Term
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Definition
| Any pregnancy, regardless of its duration, including the present pregnancy |
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Term
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Definition
| A woman who has had two or more births at more than 20 weeks' gestation |
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Term
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Definition
| A woman who has never been pregnant |
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Term
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Definition
| Birth after 20 weeks' gestation, regardless of whether the infant is born alive or dead |
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Term
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Definition
| A woman who is pregnant for the first time |
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Term
G,P,A,L practice!
Roya Siroospour is prengant for the fourth time. She lost her first pregnancy at 12 weeks' gestation. She has two children at home. How would you record her Gravida, Para, and Ab (or A), and Living Children? |
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Definition
Gravida: 4
Para: 2
Ab: 1
Living Children: 2 |
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Term
G,P,A,L practice!
Yolanda Jackson is pregnant for the third time. She gave birth to a still born infant at 36 weeks' gestation and has a 3-year-old at home who was born at term. How would you record her Gravida, Para, Ab (or A), & Living Children?
If you are using the GTPAL to record, how would that look: Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortion, and Living Children? |
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Definition
Gravida: 3
Para: 2
Ab: 0 (not a considered at an spontaneous abortion because the infant was considered viable at 36 weeks, and therefore counts as a para).
Living Children: 1
GTPAL record:
Gravida: 3
Term: 1
Preterm: 1
Abortion: 0
Living Children: 1 |
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Term
| Normal Hgb & Hct findings in a Prenatal assessment? |
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Definition
Hgb: 12-16 g/dl
Hct: 38-47% |
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Term
| Normal Rubella Titer (indicate the woman is immune) in a prenatal assessment? |
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Definition
Hemagglutination-inhibition (HAI) test results should be 1:10 or above.
*HAI titer less than 1:10 would require woman to get immunization after birth; she cannot have while pregnant so she must avoid children who have rubella. |
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Term
| Normal WBC findings in a prenatal assessment |
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Definition
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Term
| What are 3 common procedures a woman will undergo on her first prenatal visit? |
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Definition
1. Inspection, Auscultation, & Palpation of the ABDOMEN
2. Determination of the adequacy of the PELVIS
3. VAGINAL examination |
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Term
Explain how to measure fundal height?
What is this method also known as? |
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Definition
Measured by placing the beginning of measuring tape on top of the symphysis pubis, then stretching up over the abdomen to the top of the uterine fundus.
AKA McDonald's Method |
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Term
| When does the fundal height measurement best correlate with the gestational age (ie when is it most accurate)? |
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Definition
| Between 22-24 weeks through 34 weeks. During this time the fundal height should match up with the weeks of gestation |
