Term
Shamanism is one of the oldest healing traditions in the world.
a. True
b. False |
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Definition
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Term
Who is known as the father of modern medicine? a. Hippocrates
b. Irj
c. Galen
d. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
X-ray was discovered in _______.
a. 1916
b. 1856
c. 1968
d. 1896 |
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Definition
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Term
The AHA (American Hospital Association) has established the ________________to outline entitlement of medical facility to all patients.
a. “Right to Bill Patient’s’”
b. “Bill the Right Patient’s ”
c. “Bill of Patient’s Rights”
d. “Bill for Patient’s Rights” |
|
Definition
c. “Bill of Patient’s Rights” |
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Term
The term OSHA stands for _______. a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration b. Occupational Health and Safety Administration c. Occupational Administration and Safety Health d. Safety Administration and Occupational Health |
|
Definition
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration |
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Term
Shielding the patient from unnecessary exposure to ionizing radiation is the responsibility of the technologist and is a basic tenet of the practice of Radiological Science and it follows ALARA (i.e., as low as reasonably achievable). a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
The International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision, and Clinical Modification code classifies _______. a. Release of diagnostic information without written permission b. Coding systems c. Morbidity data from the inpatient and outpatient records d. Legal action concepts at work |
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Definition
c. Morbidity data from the inpatient and outpatient records |
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Term
Which coding system gives us a statistical classification that arranges diseases and injuries into code categories according to established criteria? a. CPT codes b. DRG codes c. RUC codes d. ICD-9 codes |
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Definition
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Term
Which coding system is used to describe treatment services rendered by a hospital, clinic or physician’s office to a patient? a. ICD-9 codes b. CPT codes c. DRG codes d. RUC codes |
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Definition
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Term
DRG is a patient classification system that describes the case mix of a hospital. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
Vital statistics typically use the ____ coding. a. ICD-9 b. CPT c. DRG’s d. RUC |
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Definition
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Term
The medical term used to denote Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation is _______. a. CHF b. CPR c. AED d. CR |
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Definition
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Term
The term LLQ denotes _______. a. Lower back pain b. Left lower quadrant c. Left upper quadrant d. Lumbar puncture |
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Definition
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Term
PH is the term used for _______. a. Hydrogen Ion concentration b. Post Lateral indication c. -phasia d. -phobia |
|
Definition
a. Hydrogen Ion concentration |
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Term
The medical term used for Genito Urinary is _______. a. GI b. GB c. GU d. Abd |
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Definition
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Term
The term that denotes lower back pain is denoted by LBP. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
The medical term used for Post oral is _______. a. Post b. OP c. PO d. OR |
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Definition
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Term
The term used for shortness of breath is _______. a. SOB b. OSB c. BOS d. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Tem Wheelchair is denoted by _______. a. WOC b. WC c. COW d. WBC |
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Definition
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Term
Aden is the term used for_______. a. Vessel b. Pain or swelling c. Joint d. Gland |
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Definition
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|
Term
STAT is the term used for urgent/at once. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
The medical term used for involuntary contraction is a. Scop b. Burso c. Spasm d. Lysis |
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Definition
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Term
WBC stands for white blood cell. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
The medical term used for Kidney is _______. a. nephr b. osis c. gastr d. entero |
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Definition
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Term
The term –plegia denotes _______. a. Swelling b. Dilation c. Stroke d. Prolapse |
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Definition
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Term
The term –megaly denotes _______. a. Swelling b. Dilation c. Enlargement d. Prolapse |
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Definition
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Term
The suffix which is used to designate examination is _______. a. -scopy b. -scope c. -graphy d. -gram |
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Definition
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Term
The suffix -graphy is used to describe diagnostic testing and stands for _______. a. Instrument of viewing b. Recording of data c. Act of recording data d. Instrument of recording |
