Term
Cell Cycle Nonspecific classes |
|
Definition
Alkylating agents (chlorambucil, cyclophosphamide, busulfan, ifosfamide, meclorethamine, melphalan, thiotepa)
Antracycline Antibiotics (doxorubicin [Adriamycin], daunorubicin, idarubicin)
Other Antibiotics (dactinomycin, mitomycin, mitoxantrone)
Nitrosureas (carmustine, lomustine, streptozocin)
Miscellaneous Alkylator-like agents (altretamine, carboplatin, cisplatin, dacarbazine, procarbazine) |
|
|
Term
Cell Cycle Specific agents |
|
Definition
Antimetabolites (methotrexate, 5-FU, floxuridine, thioguanine, 6-MP, cytarabine, fludarabine, cladribine, pentostatin, gemcitabmine) - S phase
Bleomycin, Etoposide, Teniposide - G2 phase
steroids, asparaginase - G1 phase |
|
|
Term
Major side effects of alkylating agents (ex: meclorethamine, cyclophosphamide [Cytoxan], melphalan, chlorambucil, Nitrosureas, etc) |
|
Definition
hematopoeitic toxicity
GI tox
Gonadal tox
Carcinogenesis |
|
|
Term
Monofunctional alkylating agents |
|
Definition
dacarbazine
procarbazine
temozolomide |
|
|
Term
Pyrimidine antimetabolites end in what suffix?
Purine antimetabolites end in what suffix?
What phase of the cell cycle do antimetabolites work in? |
|
Definition
pyrimidines end in "-abine"
(ex: cytarabine [Ara-C], capecitabine [Xeloda], gemcitabine [Gemzar], fludarabine [Fludara], and 5-FU is the exception)
purines end in "-purine"
(ex: 6-mercaptopurine, 6-thioguanine is an exception)
Antimetabolites work in the S phase of the cell cycle |
|
|
Term
Name the toxicities of Cisplatin vs Carboplatin vs Oxaliplatin |
|
Definition
Cisplatin - Nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, ototoxicity, N/V
Carboplatin - Myelosuppression, N/V
Oxaliplatin - Neurotoxicity, N/V |
|
|
Term
T or F: 90% of platinum agent cytotoxicity results from intrastrand crosslinks |
|
Definition
True (only 10% of the crosslinks are intERstrand) |
|
|
Term
What kind of solution does cisplatin normally come in and why? |
|
Definition
Always comes in a saline solution to keep the Cl- groups attached (because once these groups leave the agent is active) |
|
|
Term
The formation of platinum agent crosslinks are normally on the same strand. Is this usually...
A. G-G
B. G-C
C. A-T
D. A-A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For the microtubule targeting drugs match the drugs to the correct mechanism of action:
A. Vinca Alkaloids stabilize the microtubule structure by inhibiting depolymerization
B. Taxanes trigger depolymerization which disables the microtubules
C. Vinca Alkaloids trigger depolymerization which disables the microtubules
D. Taxanes stabilize the the microtubule structure by inhibiting depolymerization
E. Both A and B are correct
F. Both C and D are correct |
|
Definition
F. Both C and D are correct |
|
|
Term
What class of drugs are FATAL if given intrathecally? |
|
Definition
vinca alkaloids (vincristine [Oncovin], vinblastine [Velban], venorelbine [Navelbine], vindesine [Eldisine]) |
|
|
Term
True or False: If giving paclitaxel (Taxol) with other drugs, give Taxol last |
|
Definition
False. Give Taxol FIRST!!! |
|
|
Term
Is premedication necessary with the taxanes? |
|
Definition
Yes.
Give dexamethasone 20mg PO 12 and 6 hrs prior, benadryl and antiemetic with paclitaxel (Taxol)
Give dexamethasone 8mg PO BID 1 day before and 4 days after a dose of docetaxel (Taxotere) |
|
|
Term
What are considered the cancers with solid tumors? |
|
Definition
Breast cancer
Colorectal cancer
Prostate cancer
Lung cancer
Renal cancer |
|
|
Term
What are considered the cancers with liquid tumors? |
|
Definition
Lymphomas
Acute Myeloid Leukemia
Chronic Leukemia
Multiple Myeloma |
|
|
Term
What agents are topoisomerase II inhibitors?