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Term
| Where would you expect to find the fundus at 12 weeks' gestation? |
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Definition
| Slightly above the symphysis pubis |
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Term
| Where should the fundus be at 20 weeks' gestation? |
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Definition
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Term
| When is the fetal heartbeat usually detected with a Doppler? |
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Definition
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Term
| Oyou place a patient for a pelvic examination? |
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Definition
| In the LITHOTOMY position |
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Term
| 3 basic parts of the initial pelvic examination? |
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Definition
1. Pap Smear & other pertinent cultures or spears.
2. Visual inspection of the external genitalia, vagina & cervix.
3. Bimanual examination |
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Term
| If a woman has a diagonal conjugate of 9 cm, what possible problems might you predict for birth? Why? |
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Definition
| The need for a C-SECTION because the fetal head would not be able to enter the pelvic outlet. |
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Term
| What is Nagele's rule? What is the formula? |
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Definition
| Nagele's rule is used to determine EDB. The formula is: You take the first date of woman's LMP, minus 3 months and then add 7 days. |
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Term
| If a woman reports March 22 of this year as her LMP, what would be her EDB |
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Definition
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Term
| If a woman states September 19, 2011 was her LMP, what would be her EDB? |
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Definition
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Term
| How is Gestational Diabetes Mellitus detected? (What test?) |
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Definition
| GTT - Glucose Tolerance Test |
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Term
| How would Abnormal Cervical Cells be found? |
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Definition
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Term
| How would Neural tube defects be found? (What diagnostic test?) |
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Definition
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Term
| How is Sickle Cells disease found? |
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Definition
| With a Hemoglobin Electrophoresis test |
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Term
| How is Syphilis detected? |
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Definition
| VDRL - Veneral disease research laboratory test |
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Term
| What is the recommended frequency for prenatal visits throughout pregnancy (for normal pregnancies without complications)? |
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Definition
Every 4 weeks for the first 28 weeks,
Then every 2 weeks until 36 weeks,
and finally Weekly after 36 weeks until childbirth. |
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Term
| Dysuria is a common sign of? |
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Definition
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Term
| Persistent vomiting is a sign of? |
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Definition
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Term
| Abdominal pain could be a sign of what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Epigastric pain is a warning sign of what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Vaginal bleeding may be a sign of? |
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Definition
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Term
| The pregnant woman should have a dental examination (a)_________ in her pregnancy. Dental x-rays may be done if (b)_____________ |
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Definition
a) Early
b) The woman's abdomen is shielded with a lead apron |
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Term
| A substance that adversely affects the normal growth and development of the fetus is called a ___________? |
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Definition
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Term
| What FDA pregnancy category are the Penicillins in? |
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Definition
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Term
| List 4 of the more common pregnancy related complications for teens? |
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Definition
1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Preeclampsia
3. Preterm birth
4. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) |
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Term
What is quickening?
When are they normally felt? |
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Definition
Fetal movements that can be felt by the mother.
Usually felt by 16-22 weeks (16 or earlier for a multipara and 20-22 for a primapara) |
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Term
| What are the 11 herbs that SHOULD NOT be ingested during Pregnancy? What 2 should be used with Caution? |
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Definition
Don't eat/ingest/drink whatev's
1. Blue Cohosh
2. Black Cohosh
3. Chamomile, Valeria
4. Comfrey
5. Dong quai
6. Ephedra (ma huang)
7. Goldenseal
8. Ginkgo Biloba
9. Ginseng
10. Horehound
11. Horseradish (fresh)
The 2 to use with caution are:
1. Garlic
2. Tumeric |
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Term
| In which trimester is there the greatest potential for gross abnormalities in the fetus? |
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Definition
| The first trimester when fetal organs are first developing. |
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Term
| FDA drug ratings for pregnant women, List safest to most dangerous |
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Definition
| Cat.A (safest) -> Cat. B -> Cat. C -> Cat. D -> Cat. X (most dangerous) |
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Term
| If a woman HAS to take an anti-coagulant during pregnancy, which one should she take? |
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Definition
| Heparin - it does not cross the placenta, it is safer for the fetus than Warfarin or other anti-coag's |
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Term
| What can the common Acne Medicine, isotretinoin (Accutane) do to a fetus? What FDA pregnancy category is it in? |
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Definition
It can cause multiple central nervous system, facial, and cardiovascular anomalies.