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Definition
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Term
The suffix -meter is used to describe diagnostic testing and stands for _______. a. Instrument of measuring b. Recording of data c. Act of recording data d. Instrument of recording |
|
Definition
a. Instrument of measuring |
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Term
The suffix -ectomy is used to describe a surgical procedure and stands for _______. a. Incision b. Suture c. Stabilization d. Removal |
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Definition
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Term
The suffix -rrhapy is used to describe a surgical procedure and stands for _______. a. Incision b. Suture c. Stabilization d. Removal |
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Definition
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Term
The suffix -desis is used to describe a surgical procedure and stands for _______. a. Incision b. Suture c. Stabilization d. Removal |
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Definition
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Term
The smaller version of the root is indicated by -ole in the word arteriole. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
The suffix -tomy is a surgical procedure used to describe _______. a. Fixation b. Puncture c. Incision d. Removal |
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Definition
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Term
The medical prefix used for stomach is _______. a. osteo b. vaso c. derma d. gastro- |
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Definition
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Term
The medical prefix used for muscles is _______. a. myo b. vaso c. derma d. gastro- |
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Definition
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Term
The medical suffix used for hernia is _______. a. -cele b. -dynia c. -oid d. -itis |
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Definition
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Term
The medical prefix used for skull is _______. a. myo b. vaso c. cranio d. gastro |
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Definition
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Term
The medical prefix used for vasoconstrictor is denoted by vaso. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
The medical prefix used for myocardial is denoted by cardio. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
The medical term used to indicate a person afflicted with a certain disease or condition is denoted by ____. (noun ending) a. -iac b. -ia c. -ist d. -ism |
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Definition
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Term
Calvarium is made up of which eight bones that join to form the cranial vault?
a. 2 frontal bones, parietal bone, 2 temporal bones, occipital bone, ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone
b. Frontal bone, 2 parietal bones, temporal bone, 2 occipital bones, ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone
c. Frontal bone, 2 parietal bones, 2 temporal bones, occipital bone, ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone
d. Frontal bone, parietal bone, temporal bone, occipital bone, 2 ethmoid bones and 2 sphenoid bones |
|
Definition
c. Frontal bone, 2 parietal bones, 2 temporal bones, occipital bone, ethmoid bone and sphenoid bone |
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Term
Fontanelles is also known as _______.
a. Soft spot
b. Bright spot
c. Hard spot
d. None of the above |
|
Definition
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Term
The brain is surrounded by the ______________fluid, that cushions the brain and also fills the internal structures.
a. Cardiovascular fluid
b. Sphenoid fluid
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. Pleural fluid |
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Definition
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Term
The two halves of the brain are connected through a thick fibrous band called _______.
a. Ventricles
b. Longitudinal fissure
c. Choroid plexus
d. Corpus callosum |
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Definition
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Term
The occipital lobes, at the back of the brain, house the visual cortex.
a. True
b. False |
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Definition
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Term
The true vertebral spines include all of the following except: a. Thoracic spine b. Sacral spine c. Cervical spine d. Lumbar spine |
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Definition
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Term
The viral infection of the spinal cord’s motor in the cell bodies in the anterior horn of the spinal cord is known as _______. a. Meningitis b. Poliomyelitis c. Alzheimer disease d. Myelities |
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Definition
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Term
The first bone of the spine is known as atlas. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
The pharynx is divided into three sections Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, and Laryngopharynx. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
What refers to the center area of the chest between the lungs? a. Thoracic b. Pneumonic c. Mediastinal d. Bronchial |
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Definition
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Term
______ is an infection that causes an irritation on the surface between the layers of the pleura. a. Pleurisy b. Emphysema c. Asthma d. Pneumothorax |
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Definition
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Term
Cerebellum is the part of cerebrum. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
Saliva helps to moistens the food and helps in mixing it into the mass called bolus. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
