1. The amount of water in each compartment mainly is controlled by 
A. oxygen concentration.
B. glucose concentration.
C. the presence of fatty acids.
D. ion concentration.

2. Water regulates body temperature through heat loss via 
A. conduction.
B. radiation.
C. respiration.
D. evaporation.

3. The typical American diet contains approximately ___ mgs of sodium. 
A. 700 to 1,200
B. 1,300 to 2.200
C. 2,300 to 4,700
D. 5,000 to 10,000

4. Of the following foods, which one is lowest in sodium? 
A. Pepperoni pizza
B. Macaroni salad
C. Milk
D. Grape juice

5. Potassium performs all the following functions except which one? 
A. It maintains the ability to see at night.
B. It maintains fluid balance.
C. It assists nerve transmission.
D. It maintains normal heart function.

6. The AI for sodium for those under 51 years of age is 
A. 500 mg/day.
B. 1000 mg/day.
C. 1500 mg/day.
D. 2000 mg/day.

7. In the body, 99 percent of calcium is found in 
A. the liver.
B. intracellular fluid.
C. bones and teeth.
D. nerve cells.

8. Which of the following food combinations would provide the most phosphorus? 
A. Strawberries, orange juice, potatoes
B. Cream of wheat, enriched bread, muffin
C. Cheeseburger on whole wheat bun, cola
D. Broccoli and cauliflower salad

9. What is magnesium's primary function? 
A. It acts as the carrier for calcium absorption.
B. It is important in hemoglobin synthesis.
C. It maintains mucus production in the digestive tract.
D. It is important for nerve and heart function.

10. Magnesium is provided in the diet primarily by 
A. whole grains.
B. meat.
C. legumes.
D. milk.

11. We get most of the sulfur in our diet from 
A. carbohydrates.
B. water.
C. fats and oils.
D. proteins.

12. The best food source of iron is 
A. whole wheat bread.
B. egg yolk.
C. raisins.
D. liver.

13. The best-absorbed iron source is found in which of the following foods? 
A. Sirloin steak
B. Broccoli
C. Kidney beans
D. Cheese

14. A reduced sense of taste is associated with a deficiency of 
A. iron.
B. zinc.
C. chromium.
D. selenium.

15. The best zinc source is 
A. turkey.
B. cheese.
C. pears.
D. potatoes.

16. Which of the following is true about selenium? 
A. It is needed for insulin formation and use.
B. An excess can cause hypertension.
C. It acts as a cofactor in protein metabolism.
D. It acts as an antioxidant.

17. A goiter may form as a consequence of an inadequate intake of 
A. copper.
B. magnesium.
C. sodium.
D. iodide.

18. Which of the following is the best copper source? 
A. Beef liver
B. Milk
C. Carrots
D. Legumes

19. This mineral can be protective for the teeth when introduced into the water supply; however it can cause tooth mottling when consumed in high quantities. 
A. Fluoride
B. Copper
C. Iron
D. Selenium

20. Manganese functions as 
A. a cofactor for many different enzymes.
B. a component of thyroid hormone.
C. a cofactor for the absorption of vitamin A.
D. an essential mineral for amino acid metabolism.

21. Which of the following is not a benefit of physical fitness? 
A. Better sleep habits
B. Less body fat
C. Less muscle mass
D. Lower blood pressure

22. ATP and phosphocreatine are major energy sources for events lasting how long? 
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 30 minutes

23. The difference between aerobic and anaerobic glycolysis is 
A. aerobic glucose breakdown uses amino acids, anaerobic does not.
B. the end product of aerobic glucose breakdown is lactic acid; the end products of anaerobic glucose breakdown are carbon dioxide and water.
C. the end products of aerobic glucose breakdown are carbon dioxide and water; the end product of anaerobic glucose breakdown is lactic acid.
D. anaerobic glucose breakdown uses oxygen, aerobic does not.

24. Anaerobic glucose breakdown provides most of the energy for sports activities lasting 
A. 10 seconds.
B. up to 30 seconds.
C. 30 seconds to 2 minutes.
D. up to 5 minutes.

25. A meal representative of what an endurance athlete should eat before an event is 
A. steak, eggs, milk, and hash browns.
B. a turkey sandwich, cottage cheese, milk, and a chocolate bar.
C. a peanut butter sandwich, banana, and milk.
D. baked chicken, plain baked potato, salad, and fruit juice.