(Hint: there are only 2) |
|
Definition
Etoposide (VePesid)
Teniposide (Vumon) |
|
|
Term
What are the topoisomerase I inhibitors? |
|
Definition
Camptothecin
Topotecan
Irinotecan (Camptosar) |
|
|
Term
What kind of supercoils do topoisomerase inhibitors remove from the strand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What agent can be used to prevent cardiac toxicity or treat extravasation with the Anthracyclines?
(ie with doxorubicin [Adriamycin], daunorubicin, etc) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a rescue agent for Methotrexate? |
|
Definition
Leucovorin!!!
MTX followed by leucovorin preferentially kills the cancer cell. It allows dose of MTX 10-100x that of the conventional dose |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Causes "dead end complex" by inhibiting thymidylate synthase, thus inhibiting formation of dUMP |
|
|
Term
What drug interacts with 6-mercaptopurine? |
|
Definition
Allopurinol!!! (Causes enhanced hematologic toxicity; if forced to use them both together, must reduce the 6-MP dose by 75%) |
|
|
Term
What genes are considered anti-apoptotic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What genes are considered pro-apoptotic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the tumor suppressor genes? |
|
Definition
p53 (Guardian of the genome baby)
Rb
BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ras (signal transducer, part of MAP-k pathway)
C-myc (transcription factor)
BCR- ABL (enhances tyrosine kinase activity)
|
|
|
Term
What kind of cancer is a sarcoma? |
|
Definition
Cancer of the connective tissue (bone, cartilage, fat) |
|
|
Term
How many doublings does it take for a cancer to be clinically detectable? |
|
Definition
30 doublings (this produces 1 x 10^9 cells, or 1 gram) |
|
|
Term
What are the advantages and disadvantages of cell cycle specific drugs? |
|
Definition
advantages- Specificity for cells in single phase of cell cycle; complete inhibition of enzymes at subclinical/clinical doses; plateau in cell survival with increasing drug dose; minimal risk of leukomogenesis or carcinogenesis
disadvantages - fewer target sites; little or no effect on slow growing/stem cells |
|
|
Term
What are the monofunctional agents? |
|
Definition
They all have a Z in the name:
dacarbaZine, procarbaZine, temoZolomide |
|
|
Term
What drug can cause pulmonary fibrosis after long term use? |
|
Definition
Chlorambucil (this is an alkylating agent) |
|
|
Term
Where do postmenopausal women get most of their estrogen from?
What impact does this have on therapy? |
|
Definition
most comes from the adrenal gland (androstenedione is converted by aromatase to estrone --> estradiol)
We can use aromatase inhibitors for them
(Anastrozole [Arimidex], Letrozole [Femara], Exemestane [Aromasin])
Use these drugs after progression following Tamoxifen therapy |
|
|
Term
What is fulvestrant (Faslodex)? |
|
Definition
This is a SERM (pure antiestrogen)
It is used in POST menopausal women with disease progression following antiestrogen therapy |
|
|
Term
Where does most of the estrogen come from in PRE-menopausal women?
What does this mean for treatment? |
|
Definition
Most comes from the ovaries.