What is the upper most portion of the stomach called, which continues with the body of the stomach? a. Duodenum b. Pyloric canal c. Cardia d. Fundus |
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Definition
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Term
At the base of the liver, the ascending colon takes the turn to the left which is known as the ________. a. Hepatic flexure b. Sigmoid colon c. Cecum d. Splenic flexure |
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Definition
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Term
Which region of skeleton is not directly attached to the nervous system, but includes the upper and lower extremities. a. Appendicular b. Axial |
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Definition
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Term
The first five pairs of the ribs are called _____________, these ribs are attached directly to the sternum via costal cartilage. a. False rib b. Floating ribs c. True ribs d. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
The lower extremity of the body is made up of 32 bones on each side. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
Most of the body joints are made up of ___________joints. a. Synovial b. Cartilaginous c. Fibrous d. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following are non-fibrous type of joints? a. Sutures b. Syndesmoses c. Synchondroses d. Symphyses |
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Definition
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Term
The upper extremities of the body comprise of the following: a. Scapula, Humerus, Elbow, Forearm, Wrist and Hand b. Pelvis, Hip joint, Femur, Patella, Lower leg and foot c. Pelvis, Hip joint, Femur, Humerus and Elbow d. Scapula, Forearm, Wrist, Patella, Hand, Lower leg and foot |
|
Definition
a. Scapula, Humerus, Elbow, Forearm, Wrist and Hand |
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Term
The Lower extremities of the body comprise of the following: a. Scapula, Humerus, Elbow, Forearm, Wrist and Hand b. Pelvis, Hip joint, Femur, Patella, Humerus and Elbow c. Scapula, Forearm, Wrist, Hand, Lower Leg and Foot d. Pelvis, Hip Joint, Femur, Patella, Lower Leg and Foot |
|
Definition
d. Pelvis, Hip Joint, Femur, Patella, Lower Leg and Foot |
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Term
The __________ transports the oxygenated blood to rest of the tissues in the body. a. Systemic circulation b. Pulmonary circulation c. Peripheral circulation d. Endovascular circulation |
|
Definition
c. Peripheral circulation |
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Term
Which circulation has the task of pumping the blood through the lungs for gas exchange (i.e., the replenishment of oxygen and the removal of carbon dioxide)? a. Systemic circulation b. Pulmonary circulation c. Peripheral circulation d. Endovascular circulation |
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Definition
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Term
Which artery passes along the anterior portion of the thigh, supplying blood to the larger muscles of the thigh through its many smaller branches? (Hint: The external iliac enters the thigh and becomes _______.) a. Femoral artery b. Popliteal artery c. Internal iliac d. External iliac |
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Definition
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Term
The vascular pathology which deals with the inflammation of the veins, usually found in the leg region is known as _______. a. Varicosities b. Atherosclerosis c. Phlebitis d. Aneurysms |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which medullary hormone deals with the increase in heart rate and force of cardiac contraction? a. Norepinephrine b. Epinephrine |
|
Definition
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Term
Undersecretion of______, causes gonadal inactivity in males and menstrual failure in females. a. ADH b. TSH c. FSH d. ACTH |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Undersecretion of _____, leads to hypothyroid symptoms. a. FSH b. ADH c. TSH d. ACTH |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Undersecretion of ______, leads to adrenal cortical insufficiency. a. FSH b. ADH c. TSH d. ACTH |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Image plate is the term used in _______. a. CR b. DR c. MR d. NM |
|
Definition
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Term
DR consists of the acquisition medium and the digitizer . a. True b. False |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The fluoroscopy unit consists of _______. a. Image intensifier b. X-ray tube c. Pulse generator d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
The procedures that deal with the examination of blood vessels with contrast injection is known as _______. a. Angiography b. Digital subtraction angiography c. Vascular study d. Cardiograph |
|
Definition
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Term
The effect that is based on the properties of certain types of crystals, which emit high frequency sound waves when electricity is applied to them, is called as a. Electromagnetic effect b. Echo effect c. Piezoelectric effect d. Doppler Effect |
|
Definition
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Term
Which modality uses the principle of producing images of the patient using radioactive decay? a. Nuclear medicine b. MRI c. Ultrasound d. CT |
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Definition
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Term
The imaging modality used for detection of breast cancer a. Nuclear medicine b. MRI c. Mammography d. Ultrasound |
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Definition
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Term
Which generation of CT deals with several rows of detector lining the inside of the gantry and wider X-rays beams that allow for multiple slices obtained in a single pass of the tube around the gantry? a. Spiral CT b. Single slices CT c. Multislices CT d. Helical CT |
