (due to enlargement of secondary shizonts) |
|
|
Term
How is Eimeria tenella transmitted? |
|
Definition
Through ingestions of sporulated oocysts (sporulation occurs OUTSIDE of host) |
|
|
Term
What is the most important determining factor of the severity of Eimeria tenella infection? |
|
Definition
The size of the infecting dose (ie. ingested, sporulated oocyts) |
|
|
Term
Are Cryptosporidium spp. host specific? |
|
Definition
No (ie. C. parvum infects all mammamls)
(caveat: birds are affected by DIFFERENT spp. of Crypto than mammals) |
|
|
Term
What is the best treatment for Cryptosporidium spp. infections? |
|
Definition
None, there is no treatment and infection is usually self limiting |
|
|
Term
What is the route of transmission for Cryptosporidium spp. infection? |
|
Definition
fecal oral, ingestion or aspiration of oocysts |
|
|
Term
How big are Cryptosporidium spp. oocysts? |
|
Definition
Very small, 3-5 microns in diameter |
|
|
Term
What are two professions at higher risk of contracting Cryptosporidium? |
|
Definition
Veterinarians and daycare workers |
|
|
Term
What is the major clinical sign of Cryptosporidium infection in calves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cryptosporidium spp. and Toxoplasma spp. cause most severe infections in in individuals with what primary deficiency? |
|
Definition
Immunocompromised individuals |
|
|
Term
Are herbavores the definitive host for Sarcocystis spp.? |
|
Definition
No, predators are the definitive host |
|
|
Term
True or False, Sarcocysts spp. have an obligatory two host life-cycle (heteroxenous) |
|
Definition
True DH: predators IH: herbavores (large shizonts in muscle tissue aka sarcocysts) |
|
|
Term
What is the etiologic agent of Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose Sarcocystis infection in the definitive host? |
|
Definition
individual sporulated sporocysts shed in feces (ie. NOT intact oocysts) |
|
|
Term
What is the definitive host for Toxoplasma spp.? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do cats shed Toxoplasma oocysts? |
|
Definition
1-2 weeks (vaccines and previous exposure prevent oocyst shedding) |
|
|
Term
Is congenital infections of Toxoplasma spp. possible? |
|
Definition
Yes, transplacental transmission of tachyzoites does occur |
|
|
Term
How many sporocysts are present in sporulated oocysts of Toxoplasma spp? |
|
Definition
2 sporocysts, each containing 4 sporozoites |
|
|
Term
Where can Toxoplasma cause disease in immunocompromised humans? |
|
Definition
CNS (human infection via ingestion of sporulated oocysts) |
|
|
Term
Where can Toxoplasma cause disease in immunocompromised humans? |
|
Definition
CNS (human infection via ingestion of sporulated oocysts) |
|
|
Term
What species is the definitive host for Neospora caninum and what clinical signs might infected individuals present? |
|
Definition
Dogs are the definitive host, infection can cause ascending hind limb paralysis |
|
|
Term
What is a consequence of Neospora caninum infection in cows? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can you differentiate tissue cysts caused by Neospora as compared to tissue cysts caused by Toxoplasma? |
|
Definition
The tissue cysts formed by Neospora have thicker walls than those formed by Toxoplasma (note: these species CANNOT be differentiated by the size of their sporulated oocysts) |
|
|
Term
Where do tissue cysts of Neospora caninum form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the vector and definitive host for Plasmodium spp? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes the paroxysms seen in humans infected with malaria? |
|
Definition
the synchronous release of merozoites and toxins from red blood cells |
|
|
Term
True or False, periodicity of paroxysms varies between different species of malaria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What region has the greatest risk of human malaria infection? |
|
Definition
tropics and sub-tropics (ie. no longer a cosmopolitan disease but still one of the most important human diseases on the planet today) |
|
|
Term
In what species does Plasmodium spp. undergo sporogony? |
|
Definition
Anopheles mosquito (ie. DH) |
|
|
Term
What is the vector for Leucocytozoan? |
|
Definition
Blackflies (ie. Simulium spp.) |
|
|
Term
Where are the gamonts of Leucocytozoon simondi (waterfowl, malaria) located? |
|
Definition
red and white blood cells |
|
|
Term
In what species and age is Leucocytozoon smithi most pathogenic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species act as vectors for Haemoproteus spp. (non-pathogenic, avian malaria)? |
|
Definition
Hippoboscid flies and Culicoides spp. (biting midges) |
|
|
Term