Can do an ovariectomy + SERM (tamoxifen and toremifene)
Could also use LHRH agonists:
(Leuprolide [Lupron], Goserlin [Zoladex], Triptorelin [Trelstar]) |
|
|
Term
Name the 3 small molecule inhibitors
that target BCR-ABL |
|
Definition
Imatinib (Gleevec)
Dasatinib
Nilotinib |
|
|
Term
Name the 3 small molecule inhibitors
that target EGFR and HER2 |
|
Definition
Erlotinib
Lapatinib
Gefitinib |
|
|
Term
Name the small molecule inhibitors that target Multi-TK (tyrosine kinases) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is the BCR-ABL gene formed? |
|
Definition
When part of chromosome 9 is translocated to chromosome 22 and forms a new chromosome called the Philadelphia chromosome. BCR-ABL is an oncoprotein |
|
|
Term
What are the important things to know about Imatinib (Gleevec)? |
|
Definition
It is a 1st generation BCR-ABL inhibitor
It is a 3A4 inducer
Indications: CML and GIST (the Kit+ kind)
Adverse effects: fluid retention and edema
Interacts with anything 3A4 |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Dasatinib? |
|
Definition
It is a 2nd generation BCR-ABL inhibitor
Adverse effects: QT prolongation and sudden death |
|
|
Term
HER-1 is also called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Erlotinib? |
|
Definition
It is a HER-1 (EGFR) inhibitor
Only used in 2 cancers: NSCLC and metastatic pancreatic cancer
(Treat pancreatic cancer 1st with Gemcitabine, but if that does not work, then try Erlotinib)
Adverse effects : GI bleeding or perforations |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Lapatinib? |
|
Definition
This targets HER-2
It is used in combo with capecitabine for breast cancer
Adverse effects: Cardiac tox (QT prolongation) |
|
|
Term
True or False: Sunitinib and Sorafenib work on the VEGF receptor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Sunitinib? |
|
Definition
Adverse effects: HTN and bleeding **** |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Sorafenib? |
|
Definition
It is used for hepatocellular carcinoma and advanced renal cell carcinoma
Adverse effects: bleeding!! |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Interferon alpha? |
|
Definition
It is a direct inhibitor of cancer cell proliferation
It enhances the cytotoxicity of T cell activity against cancer cells
It causes tumor cell cytostasis and apoptosis by interfering with the cell cycle regulation
Indications: AIDS related Kaposi sarcoma, Malignant melonoma
May potentiate risk of renal failure
in combo with IL-2
Adverse effects: DEPRESSION
Do not use INF-alpha when someone has AUTOIMMUNE hepatitis |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about IL-2? |
|
Definition
It is metabolized by the kidneys
Indications: METASTATIC renal cell carcinoma, and metastatic melonoma
Glucocorticoids reduce antitumor effectiveness of IL-2
Adverse effects: HYPOTENSION, Capillary Leak Syndrome |
|
|
Term
Drugs that treat renal cell carcinoma: |
|
Definition
IFN-alpha, IL-2, Sunitinib, Sorafenib |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sunitinib, Imatinib (Gleevec) |
|
|
Term
Drugs that treat hepatocellular carcinoma: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match these drugs the their targets:
Alemtuzumab EGFR
Gemtuzumab CD20
Trastuzumab HER-2
Cetuximab CD52
Bevacizumab VEGF
Rituximab CD33 and calicheamicin |
|
Definition
Alemtuzumab - CD52
Gemtuzumab - CD33 and calicheamicin
Trastuzumab - HER-2
Cetuximab - EGFR (EGF receptor)
Bevacizumab - VEGF
Rituximab - CD20 |
|
|
Term
There is a mnemonic for knowing what monocloncal antibodies are murine, chimeric and humanized. What is it? |
|
Definition
those ending in:
"-Momab" are Murine
"-iximab" are chimeric
"-Zumab" are humaniZed |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Trastuzumab (Herceptin)? |
|
Definition
It is a humaniZed monoclonal antibody (ends in "-Zumab")
It is specific for HER-2
Indication: adjuvant breast cancer and metastatic breast cancer (with paclitaxel)
MOA: uses ADCC (antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity)
Adverse reactions: cardiomyopathy, infusion reactions |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Cetuximab? |
|
Definition
It is a chimeric monoclonal antibody (ends in "-ximab"
It is specific for EGFR (HER-1)
Indication: Head and neck cancer; colorectal cancer w/o kRAS mutation (combined with Irinotecan)
MOA- direct induction of cell apoptosis
Adverse reactions: Cardiopulmonary Arrest and Sudden DEATH |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Panitumumab? |
|
Definition
It is a FULLY HUMAN monoclonal antibody
It is specific for EGFR (HER-1)
|
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Bevacizumab? |
|
Definition
It is specific for VEGF (not the receptor!!!!)