26. For which of the following activities would carbohydrate loading be warranted? 
A. Marathon
B. Weight lifting
C. Football
D. 10 kilometer race

27. The protein intake per day for a muscle-building athlete should be ­­_____ grams per kilogram body weight. 
A. 0.6 to 0.8
B. 0.8 to 1.5
C. 1.5 to 1.7
D. 2.5 to 3.0

28. If a woman athlete is not menstruating regularly, she should do all the following except 
A. exercise more intensely.
B. increase her kcalorie intake.
C. get adequate calcium in the diet.
D. have her body fat percentage checked.

29. Which of the following is a good pre-event meal? 
A. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich
B. Milk shake
C. Cheese and sausage pizza
D. Oatmeal with whole fruit

30. The best way to determine how much fluid must be replaced as a result of a workout is to 
A. weigh before and after the workout.
B. rely on thirst.
C. drink various amounts of fluid during the workout and see how much makes you feel best.
D. estimate how much you sweated.

31. All of the following are good practices to keep well hydrated except 
A. taking salt tablets and drinking plenty of fluid before the workout.
B. drinking freely up to 2 hours before an event.
C. consuming 1.5 to 2.5 cups of fluid 2-3 hours prior to the event start.
D. consuming 0.5 to 1.5 cups of fluid every 15 minutes during the workout.

32. Which of the following does not have an ergogenic effect according to your text? 
A. Growth hormone
B. Carnitine
C. Anabolic steroids
D. Blood doping

33. Which of the following supposedly increases free fatty acids in the blood? 
A. Caffeine
B. Growth hormone
C. Phosphate loading
D. Bicarbonate loading

34. A regular physical activity program should include all the following except 
A. a warmup.
B. a frequency of 2 times per week.
C. a heart rate of 60 percent to 70 percent of maximum.
D. at least 20 to 30 minutes duration.

35. A well-tolerated exercise for overweight people is 
A. basketball.
B. jogging.
C. bicycling.
D. aerobic dance.

36. Prevention of eating disorders might include any of the following except 
A. discourage dieting.
B. teach normal, healthy approach to eating and nutrition.
C. encourage eating in relation to hunger and satiety cues.
D. weighing often.

37. Which characteristic is more indicative of bulimia than anorexia nervosa? 
A. Rigid, disciplined dieting
B. Feeling a sense of power because of strict discipline and self-denial
C. Fluctuating weight
D. Lack of menstruation

38. All of the following can initiate the problem of anorexia nervosa except 
A. comments from significant others about being too fat.
B. a job or profession that demands maintaining a certain weight.
C. coming from a supportive family.
D. leaving home and family for college.

39. Night eating syndrome is characterized by evening hyperphagia which is defined as 
A. eating all of total daily calories after the evening meal.
B. eating one-half of total daily calories after the evening meal.
C. eating one-half of total daily calories at the evening meal.
D. eating more than one-third of total daily calories after the evening meal.

40. A condition of self-induced severe weight loss, particularly common in adolescent girls, is called 
A. malnutrition.
B. anorexia nervosa.
C. bulimia nervosa.
D. binge-eating disorder.

41. What is the name of the condition characterized by disordered eating, lack of menstrual periods, and osteoporosis? 
A. Female anorexia
B. Female bulimia
C. Female athlete triad
D. Binge eating disorder

42. The incidence of anorexia nervosa is highest in 
A. adolescent males from middle and high socioeconomic classes.
B. adolescent females from middle and upper socioeconomic classes.
C. adolescent males from low-income classes.
D. preteen females from low-income classes.

43. The semistarvation of anorexia nervosa results in all the following physiological changes except 
A. dry, scaly, cold skin.
B. lanugo hair.
C. increased heart rate.
D. iron-deficiency anemia.

44. The slower basal metabolism that accompanies anorexia nervosa is caused by 
A. decreased synthesis of growth hormone.
B. decreased synthesis of thyroid hormone.
C. low intake of iron.
D. hypoglycemia.

45. The first goal in nutrition therapy for anorexia nervosa is 
A. to increase weight to return the basal metabolic rate to normal.
B. to stop further weight loss.
C. hospitalization and forced feeding.
D. rapid weight gain to reverse physical symptoms.