It is in Preg. Cat. X |
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Term
| What are two medications that are known to have teratogenic effects in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters? |
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Definition
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Term
| If a woman HAS TO take meds during pregnancy, what is the preferred route/dose/duration? |
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Definition
| The oral form of the drug should be prescribed in the lowest possible therapeutic dose for the shortest time possible. |
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Term
| What maternal risk behavior is highly associated with low-birth weight infants and 3x's the normal risk for SIDS? |
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Definition
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Term
| 4 characteristics/adverse effects caused by Fetal Alcohol Syndrome? |
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Definition
1. Growth restriction
2. Behavioral disturbances
3. Craniofacial abnormalties
4. Brain, Cardiac & Spinal defects |
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Term
| What is the most common preventable cause of intellectual disability (mental retardation) in the United States? |
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Definition
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Term
| When does alcohol have the most profound impact on fetal development? |
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Definition
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Term
| What procedure is routinely offered to all pregnant women over 35 years of age? Why? |
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Definition
| An AMNIOCENTESIS; to permite the early detection of several chromosomal abnormalities, including Down Syndrome |
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Term
| What is a special concern for pregnant women over 40? (Well, there are a bunch, but this one is significantly higher than mothers in their 20's). |
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Definition
| The risk of having a Stillborn Baby. Women over 40 are 2 to 3 times as likely to have stillborn than women in their 20's. |
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Term
| An Amniocentisis cannot be done until ____ weeks of pregnancy and the chromosomal studies (results) take roughly ____ weeks to complete |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 5 critical factors in labor? |
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Definition
1. The birth passageway (birth canal)
2. The passenger (fetus)
3. The physiologic forces of labor
4. The position of the mother
5. The woman's psychosocial considerations |
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Term
| The normal anterior-posterior diameter of the pelvic inlet needs to be at least ______ cm. for vaginal birth? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 2 most important HORMONES FOR BREASTFEEDING? What do they do? |
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Definition
1. Prolactin-causes milk production
2. Oxytocin-causes milk-ejection reflex (let down reflex) |
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Term
| Normal Temperature Range in initial Newborn Assessment? |
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Definition
| 97.5 - 99 degrees Fahrenheit |
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Term
| Normal PULSE range in initial newborn assessment? |
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Definition
| 110 to 160 bpm (as low as 100 alseep; 180 crying) |
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Term
| Normal RESPIRATION RATE for initial newborn assessment? |
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Definition
| 30 to 60 breaths per minute |
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Term
| Normal BLOOD PRESSURE range for initial newborn assessment? |
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Definition
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Term
| The average weight of a newborn? |
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Definition
| 2500-4000 g (varies with ethnicity) |
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Term
| What is the usual weight loss within the first 3 to 4 days of life for a full term newborn? |
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Definition
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Term
| 4 causes of newborn physiologic weight loss? |
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Definition
1. Small fluid intake
2. Increased volume of meconium stools
3. Fluid shifts
4. Increased urination |
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Term
An infant weighs 9 pds, 3 oz. at birth. After 7 days, what is the lowest acceptable weight the infant should be at this age?
a) 7 pds, 12 oz
b) 8 pds, 2 oz
c) 8 pds, 12 oz
d) 9 pds |
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Definition
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Term
A newborn's head circumference is 34 cm (13.6 in.) and chest circumference is 32 cm (12.5 in.). Which nursing action is appropriate?
a) Measure the occipitofrontal circumference daily
b) Prepare the mother for the probability that the healthcare provider will want to transilluminate the head.
c) Record the findings and take no further action.
d) Refer the newborn for evluation for psychomotor delays. |
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Definition
| a) Measure the occipitofrontal circumference daily |
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Term
| How should you safely measure a newborn's LENGTH? |
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Definition
| Place infant on the back with legs extended as much as possible; if breech birth, remeasure when legs are no longer in the in utero breech position |
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Term
| Normal LENGTH range for newborns? |
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Definition
| 50 cm (20 in.), ranges from 48 to 52 cm (18 to 22 in.) |
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Term
A 24hr old newborn exhibits a rash that is characterized by lesions that are discrete, 2-mm, white papules on a pink base. What term would the nurse use to define the rash?
a) Erythema toxicum
b) Milia
c) Mongolian spots
d) Telangiectatic nevus (stork bites) |
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Definition
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Term
What statement best defines cephalhematoma?
a) Diffuse edema of the scalp resulting from the compression of local blood vessels
b) Subperiosteal hemorrhage resulting from traumatic birth.
c) Temporary reshaping of the skull resulting from the pressure of birth |
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Definition
| b) Subperiosteal hemorrhage resulting from a traumatic birth |
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Term
| During assessment, the nurse bumps the bassinet and the newborn exhibits extension of the arms, with fingers forming the shape of a "C". What is the reflex known as? |
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Definition
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Term
| How should you assess for the BABINSKI REFLEX in a newborn? |
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Definition
| Stroke the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel upward and across the ball of the foot. |
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Term
Why are newborns' hands/feet often cold?