It is indication for metastatic colorectal cancer, non-squamous NSCLC, metastatic breast cancer, glioglastoma, and metastatic renal cell carcinoma
Adverse reactions: GI perforation; wound healing complications; hemorrhage
** Do not administer as IV push or bolus bc it would cause infusion reactions |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Rituximab? |
|
Definition
It is specific for CD20 (on B cells)
It is chimeric (ends in "-ximab")
Indicated for Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
needs premedication prior to dose
Adverse reactions: Tumor Lysis Syndrome, Infusion reactions
MOA- complement dependent cytotoxicity |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Alemtuzumab? |
|
Definition
It is specific for CD52
Indicated for B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B-CLL)
Adverse reactions: infusion reactions |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about Gemtuzumab? |
|
Definition
It is specific for CD33 (conjugated with cytotoxic chemo agent class Calicheamicins, found in WACO, TEXAS)
Indicated for Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) when first relapse >60 yrs old
Adverse reactions: Myelosupression (>99%), thrombocytopenia (>90%)
Premedicate with acetaminophen and diphenhydramine |
|
|
Term
What does CRAB stand for and what disease is associated with it? |
|
Definition
Associated with Multiple Myeloma (MM)
C - hyperCalcemia
R - Renal failure
A - Anemia
B - Bone metastasis |
|
|
Term
What are the older regimens for Multiple Myeloma? |
|
Definition
MP - melphalan/prednisone
VAD - vincristine/Adriamycin (doxorubicin)/ dexa.
TD - thalidomide / dexamethasone
DVD - lipo dexa/ vincristine / dexameth
D - high dose dexamethasone |
|
|
Term
What are the newer regimens for Multiple Myeloma? |
|
Definition
VTD - bortezomib[Velcade]/ thalidomide/ dexa
VD - bortezomib[Velcade]/ dexa
LD - lenalidomide/ dexa
MPT - melphalan/ pred/ thalidomide
MPV - melphalan/ pred/ bortezomib[Velcade] |
|
|
Term
When is someone not a transplant candidate for Multiple Myeloma? |
|
Definition
when they are >65 years old or have insufficient renal, liver, pulmonary or cardiac function |
|
|
Term
What are the regimens for patients who are Transplant Candidates in multiple myeloma? |
|
Definition
VTD - newer regimen consisting of bortezomib[Velcade]/ thalidomide/ dexa
Give Q21 days for 3 cycles
VD - newer regimen with bortezomib[Velcade]/ dexa
Give Q21 days for 4 cycles
or can use TD or DVD (older regimens) or low dose dexa |
|
|
Term
What are the regimens for multiple myeloma patients that are NOT transplant candidates? |
|
Definition
Give in 6 week cycles (instead of every 3 weeks)
Choice is Mephalan based
can use MPV - newer regimen with melphalan/pred/bortezomib[Velcade]
(**Note: adverse cytogenetics like 13q deletion, advanced age, and renal fxn had no effect on efficacy of V
May also use MPT, or MP (not as good as MPT)
|
|
|
Term
What is important to know about bortezomib (Velcade)? |
|
Definition
It is a proteasome inhibitor with chymotrypsin like activity; it arrests the cell cycle and induces apoptosis
Use in multiple myeloma after two treatment failures. It is not first line therapy.
Do not give a new dose within 72 hrs of the last dose.
DO NOT GIVE IF ALLERGIC TO BORON OR MANNITOL!!!
Adverse effects: mainly neuropathy (serious) |
|
|
Term
How do you treat a multiple myeloma patient who has had a relapse >6 months later
vs.
a patient who had a relapse within 6 months (ie refractory multiple myeloma)? |
|
Definition
For a patient relapsing >6months later, repeat the primary chemo regimen
For a patient with refractory, use:
bortezomib +/- Doxil (a pegylated form of doxorubicin)
or lenalidomide + dexa
other options for refractory: (thalidomide +/- dexa; dexa pulse or high dose; Arsenic trioxide + Vit C) |
|
|
Term
What is the sister of thalidomide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the supportive care for the multiple myeloma patient? (include info for bone disease, anemia and infection) |
|
Definition
Bone Disease: Use pamidronate (Aredia) or Zoledronic acid (Zometa, Reclast etc)
Anemia: Use Epoetin (40,000 units SC weekly), darbepoetin (200 mcg SC Q 2 weeks) and/or iron supplementation
Infection: give pneumococcal vaccine and Hib vaccine |
|
|
Term
Dexamethasone is the most potent glucocorticoid. What is the mg equivalence to 5 mg of prednisone? |
|
Definition
0.75 mg dexa = 5 mg prednisone |
|
|
Term
For extravasation risk, what is treated with HOT packs? |
|
Definition
Vinca alkaloids
(vincristine, vinblastine etc) |
|
|
Term
What is the median age of diagnosis for Acute Myeloid Leukemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name some of the cytogenetics associated with Acute Myeloid Leukemia |
|
Definition
AML-M2: t(8;21) (seen in 40% of cases)
AML-M3: t(15;17) (seen in 98% of cases)
AML-M4: inv(16) (seen in 40% of cases)
|
|
|
Term
How would someone with AML present? |
|
Definition
Leukocytosis
High LDH
anemia |
|
|
Term
What is the WHO classification for AML? |
|
Definition
20% blasts in blood or bone marrow |
|
|
Term
What is considered to be a complete response to AML treatment? |
|
Definition
ANC >1500
Plt >100,000
BM >20% cellularity with <5% blasts and no Auer rods |
|
|
Term
What information would a clinician want to have before initiating treatment for a patient with AML? |
|
Definition
1) Age (>60 yrs old have much worse outcomes)
2) cytogenetics (good cytogenetics include [t15;17], [t8;21], [inv16/t16;16], and t11;variable.)