46. All of the following are helpful for the recovery of the anorexic person except 
A. not pursuing family therapy.
B. using antidepressant medications.
C. joining a self-help group.
D. establishing a strong relationship with a supportive person.

47. A common characteristic of both bulimics and anorexics is that they are 
A. male.
B. born underweight for height.
C. perfectionists.
D. able to recognize their behavior as abnormal.

48. Treatment for bulimia should last at least how many weeks? 
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32

49. An effective nutritional counseling approach to bulimia involves all the following except 
A. a daily meal plan.
B. keeping a daily food diary.
C. helping the person correct misconceptions about food.
D. suggesting that the person follow strict food rules to control eating.

50. The most significant factor promoting eating disorders in North American culture is 
A. food availability.
B. the current focus on physical fitness.
C. societal emphasis on being thin and the link between thinness and social value.
D. the fatty foods emphasized in our culture.

51. What is the term to describe failing health that results from a long-standing dietary intake that either fails to meet or greatly exceeds nutritional needs? 
A. Undernutrition
B. Overnutrition
C. Emaciation
D. Malnutrition

52. Failing health that results from a long-standing dietary intake that does not meet nutritional needs is termed 
A. starvation.
B. undernutrition.
C. emaciation.
D. chronic hunger.

53. Don is suffering from malnutrition. Which of the following might be true of his condition? 
A. This means that he must be undernourished.
B. This means that he must be experiencing chronic hunger.
C. This means that he must be experiencing a vitamin deficiency.
D. He could be suffering from undernutrition or overnutrition.

54. The primary cause of chronic hunger is 
A. poverty.
B. lack of technological advances.
C. cultural food preferences.
D. lack of large farms in Third World countries.

55. Impaired development or function that results from an inadequate intake, absorption, or utilization of the nutrients needed for optimal growth, development, and body function is best termed 
A. malnutrition.
B. undernutrition.
C. malabsorption.
D. hunger.

56. All of the following are results of undernutrition except 
A. reduction of activity.
B. blindness from xerophthalmia.
C. iron-deficiency anemia.
D. coronary heart disease.

57. The consequences of undernutrition are most critical during 
A. adulthood.
B. elementary school years.
C. infancy.
D. elderly years.

58. The human organism is particularly susceptible to effects of undernutrition during all of the following periods except 
A. infancy.
B. pregnancy.
C. preschool years.
D. adulthood.

59. All of the following are true about undernutrition during pregnancy except 
A. mother and fetus both are affected.
B. only the mother is affected significantly.
C. iron-deficiency anemia is a possible consequence in the mother.
D. risk of maternal death is increased.

60. All of the following are effects of semistarvation except 
A. decreased energy level and strength.
B. poor concentration.
C. lack of hunger and appetite.
D. reduced immunity.

61. The way hunger is best addressed in the United States is through 
A. providing more jobs at fast-food restaurants.
B. rallying private groups to provide food.
C. providing more federal, state, and local governmental food subsidy programs and funding.
D. developing better technology for growing and providing food.

62. The Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children 
A. provides breakfast for school children.
B. provides food vouchers and nutrition education to low-income pregnant and lactating women and their young children.
C. has not been shown to be cost effective.
D. has not been shown to reduce the numbers of low-birth-weight babies.

63. Which of the following is not true about the history of nutrition assistance programs in the United States? 
A. Food assistance programs developed in the 1960s and 1970s are not relevant to the current problem of undernutrition in the United States.
B. The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 expanded food assistance benefits for low-income families.
C. Reducing funding for federal nutrition programs affects the amount of undernutrition in the United States.
D. More than 150,000 charitable food programs help to address unmet needs of undernourished Americans.

64. All of the following are obstacles to solving problems of undernutrition in developing nations except 
A. an imbalance between food/population ratios.
B. poor infrastructure.
C. lack of available technology that could be taught to the populations.
D. war.

65. The "green revolution" is a 
A. movement that increased crop yields.
B. strategy to get countries to stop using fertilizers.
C. movement to prevent the destruction of rain forests.
D. Third World crop planting strategy that avoids pesticide and organic fertilizer use.

66. A promising strategy to help other countries increase food resources is 
A. to use "green revolution" technologies.
B. to establish large farms that grows cash crops.
C. to try to obtain more food from the oceans.
D. to cut down rain forests so there is more farmable land.