Where are the gamonts of Haemoproteus spp. located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What group of parasites do Babesia spp. belong to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Babesia spp. are highly pathogenic in most hosts, but the highest mortality is seen in hosts of what age? |
|
Definition
highest mortality in ADULTS |
|
|
Term
What type(s) of transmission of Babesia spp. are possible in the tick (DH)? |
|
Definition
stage-to-stage (ie. nymph --> larvae) as well as transovarian |
|
|
Term
What group of scientists discovered that Babesia bigemina (Texas cattle fever) was transmitted by the tick Boophilus annulatus? |
|
Definition
Smith, Kilborne, and Curtis |
|
|
Term
What are three clinical signs associated with Babesia spp. infection? |
|
Definition
severe anemia, edema, and icterus (due to hemolysis of red blood cells) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
immunity provided from continuous low grade infection |
|
|
Term
What is the vector and definitive host for Theileria parva? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type(s) of transmission of Theileria parva are possible in the tick (DH)? |
|
Definition
Stage-to-stage transmission (ie. NO transovarian for Theileria) |
|
|
Term
Balantidium coli is a commensal organism in what domestic species? |
|
Definition
Swine, pathogenic only secondary to other insults |
|
|
Term
Does Balantidium coli require an intermediate host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose Balantidium coli infection? |
|
Definition
large ciliate cysts float readily in any common fecal flotation solution |
|
|
Term
What is the free living infective stage of Ichthyophthirius multifilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What stage of Ichthyopthirius multifilis live in galleries within the epidermis, grossly appreciable as white spots? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Eimeria truncata is highly pathogenic in what species, and where? |
|
Definition
highly pathogenic in geese, located in the kidney |
|
|
Term
What species of Coccidia causes neonatal swine diarrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ascaris suum, Oesophagostomum dentatum, Isospora suis, Trichinella spiralis, Macracanthorynchus hirudinaceus are all found in what species, in what organ system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dictyocaulus arnfieldi is found in what species, in what organ system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Uncinaria stenocephala, Trichuris vulpis, Baylisascaris procyonis, Toxascaris leonina, Dipetalonema reconditum have what common definitive host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tetrameres spp., Ascaridia galii, Heterakis gallinarum are adult nematodes found only in what species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a common morphological feature of these helminths: Chambertia ovina, Strongylus edentatus, Ancylostoma caninum |
|
Definition
all have a large buccal cavity |
|
|
Term
Where are the hypobiotic larvae of Ostertagia ostertagi located? |
|
Definition
within the gastric glands of the abomasal mucosa |
|
|
Term
Hypobiosis occurs during what time of year in the Northern US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What histological lesion may be caused by ruminant parasites? |
|
Definition
blunting of intestinal vili |
|
|
Term
What killed the young child in the "Last Autopsy"? |
|
Definition
aberrant migration of ascaris suum/ascaris lumbricoides larvae contaminated with GI bacteria to the brain |
|
|
Term
What parasite caused illness in humans in "Night on Bear Mountain"? |
|
Definition
Trichinella spiralis (from eating undercooked PORK) |
|
|
Term
Martina Navratilova falls ill due to what parasite in "Steak Tartare Defense"? |
|
Definition
Toxoplasma gondi (in undercooked BEEF) |
|
|
Term
Describe the morphological characteristics of Sheep keds (Hippoboscid flies) |
|
Definition
dorsoventrally flattened wingless flies with sucking mouthparts |
|
|
Term
Clorsulon and Albendazole are used to control what type of parasite in sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What compounds can be used to remove hypobiotic cattle nematodes? |
|
Definition
Ivermectin and albendazole |
|
|
Term
What compounds can be used to remove roundworms in dogs? |
|
Definition
Fenbendazole and febantel |
|
|
Term
What compounds are useful against tapeworms in dogs? |
|
Definition
Epsiprantel and fenbendazole |
|
|
Term
Helminth parasites elicit what type of T-Cell response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fenbendazole is an example of what duration anthelminthic drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are tracer calves used for? |
|
Definition
tracer calves are used to monitor pasture parasite burdens |
|
|