3) peformance status (a good performance status is <3; after that mortality increases significantly)
4) comorbidities (diabetes, CHF, hyperlipidemia- these may affect performance status and how closely we monitor the patient) |
|
|
Term
What is the goal of induction therapy for AML? What regimen do you recommend? |
|
Definition
Goal for induction therapy in AML is to eradicate malignant clone and restore normal hematopoiesis
Use the 7+3 regimen
(consists of 7 days of Cytarabine and 3 days of either idarubicin, daunorubicin, mitoxantrone) |
|
|
Term
Outline how to use Consolidation therapy for AML |
|
Definition
First look at age!!!!
Age <60 will use 7+3 regimen (HiDAC). A major side effect is cerebellar toxicity (difficulty speaking);
May also use Stem Cell Transplantation [allogenic- HLA matched; autologous- does not have HLA match)
Age >60 will use 5+2 (aka reduced dose cytarabine)
If elderly person goes into relapse, use Gemtuzumab (works on CD33 and uses other chemo drug calicheamicin) |
|
|
Term
What are the complications of treatment with AML consolidation in relapse (gemtuzumab)? |
|
Definition
Tumor Lysis Syndrome
Transfusion dependent thrombocytopenia, anemia
GI toxicity
Febrile neutropenia
DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulopathy) |
|
|
Term
When is prophylaxis necessary for AML?
What are the options for prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
It is necessary for AML patients that have ANC <500, especially if elderly (age >60)
Use G-CSF (Filtrastim) or GM-CSF (Sargramostim)
If long duration of neutropenia, may use antibiotics, antifungals or antivirals (inconclusive evidence) |
|
|
Term
What is the difference of AML-M3 compared to the other kinds of AML? |
|
Definition
This is called APL (acute promyelocytic leukemia)
It presents in YOUNGER patients, DIC is common, and there are lower WBCs and platelet counts |
|
|
Term
What is considered a High Risk APL (AML-M3) patient? |
|
Definition
A patient with WBC >10,000
[Note: Low risk is WBC <10,000 and Plt >40,000, while intermediate risk is WBC <10,0000 and Plt <40,000) |
|
|
Term
What is induction therapy for the AML-M3 (APL) patient? |
|
Definition
Use ATRA + idarubicin
[Note: ATRA stands for all-trans retinoic acid]
If WBC remains >10,000, begin prophylactic dexamethasone 10 mg BID to prevent retinoic acid syndrome
When ATRA is used, 90-95% of patients achieve a favorable response |
|
|
Term
When is consolidation used for AML-M3 (APL) patients?
What is used in each cycle? |
|
Definition
Consolidation is used 1-2 weeks after recovery
Cycle 1: Idarubicin + ATRA
Cycle 2: mitoxantrone + ATRA
Cycle 3: Idarubicin |
|
|
Term
What is the maintenance therapy for AML-M3 (APL patients that are at low risk?