67. Which of the following factors will adversely affect the nutritional status of a country? 
A. Movement of the population to urban centers
B. Maintenance of rural, small farms
C. Movement away from the growth of cash crops
D. Discouraging the establishment of large farms

68. Which of the following is the best approach to preventing famine in developing nations? 
A. Increase the productivity of rural people by teaching them farming methods so they can build agricultural surpluses to eat and sell.
B. Developed countries should send food and medicine.
C. Developing countries should grow cash crops.
D. Discourage having livestock.

69. The manipulation of nature (plants, animals, and bacteria) to increase production and food yield and the use of living things to manufacture products is called 
A. bio
B. gene splicing.
C. biotechnology.
D. agribusiness.

70. Which of the following is not true about the social and economic impact of AIDS? 
A. AIDS tends to have the greatest social and economic impact on developing countries.
B. AIDS will have the greatest economic impact on the United States.
C. Most governments have responded slowly to the AIDS epidemic.
D. A significant portion of the male population of many developing countries will be lost to AIDS and will decrease the workforce that can make a country more productive.

71. All of the following are potential environmental contaminants except 
A. acrylamide.
B. lead.
C. carbon dioxide.
D. mercury.

72. Of the following groups, which have the least risk of becoming ill from foodborne illness? 
A. The elderly
B. Young children
C. Individuals with cancer
D. Teens

73. The incidence of foodborne illness is rising because of all the following factors except 
A. increased shelf life of food products.
B. increased availability of frozen food products.
C. increased reporting of cases.
D. greater consumer interest in eating raw, undercooked foods of animal origin.

74. A new food preservation method, aseptic processing, is especially useful for 
A. whole grain cereals.
B. fruit juices.
C. meats.
D. spices.

75. Which of the following is true about food irradiation? 
A. The FDA does not allow food irradiation because it is dangerous.
B. Irradiation does not affect the vitamin content of foods.
C. Foods that are irradiated do not require labeling as such.
D. Irradiation can slow or limit the growth of insects, microorganisms, and parasites in food.

76. A common cause of foodborne illness that results from sneezing or coughing over food is 
A. Salmonella.
B. Clostridium perfringens.
C. Staphylococcus aureus.
D. Campylobacter jejuni.

77. Which of the following is not characteristic of Salmonella foodborne illness? 
A. It is seldom fatal.
B. Symptoms may develop in 5 to 72 hours.
C. It can be avoided by not allowing susceptible foods to stand at room temperature for more than 2 hours.
D. It can cause acute respiratory failure.

78. Foodborne illness caused by Clostridium perfringens 
A. is usually associated with meat and meat dishes, gravies, and improperly handled leftovers.
B. appears within 12 to 36 hours of ingesting contaminated food.
C. usually is caused by consuming improperly home-canned food.
D. can cause human illness in about 4 hours.

79. Which of the following can produce a foodborne infection? 
A. Clostridium perfringens and Salmonella
B. Clostridium botulinum and Staphylococcus aureus
C. Salmonella and Clostridium botulinum
D. Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium perfringens

80. Which of the following can produce a foodborne intoxication? 
A. Clostridium botulinum and Salmonella
B. Salmonella and Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium botulinum
D. Clostridium perfringens and Staphylococcus aureus

81. All of the following are good instructions for preventing foodborne illness except 
A. always wash your hands after handling raw meat, fish, poultry, or eggs.
B. do not buy or use food from a bulging can.
C. when shopping, select meat, poultry, or fish first.
D. wash all utensils that have come in contact with raw meat or fish after using.

82. The best way to prevent the foodborne illness E. coli (Escherichia coli) is to 
A. cook all meat thoroughly.
B. substitute bean sprouts for washed lettuce.
C. wash your hands often.
D. wear a hair net while cooking.

83. The greatest health risk from food today is contamination via 
A. fungi.
B. viruses and bacteria.
C. parasites.
D. prions.

84. Listeriosis is of particular concern for pregnant women since they are about ____ times more likely to get this infection than other healthy adults 
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25

85. Escherichia coli O157:H7 infection has been associated with consumption of 
A. breakfast cereals.
B. bread made from organic flour.
C. fresh spinach or spinach-containing products.
D. well-done roast beef.

86. The FIGHT BAC! food safety program includes the following tips for keeping food safe from bacteria: 
A. boil, freeze, dry, salt.
B. bake, sterilize, freeze, label.
C. clean, separate, chill, cook.
D. scrub, irradiate, cook, freeze.