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Definition
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Term
The part of the primary beam that is not transmitted through the patient to the image plate or to the detector is known as _______. a. Absorption b. Contrast sensitivity c. Attenuation d. Penetration |
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Definition
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Term
The ___________is a major characteristic that determines what tissues and body structure are visible in radiography a. Absorption b. Contrast sensitivity c. Attenuation d. Penetration |
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Definition
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Term
Thicker tissue will absorb more radiation. a. True b. False |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Thinner the body parts higher the subject contrast. a. False b. True |
|
Definition
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Term
Which procedure involves collection of data according to monitored activity, making of a plan based on gathered data and finally implementing the procedure to meet customer needs? a. QA procedure b. QC procedure c. Calibration procedure d. Both a and b |
|
Definition
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Term
The procedure which is an active ongoing process that ensures that certain products that are being consumed are of high quality, and that they meet the needs of customers is known as _______. a. QA procedure b. QC procedure c. Calibration procedure d. Both a and b |
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Definition
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Term
The plane that divides the body into right and left halves is known as _______. a. Sagittal plane b. Coronal plane c. Transverse plane |
|
Definition
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Term
Which plane divides the body into upper and lower halves? a. Sagittal plane b. Coronal plane c. Transverse plane |
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Definition
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Term
The projection that is produced with the patient in the lateral recumbent position, with the X-ray beam positioned horizontally entering the front or the back of the patient and the image plate opposite the beam is known as _______. a. Lateral position b. Lateral Decubitus position c. Transverse position d. Supine position |
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Definition
b. Lateral Decubitus position |
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Term
Pneumo- is the prefix that indicates presence of a. Air b. Water c. Plasma d. Pressure |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The suffix -oma indicates presence of _______. a. A condition of a body part b. Inflammation or infection of a part of the body c. Tumor of a body part d. Fluid filled structure or sac |
|
Definition
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Term
Supine refers to the position _______. a. On your left side b. On the right side c. On the back d. On the face |
|
Definition
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Term
Claustrophobia is fear of _______. a. Heights b. Being in the open c. Being enclosed d. Elevators |
|
Definition
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Term
Functional imaging measures _______. a. Whether a person can breath enough b. Blood pressure c. Degree of digestion d. Intake of pharmaceuticals indicating activity |
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Definition
d. Intake of pharmaceuticals indicating activity |
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Term
Contrast allergy is important to know for a radiology exam because a person _______. a. Could have a severe allergic reaction b. Might get a cold c. Could become blind d. Could become handicapped |
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Definition
a. Could have a severe allergic reaction |
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Term
A grid in the context of radiology is a _______. a. Metal stepladder to get on the X-ray table b. Grid used to let fluids go through c. Set of blocks in the X-ray beam d. Metal device to reduce scatter |
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Definition
d. Metal device to reduce scatter |
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Term
A collimator is a device that _______. a. Directs the X-ray beam to expose only the applicable body part b. Similar to a collar but for radiology purposes c. A replacement for a radiology grid d. The same as a shutter |
|
Definition
a. Directs the X-ray beam to expose only the applicable body part |
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Term
The Patient Registration in radiology process flow deals with _______. a. Patient demographic b. Insurance information c. Verification at the IS terminal d. New requested procedure schedule |
|
Definition
a. Patient demographic b. Insurance information |
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Term
The Verify Order in radiology process flow deals with _______. a. Patient demographic b. Insurance information c. Verification at the IS terminal d. New requested procedure schedule |
|
Definition
c. Verification at the IS terminal |
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Term
The Modality Worklist in radiology process flow deals with _______. a. Patient demographic b. Insurance information c. Verification at the IS terminal d. Query the department scheduler |
|
Definition
d. Query the department scheduler |
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Term
The New Requested Procedure Schedule in radiology process flow deals with _______. a. Patient demographic b. Insurance information c. Verification at the IS terminal d. Procedure code |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In which radiological process does the technologist perform the quality control on the image? a. Performed procedure step complete b. Modality worklist c. Patient registration d. Verify order |