(low risk = WBC <10,000 and Plt >40,000) |
|
Definition
Maintenance can be started when WBC are <3,000 and Plt >75,000
Treat with ATRA x 15 days Q 3 months or
6-MP daily [**drug interaction w/ allopurinol] or
MTX weekly
all of that for 2 years!!!!
|
|
|
Term
What is RAS and what do you do if it develops while a patient is receiving treatment for AML-M3 (APL)? |
|
Definition
RAS is Retinoic Acid Syndrome
Sxs include edema and weight gain, fever, pleural and pericaridal effusions, hypotension and renal failure
If RAS develops, d/c ATRA and give dexamethasone 10 mg IV Q12 H x 3 or more days |
|
|
Term
Name all the most important info about ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia) |
|
Definition
Cancer of the YOUNG!!! Leading cause of cancer death in patients <35
Median age of diagnosis is 10 years old
More common in males and twice as common in Caucasians
ALL- L1 is the Childhood type (and the most common)
(ALL-2 is adult, ALL-3 is Burkitt-like) |
|
|
Term
What are the high risk Relapse Factors for ALL? |
|
Definition
L2, L3 (adult and Burkitt type)
BCR-ABL (philadelphia) chromosome
abnormal cytogenetics
WBC >50,000
Male
African American
CNS leukemia
absence of mediastinal mass
Age <1 yr or >10 yrs
14 days to remission, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 components of ALL treatment? |
|
Definition
Combination chemo is the mainstay!!!
1) Remission induction
2) Consolidation/intensification
3) Maintenance
4) CNS prophylaxis
The standard 4 drug regimen is: prednisone, vincristine, L-asparaginase, +/- daunorubicin |
|
|
Term
What is important to know about CNS prophylaxis for ALL patients? |
|
Definition
Intrathecal chemo provides the BEST protection with the least morbidity
Give this during induction, consolidation and maintenance
Adults should receive IT methotrexate
******Make sure that this is not mistaken with vincristine. If that is given IT the patient will DIE *** |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Doxorubucin [Adriamycin] and the other anthracyclins
Vincristine and the other Vinca alkaloids
Dactinomycin (antibiotic)
Mitomycin (antibiotic/alkylating agent)
Mechlorethamine (alkylating agent)
|
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for etravasation of anthracyclines?
(doxorubicin [Adriamycin], daunorubicin etc) |
|
Definition
DMSO (dimethyl sulfoxide)
allow to air dry with no occlusive dressings
cold compress
Dexrazoxane is being studied right now.
Do not administer dexrazoxane to a patient currently receiving DMSO |
|
|
Term
What is the extravasation treatment for Mechlorethamine (an alkylating agent)? |
|
Definition
Antidote is Sodium Thiosulfate
Use a cold compress |
|
|
Term
What is the extravasation treatment for Mitomycin (an antibiotic/alkylating agent)? |
|
Definition
Use DMSO
Use cold compress |
|
|
Term
What is the extravasation treatment for vinca alkaloids? |
|
Definition
Antidote is hyaluronidase
Use a HOT compress |
|
|
Term
Name the most important things about Hypercalcemia and cancer
What cancers most commonly cause hypercalcemia?
How do you calculate corrected calcium?
What are the 4 primary sxs of hypercalcemia?
What are the main treatment option? |
|
Definition
Most common cancers causing hypercalcemia: Breast cancer, Multiple Myeloma, Lung cancer
Corrected Ca = measured Ca + 0.8 (4 - albumin)
Use this only when albumin is <3.5
Symptoms:
GI (Nausea); Renal (Polyuria); Neurologic (Fatigue, muscle weakness); Cardiac (Shortened QT interval)
Treatment options:
oral fluids
hydration (NS) +/- furosemide
Bisphosphonates (inhibit osteoclast activity)
Calcitonin (for Ca>16 or life-threatening) |
|
|
Term
What cancers have the highest risk of Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS)?