87. ______________________ are hardy and survive freezing and relatively high temperatures and chlorination up to 10 ppm. 
A. Norovirus
B. Salmonella
C. E. coli
D. Listeria

88. To avoid Salmonella contamination 
A. store chicken at 40° F or below.
B. cook chicken to at least 140° F.
C. cook chicken thawed in a microwave oven right away.
D. refrigerate or freeze leftovers within six hours of cooking.

89. Most strains of E. coli are 
A. infectious.
B. harmful.
C. toxic.
D. harmless.

90. All of the following are potential risks of pesticides except 
A. increased rates of birth defects and cancer with chronic exposure.
B. creation of new and resistant species of pests.
C. increased food costs.
D. unintentional distribution of pesticides via groundwater.

91. The organ that nourishes the fetus in the mother's womb is called the 
A. ovum.
B. umbilicus.
C. placenta.
D. embryo.

92. All of the following are poor pregnancy practices except 
A. restricting weight gain to 15 to 18 pounds.
B. smoking.
C. gaining 25 to 35 pounds.
D. completely avoiding exercise.

93. Which of the following is a suggested practice as far as exercise and pregnancy are concerned? 
A. Play basketball regularly in a hot, humid gym
B. Drink plenty of fluids
C. Strengthen the legs by performing deep knee bends
D. Discontinue exercise during the third trimester

94. During the first trimester, a woman should gain ______ pounds. 
A. 1 to 3
B. 2 to 4
C. 5 to 9
D. 10 to 14

95. Millie has a low pre-pregnancy body mass index, classifying her as underweight. Her weight gain goal should be how many pounds? 
A. 10 to 15
B. 15 to 25
C. 25 to 35
D. 28 to 40

96. A low-birth-weight infant weighs ______ pounds. 
A. 6.5 to 7.5
B. 5.5 to 6.5
C. less than 5.5
D. less than 3.5

97. Which of the following is true about protein intake during pregnancy? 
A. The RDA for protein increases by about 25 grams per day over that for the nonpregnant state.
B. Women probably do not get enough protein in typical diets to meet their total needs for pregnancy.
C. The RDA for protein increases by about 10 to 15 grams per day.
D. The RDA for protein increases by about 5 to 10 grams per day.

98. Patricia's physician tells her she needs more folate in her diet during pregnancy. She should do which of the following? 
A. Drink orange juice.
B. Eat beef.
C. Eat more cheese.
D. Eat more fish.

99. Mineral needs generally are increased during pregnancy. All of the following are needed in higher quantities except 
A. iron.
B. iodine.
C. sodium.
D. zinc.

100. All of the following are true about folate and pregnancy except 
A. folate deficiency in pregnancy is associated with birth defects such as spina bifida.
B. the RDA for folate increases by 50 percent.
C. most breakfast cereals can be used by pregnant women to get folate because these cereals are fortified with folate.
D. if pregnant women eat folate-rich fruits and vegetables as suggested in the MyPyramid Food Plan they cannot meet their folate needs.

101. Most of the extra calcium for pregnancy is needed during which trimester(s)? 
A. First
B. Third
C. Second
D. Calcium needs do not increase

102. The best way for a calcium-deficient pregnant woman to get the calcium she needs is to consume 
A. fruits.
B. vegetables.
C. legumes.
D. low-fat milk and cheese.

103. During pregnancy, a woman should use MyPyramid and consume 
A. 1-2 cups of calcium-rich foods from the milk and cheese group.
B. 2 ounce equivalents from the meat group.
C. 3 cups of calcium-rich foods from the milk and cheese group.
D. 4 ounce equivalents from the grain group.

104. Consumption of non-food items such as laundry starch, ice, and dirt is known as 
A. hyperemesis.
B. pica.
C. pregnancy-induced hypertension.
D. eclampsia.

105. Which of the following is true about lifestyle habits and pregnancy? 
A. Repeated intake of four or more alcoholic drinks at one sitting harm(s) the fetus.
B. It is vital that mothers abstain from NutraSweet because the phenylalanine present can cause mental retardation in most babies.
C. Cigarette smoking should be limited to one pack per day.
D. The only risk to the baby when a mother uses cocaine is cocaine addiction.