What is the term for this? |
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Definition
Due to decreased peripheral circulation, which results in vasomotor instability and capillary stasis.
Term is ACROCYANOSIS |
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Term
| What is the appropriate dose/route of Vitamin K for the newborn? |
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Definition
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Term
| Why does the newborn need an injectiion of Vit. K? |
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Definition
| The do not have the normal intestinal bacterial flora needed to synthesize Vit. K. This creates a transient blood coagulation deficiency between the second and fifth day of life. (They can't clot) |
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Term
| Where should you administer Vit.K (AquaMEPHYTON) on a newborn? |
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Definition
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Term
| Prophylactic eye ointments are installed in the newborn's eyes in the immediate newborn period to prevent (a) _______________, which is caused by (b) ____________________ |
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Definition
a) Ophthalmia Neonatorum
b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
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Term
| What are two common eye ointments that may be used on newborns? |
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Definition
1) 0.5% erythromycin
2) 1% tetracycline |
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Term
| If a newborn has a Hematocrit value of 68%, this signifies? What would be the priority nursing intervention? |
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Definition
| This value signifies POLYCYTHEMIA. The nurse should increase fluid intake. |
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Term
| If a newborn has a Hemoglobin value of 12.5 g/dl, what does this signify? What is the priority nursing intervention? |
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Definition
| This signifies ANEMIA. The nurse should ASSESS FOR RESPIRATORY DISTRESS |
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Term
| If a newborn's BILIRUBIN level is 15 mg/dl, what does this indicate? What is the priority nursing intervention? |
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Definition
| This value indicates JAUNDICE. The nurse should ASSESS NEED FOR PHOTOTHERAPY |
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Term
| If a newborn has a blood glucose level of less than 45 mg/dl, what does that signify? What are the best nursing interventions? |
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Definition
This signifies HYPOGLYCEMIA
The nurse should observe for signs of jitteriness & temperature instability. Additionally, the nurse must initiate early feedings (Breast milk or glucose water) |
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Term
| A nurse in mother-baby area (postpartum) must do what four daily assessments on a newborn? |
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Definition
1. Vital signs
2. Stool & voiding patterns
3. Caloric/fluid intake & weight pattern
4. Status of umbilical cord & if necessary (being male & parents opted for it), the status of circumcision |
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Term
| When should a newborn have their first stool? |
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Definition
| Within 12 - 24 hours or AT LEAST by 48 hours. |
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Term
| A woman asks how she can affect the number of fetal movements (ie when she is going to perform "kick counts"). What would you tell her? |
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Definition
| To eat..eating often stimulates the fetus. Also the woman should be made aware that the fetus will have intermittent sleep periods lasting 20-40 minutes. |
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Term
| What are 6 reasons an ultrasound is performed early in pregnancy (up to 24 weeks)? |
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Definition
1. Determination of gestational sac and placement of sac
2. Identification of the embryo or fetus
3. Number of embryo or fetuses
4. Presence or absence of fetal heart activity
5. Fetal Measurements for growth
6. Guidance for amniocentesis |
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Term
| Name 7 reasons why an ultrasound would be performed in late pregnancy (over 30 weeks)? |
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Definition
1. Fetal growth patterns
2. Location of placenta
3. Validating fetal presentation and position
4. Investigating congenital anomalies or problems.
5. Assessing amount of amniotic fluid
6. Completion of biophysical profile
7. Location of umbilical cord for cordocentesis |
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Term
| How should a patient prepare for an ultrasound? |
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Definition
| They should drink water to fill their bladder. |
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Term
A patient is opting for a nuchal translucency test vs. an amniocentesis. All of the following are true about a nuchal translucency test except?