|
Definition
a. Performed procedure step complete |
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Term
The workflow manager communicates with the workstation by providing a worklist for the radiologist. a. True b. False |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which process typically performs the function of a database a. Image manager b. Workflow manager c. Database manger d. Process manager |
|
Definition
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Term
The reporting in which a radiologist might dictate a whole batch of exams and than correct them as a batch, which can obviously only be done if there are no urgent cases in the queue, is known as a. Immediate reporting b. Batch reporting c. Transcriptionist reporting d. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
A ____________report is performed based on preliminary diagnosis and later by generating the final report. a. Trauma b. Prelim c. Remote support reporting d. After-hour support |
|
Definition
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Term
Trauma case reporting is carried out during the critical condition of the patient, which requires performing the radiology procedure immediately. a. True b. False |
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Definition
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Term
If the information of data is not possible to retrieve from either PACS or RIS previous records, then the only solution is to _____________, which then provides a worklist entry that can be used to match the images, or you can enter the information in the digitizer workstation by hand. a. Query PACS database b. Query RIS c. Reschedule a dummy exam d. None of the above |
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Definition
c. Reschedule a dummy exam |
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Term
Images imported from CD’s are typically modified prior to them being available on the PACS system. a. True b. False |
|
Definition
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|
Term
CD’s with patient images of previous exams would typically be encoded as _______. a. JPEG images b. AVI files c. ACR-NEMA files d. DICOM |
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Definition
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Term
Dummy exams are typically scheduled for digitizing films because _______. a. Every exam needs to be scheduled b. To be able to pull down a worklist at the digitizer c. Digitizing films require the file room to know about it d. They need to show up at the CR modality |
|
Definition
b. To be able to pull down a worklist at the digitizer |
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Term
If a patient ID identifying images on a CD is already present within the hospital where the images are to be imported _______. a. That is OK because the images will just be added to that patient folder b. That is not OK because the ID needs to be verified c. That is not OK because the patient could very well be a different person d. That is OK because it eliminates dual entry |
|
Definition
c. That is not OK because the patient could very well be a different person |
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Term
The ______________tissues are those cells that have a high division and a metabolic rate, are non - specialized and are well nourished in the body. e.g. germinal cell, epithelium cell ,blood forming cells ,etc a. Radioresisteance b. Radiosensitive c. Radiolucent d. None of the above |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which tissues having low metabolic rate, are not highly vascular, and do not divide are know as. (e.g. bone tissue ) a. Radioresisteance b. Radiosensitive c. Radiolucent d. None of the above |
|
Definition
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Term
The radiofrequency, microwave and infrared are particularly found at the right hand side of the visible spectrum, having low frequency and long wavelength. a. True b. False |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which rays are found at the right hand side of the visible spectrum, having high frequency and short wavelength? a. Ultraviolet, x-ray and gamma ray b. Radiofrequency, microwave and infrared c. Ultraviolet, microwave and gamma ray d. Radiofrequency, gamma ray and infrared |
|
Definition
a. Ultraviolet, x-ray and gamma ray |
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Term
ALARA stands for – a. As Low As Reasonably Acquired b. As Low As Required Achievable c. As Low As Reasonably Achievable d. As Low As Radiation Achievable |
|
Definition
c. As Low As Reasonably Achievable |
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Term
Short contrast is also known as high contrast i.e. greater difference between similar densities. e.g. the density of water, fluid, air a. True b. False |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Long contrasts are also called as ______________ i.e. less difference between similar densities. e.g. densities of metallic implants, calcium deposits a. Low contrast b. High Contrast c. Medium contrast d. None of the above |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Radiation intensity is directly proportional to the square root of the distance a. True b. False |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Three cardinal rules of radiation protection are a. Direct square law, decreasing the amount of time spent in the vicinity of the source and shielding b. Inverse square law, decreasing the amount of time spent in the vicinity of the source and shielding c. Inverse square law, increasing the amount of time spent in the vicinity of the source and shielding d. Inverse cube root law, decreasing the amount of time spent in the vicinity of the source and shielding |
|
Definition
b. Inverse square law, decreasing the amount of time spent in the vicinity of the source and shielding |
|
|
Term
Less intense beam (higher Kvp), means lesser penetrability, more absorption and high radiation dose a. True b. False |
|
Definition
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