[It is an oncologic emergency!!] |
|
Definition
Burkitt's lymphoma
lymphoblastic lymphoma
T cell ALL
Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) |
|
|
Term
What are the lab findings with TLS (tumor lysis syndrome)? |
|
Definition
hyperuricemia
hyperkalemia
hyperphophatemia
HYPOcalcemia (opposite of phosphate)
uremia |
|
|
Term
What are the prevention strategies
vs
treatment strategies for tumor lysis syndrome? |
|
Definition
Prevention: hydration, alkalinize urine (pH>6.5-7), use Rasburicase or allopurinol; monitor closely
Treatment: Rasburicase only (cannot use allopurinol in this case because the uric acid is already formed) |
|
|
Term
What cancers are common causes of superior vena cava syndrome? |
|
Definition
lung cancer (75-80%)
SCLC
Lymphoma (10-15%)
Head and Neck cancer |
|
|
Term
What are the treatment options for superior vena cava syndrome? |
|
Definition
Radiation is first line bc it will shrink the tumor quickly
Chemo is good but takes longer to work
[Note: supportive measures include bed rest, oxygen, corticosteroid, diuretics, low salt diet] |
|
|
Term
85% of spinal cord compression is from: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment options for spinal cord compression? |
|
Definition
dexamethasone (to reduce edema and delay onset of paraplegia); helps within hours
Radiation is the treatment of choice - shrinks tumor
surgery for severe cases
chemo takes longer to work |
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Term
What chemo drug is most important to remember for acute or delayed emesis? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the easiest way to remember emesis risk factors? |
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Definition
People that go to the VA are the least likely to have problems with chemo emesis. That is because they are typically: older and male
risk factors are: younger, women, dose, rate, combo therapy, intrinsic emetogenicity of the drug |
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Term
Prevention of acute emesis for High Risk (Level 5) chemotherapy:
[ie, Cisplatin regimen, which is >90% incidence]
What about for delayed emesis (still High Risk)? |
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Definition
Acute:
Aprepitant (blocks NK1 receptor)
5-HT3 antagonist (ex: Ondansetron)
dexamethasone
Delayed:
Apreptitant + dexa
of 5-HT3 + dexa
or metoclopramide + dexa |
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Term
What do you give for breakthrough emesis? |
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Definition
Prochlorperazine (typical antipyschotic)
Promethazine (H1 antagonist)
Metoclopramide (D2 receptor antagonist)
Lorazepam (benzodiazepine)
dexamethasone (glucocorticoid)
ondansetron (5-HT3 receptor antagonist)
haloperidol (typical antipyschotic)
etc |
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Term
How is febrile neutropenia defined? |
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Definition
Single temperature >101 F (38.3 C)
temp greater than 100.4 F (38 C) for >1 hour
ANC <500 or
ANC <1000 predicted to go <500 |
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Term
What is the formula for calculation ANC? |
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Definition
ANC = WBC x (segs% + bands%)
Example:
So typically people will write WBC in the lab as 2.4. You must put this in the equation as 2400.
And also if there are 45% segs and 5% bands you have to put it in the equation as 0.45 + 0.05
ANC = 2400 x (0.45 + 0.05) = 1200 |
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Term
What is the most common infecting pathogen of febrile neutropenia? |
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Definition
Gram positive pathogens!!!
(mainly coagulase-negative staphylococci, followed by staph aureus, etc)
[Note: gram positive bacteremia actually has a lower mortality rate than gram negative bacteremia, 6% vs 10% respectively] |
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Term
What is the most important way to prevent infection of febrile neutropenia? |
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Definition
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Term
What may be the only indication a person has febrile neutropenia? Why? |
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Definition
FEVER!!!!!!!
If the person does not have an immune system they would not be able to mount an inflammatory response like having sputum etc |
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Term
What are high risk factors for febrile neutropenia? |
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Definition
inpatient at time of fever
significant comorbid conditions/clinically unstable
anticipated severe neutropenia <100 for >7 days
SCr >2, LFTs >3x normal
uncontrolled/progressive cancer
pneumonia or other complex infection upon presentation
MASCC Risk Index Score <21 |
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Term
True or False: Monotherapy is not as effective as combination therapy for febrile neutropenia treatment |
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Definition
False!! No study has shown monotherapy to be better or worse than combination therapy |
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Term
How do you get estrogen deprivation in PREmenopausal women? |
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Definition
ovariectomy + tamoxifen leads to complete estrogen blockade
Or even LHRH agonists (Leuprolide, Goserelin, Triptorelin) |
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Term
How do you get estrogen deprivation in POSTmenopausal women? |
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Definition
Can have adrenalectomy and/or use aromatase inhibitors (anastrozole[Arimidex], letrozole[Femara], exemestane[Aromasin]) |
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