a) it is a diagnostic test
b) it is a screening test
c) it screens for trisomies 13, 18, and 21
d) it cannot screen for neural tube defects |
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Definition
| a) it is a diagnostic test. This test is a "screen" if abnormal test results are found the woman will then be referred to have a diagnostic test done, such as chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis |
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Term
| What is the function of a NON-STRESS TEST? |
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Definition
| To determine fetal well being, measured by the ability of the fetus to respond to its body movement with an acceleration of the FHR |
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Term
| If you are pregnant and having a NST, what do want the result to be? |
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Definition
| REACTIVE - demonstrates the fetus can respond to its body movements with an acceleration of FHR |
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Term
| What results from a NST are considered "REACTIVE"..ie..what parameters need to be met? |
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Definition
A reactive test means that:
a) there are 2 OR MORE FETAL ACCELERATIONS WITHIN A 20-MINUTE PERIOD (with or without fetal movement discernible by the woman) &
b) the FHR ACCELERATION MUST BE AT LEAST 15 BEATS PER MINUTE ABOVE THE BASELINE AND LAST 15 SECONDS from baseline to baseline. |
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Term
| What determines a "NONREACTIVE" NST? |
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Definition
| Lack of sufficient FHR accelerations (2 in 20, 15bpm x 15 seconds), over a 40-min. period |
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Term
When is Vibroacoustic Stimulation (VAS) used?
What does it do? (how does it affect fetus)? |
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Definition
When a NST is NON-REACTIVE
A sound is transmitted through the maternal abdomen into the uterus. A fetus that is asleep will respond to the sound with an accleration in FHR |
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Term
| If a fetus is unresponsive to Vibroacoustic stimulation during an NST, what could that implicate? What should be done? |
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Definition
If the fetus in unresponsive to VAS, it could mean the fetus is STRESSED and unable to respond.
*Further assessment is needed immediately |
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Term
[image]
Is this activity considered REACTIVE OR NON-REACTIVE to a NST? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the 5 specific areas assessed in a BIOPHYSICAL PROFILE? |
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Definition
1. Fetal Breathing Movements
2. Gross Body Movements or Fetal Movements
3. Fetal Tone
4. Reactive Heart Rate or FHR acceleraton
5. Qualitative Amniotic Fluid Volume |
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Term
| How is a BIOPHYSICAL PROFILE SCORED? |
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Definition
| Each of the 5 parameters (fetal movement, fetal tone, so on..) are giving scores of 0-2. 2 being "normal" or "good", 0 being "abnormal" or "bad". Therefore 10/10 is the best score possible. |
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Term
| What are the two most important components on the BIOPHYSICAL PROFILE?WHY? |
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Definition
The NST results and the volume of amniotic fluid.
-This is because the NST reflects the intactness of the nervous system and the AFI (amniotic fluid index) reflects kidney perfusion. A normal AFI indicates that shunting has not occurred and that the fetal kidneys are adequately functioning. Reactive NST and normal fluid therefore reflect fetal well-being. |
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Term
| A fetus receives a score of 8/10 on a BIOPHYSICAL PROFILE due to abnormal fluid...What is the interpretation of this and how would it be managed? |
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Definition
| When the AFI or AMNIOTIC FLUID INDEX receives a score of 0 with all other parameters receiving scores of 2, CHRONIC FETAL ASPHYXIA is suspected and BIRTH WOULD BE INDUCED. **see table 21-6 in book |
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Term
| Why would a BIOPHYSICAL PROFILE test be given? |
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Definition
| It is given if the fetus is thought to be at risk due to maternal or fetal factors. |
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Term
| What is DECREASED AMNIOTIC FLUID associated with? How does this affect the fetus? |
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Definition
Decreased amniotic fluid is associated with OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS.
The fetus is at increased risk because the UMBILICAL CORD DOEST NOT HAVE ENOUGH FLUID TO FLOAT IN and may become COMPRESSED. |
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Term
List the Maternal & Fetal Indications for a CONTRACTION STRESS TESTS)?