106. The hormone that triggers "let down" or milk release is 
A. oxytocin.
B. prolactin.
C. estrogen.
D. progesterone.

107. Which of the following statements is important for infant feeding? 
A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months of a child's life.
B. Breastfeeding has no advantage over formula-feeding, so the latter is the feeding practice of choice.
C. Working mothers should avoid breastfeeding.
D. Cows' milk can be introduced safely when the child is 3 months old.

108. During each feeding, human milk changes composition in which of the following ways? 
A. carbohydrate increases
B. fat increases
C. minerals decrease
D. protein decreases

109. All of the following are barriers to breastfeeding except 
A. lack of role models.
B. having to carry a lot of equipment when traveling.
C. misinformation.
D. fear of appearing immodest.

110. The U.S. Public Health Service and the March of Dimes recommend that all women of childbearing age should take a daily multivitamin and mineral supplement that contains 
A. 400 micrograms of folic acid.
B. 15 milligrams of iron.
C. 500 milligrams of calcium.
D. 40 micrograms of zinc.

111. Approximately one third of children in developing nations are short and underweight for their age. The most frequent cause is 
A. weaning to high-carbohydrate, low-protein diets.
B. diets low in essential fatty acids.
C. weaning to low-carbohydrate, high-protein diets.
D. diets high in protein.

112. Brain growth is most rapid in infancy but stops by about what age? 
A. 9 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 3 years

113. Based on body weight comparisons, at 6 months of age a child's kcalorie per kilogram body weight needs are approximately how many times higher than adult needs? 
A. 1-2
B. 2-3
C. 2-4
D. 5-6

114. The greatest energy requirement per unit of body weight occurs during 
A. pregnancy.
B. infancy.
C. lactation.
D. childhood.

115. The fluid requirements of the infant are approximately __________ cups per day. 
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3

116. Egg whites should not be fed to children before 1 year of age because 
A. they contain poor quality protein.
B. early introduction may result in an allergic reaction.
C. cooked egg white contains avidin, which might block biotin absorption.
D. they create an iron deficiency.

117. The first solid foods usually introduced into an infant's milk diet are 
A. egg whites.
B. pureed meats.
C. pureed fruits.
D. iron-fortified cereals.

118. At age 4 to 6 months an infant can do all the following except 
A. sit up.
B. turn his or her head away when he or she feels full.
C. control tongue thrust.
D. handle finger foods.

119. It is impractical to introduce solid foods into an infant's diet before 4 to 6 months of age, because until that time 
A. kidney function is limited.
B. starch-digesting enzymes are not very active.
C. food allergies are less likely.
D. head and neck control are not established.

120. All of the following are true about "nursing bottle syndrome" except 
A. it causes tooth decay in bottle-fed infants.
B. it is associated with an infant keeping a bottle in his or her mouth while sleeping.
C. it results from the teeth being bathed in carbohydrate-rich fluid.
D. it is associated with not brushing the infant's gums at least 3 times per week.

121. Infants need fat because it aids in absorption of several vitamins and also helps the ______________ to develop. 
A. kidneys
B. nervous system
C. reproductive system
D. skin

122. Feeding problems may develop during the preschool years partially because of 
A. decreased appetite associated with decreased growth rate.
B. increased appetite associated with increased growth rate.
C. increased metabolic rate.
D. increased need for finger foods.

123. Preschool children should be encouraged to try new foods. If a child is reluctant to do so, it is best to 
A. ask that he or she at least taste it.
B. withhold dessert until what is on the plate is eaten.
C. quietly remove it and never try again.
D. encourage other family members to coax him or her to eat.

124. For a child who follows a totally vegetarian diet, all of the following nutrients are of concern except 
A. iron.
B. vitamin B-12.
C. vitamin D.
D. fiber.

125. Absence of breakfast for children is associated with 
A. increased attention span and decreased performance in sports.
B. decreased performance in school and no impact on attention span.
C. decreased performance in school and decreased attention span.
D. decreased performance in sports and no impact on attention span.

126. Which of the following minerals may be low in the diets of adolescent girls? 
A. Calcium and phosphorus
B. Iron and calcium
C. Magnesium and zinc
D. Iron and phosphorus

127. Teenagers are at risk of deficiency in which of the following nutrients? 
A. Fats and protein
B. Calcium and folate
C. Calcium and iron
D. Iron and sodium

128. Which of the following in not a common food allergen? 
A. Fruits
B. Corn
C. Nuts
D. Seafood

129. In the United States, approximately _____ percent of school-age children are overweight or obese. 
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 50

130. The treatment of childhood obesity involves all the following except 
A. increasing the activity level.
B. moderation of energy intake.
C. reducing dietary sugar and fat.
D. a restrictive weight-loss diet.

131. The best general approach to eating a health-promoting diet is to 
A. follow the Dietary Guidelines for Americans and MyPyramid.
B. avoid foods containing sugar or sodium.
C. avoid all desserts.
D. eat ample amounts of refined grain breads and cereals.

132. Maggie switches to a health-promoting diet. This potentially will have the most impact on 
A. life span.
B. life expectancy.
C. risk for heart disease.
D. quality of life in later years.

133. Sara is an administrator at a bank. Sara eats plenty of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes, and lean meats. She is of Northern European descent and is quite small in stature. What could she do to live a more health-promoting lifestyle? 
A. Take vitamin and mineral supplements.
B. Eat more vitamin A laden fruits and vegetables.
C. Eat more lean meats.
D. Consume plenty of low-fat milk and dairy products.

134. Which of the following is not a Dietary Guideline for Americans? 
A. Practice safe food handling when preparing food.
B. Choose a diet low in trans fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol.
C. Eliminate salt and sodium from the diet.
D. Maintain a healthy body weight.

135. A basic plan for health promotion and disease prevention includes all of the following except 
A. eating the foods in the MyPyramid Food Guide.
B. getting regular exercise.
C. not smoking.
D. consuming 3 to 5 ounces of alcohol daily.

136. Currently, life expectancy in North America is about ______ years for men and ______ for women. 
A. 78; 71
B. 75; 75
C. 78; 80
D. 75; 80

137. Aging most likely is the result of 
A. slow cell death.
B. acute death of an organ.
C. complete death of the immune system.
D. slow cell multiplication.

138. Of older people, at least _____ percent have nutrition-related health problems. 
A. 25
B. 50
C. 65
D. 75

139. Food habits of older adults may be influenced by all of the following except 
A. decreased taste sensitivity.
B. decreased mobility.
C. poor dentition.
D. production of melatonin.

140. Compared to individuals aged 19 - 50, adults over the age of 70 need _____ times more vitamin D. 
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

141. Bud has trouble with his dentures and problems chewing. Which of the following foods would be best to help meet his nutritional needs? 
A. Gelatin
B. Bouillon
C. Sirloin steak
D. Low-fat yogurt

142. Declining function of which of the following body systems directly affects an older adult's ability to shop for, prepare, and consume foods at home? 
A. Nervous system
B. Digestive system
C. Endocrine system
D. Immune system

143. Barbara is 65 years of age and her doctor finds her mental function is declining. Which of the following will not significantly impact this issue? 
A. Striving for life long learning
B. Exercising regularly
C. Eating a healthy diet
D. Taking nutrition supplements

144. Use of which of the following medications could cause appetite loss in an elderly person? 
A. Diuretics
B. Antidepressants
C. Antipsychotics
D. Aspirin

145. Long-term aspirin use by an elderly person could increase the need for what nutrient? 
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Thiamin
D. Iron

146. Because elderly individuals need similar amounts of nutrients as their younger counterparts but less kcalories, they should focus on diet plans that emphasize 
A. nutrient density.
B. vitamin E.
C. protein.
D. whole grains.

147. Elderly people should limit alcohol consumption due to all of the following except 
A. they become intoxicated more easily.
B. they have lower amounts of body water in which to dilute alcohol.
C. decreased ability to metabolize alcohol.
D. increased risk of depression.

148. All of the following are practical suggestions for diet planning for singles except 
A. buying small containers of food.
B. cooking large amounts of food, dividing it into portions, and freezing it.
C. buying family-sized packages of meat.
D. buying fruits at various stages of ripeness so they can be eaten fresh daily.

149. The 2005 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that those who choose to drink alcoholic beverages should do so in moderation, defined as the consumption of up to __ drink(s) per day for women and older adults and up to __ drink(s) per day for men. 
A. 0; 1
B. 1; 2
C. 2; 3
D. 3; 4

150. For cancer prevention, which of the following dietary components should be limited? 
A. Soy products
B. Omega-3 fatty acids
C. Cured meats
D. Low-fat dairy products