..what risk factors are present that makes it valid to order this test.. |
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Definition
MATERNAL INDICATIONS include:
a) DIABETES MELLITUS
b) SUSPECTED POSTMATURITY
FETAL INDICATIONS include:
a) IUGR
b) NON-REACTIVE NST
c) ABNORMAL OR SUSPICIOUS BPP |
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Term
1. How is FETAL TONE defined?
2. How is it scored? |
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Definition
1. Fetal tone is defined by active extension and flexion of the fetal limbs, trunk, or hand; or if the hand remains in a flexed position during the entire 30-minute test.
2. A score of two is given if the hand and fingers are seen to fully extend and flex into a fist. A score of zero is given if no such movement is recorded, or with slow or partial flexion or extension. |
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Term
Which parameter on a BPP is the FIRST TO DEVELOP and the LAST ACTIVITY to cease during ASPHYXIA?
a) FHR accelerations
b) Fetal breathing
c) Fetal movements
d) Fetal tone
e) Amniotic fluid volume |
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Definition
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Term
What determines a "POSITIVE" result on a CST?
What does a positive result indicate? |
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Definition
Late decelerations occured with 50% or more of the uterine contractions
A positive result is a sign of uteroplacental insufficiency and may indicate that the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygenatiion. |
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Term
| What determines a "NEGATIVE" result on a CST? |
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Definition
| No late or significant variable decelerations |
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Term
| What determines a "EQUIVOCAL OR SUSPICIOUS" result of a CST? |
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Definition
| Intermittent late decelerations or significant variable decelerations. |
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Term
| What must occur (in the mother) for a CST to be interpreted? |
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Definition
| Once three moderately strong contractions of 40 to 60 seconds' duration have occured in 10 minutes. |
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Term
| Before an AMNIOCENTESIS is initiated (ie before the needle goes in)..What must be done? |
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Definition
| The placenta must be located via ultrasound and an appropriate pocket of fluid should be identified. |
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Term
| What are 6 nursing interventions that must be done with an AMNIOCENTESIS? |
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Definition
1. Prepare the equipment
2. CLEANSE THE ABDOMEN
3. ASSESS MATERNAL VITAL SIGNS & FHR BEFORE & AFTER amnio is completed.
4. DOCUMENT amniocentesis in patient's chart
5. Provide information
6. SUPPORT THE PATIENT |
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Term
| List 4 COMPLICATIONS of an AMNIOCENTESIS and WHY THEY OCCUR |
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Definition
1. INFECTION - from contaminating the uterine contents with pathogens
2. Continued LEAKAGE OF AMNIOTIC FLUID - from failure of the puncture site to close
3. BLEEDING - from puncture of the placenta or umbilical cord
4. IRRITATION OF UTERUS that results in CONTRACTIONS - cuz you bugged it by poking it..doesn't really say in the book but that's my guess. ANYWAY, you would treat these contractions by giving a BETA-SYMPATHOIMETIC. |
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Term
A patient asks you what the "QUADRUPLE CHECK" SCREENS for? You tell her it screens for all of the following, except:
a) Down syndrome
b) Trisomy 18
c) Neural tube defects
d) Cleft palate |
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Definition
d) Cleft Palate
*The quadruple screen is a SCREENING test that uses maternal hormone levels to determine if the mother is AT RISK for certain abnormalities such as neural tube defects, Down syndrome, and trisomy 18. The test CANNOT screen for structural or other types of birth defects. |
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Term
| What are the "normal" results of the L/S (lecithin/sphingomyelin) ratio test? What does "normal" mean? |
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Definition
| The normal results are 2:1. This indicates that the fetus has sufficient surfactant to support extrauterine respirations. |
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Term
| What are the 3 tests used to determine fetal lung materity and/or adequate surfactant amounts in the fetus? In brief, what are the results of each test that are "normal" (good)? |
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Definition
1. L/S (lecithin/sphingomyelin) Ratio - 2:1 ratio
2. Phosphatidyglycerol - Phospatidyglycerol is present in amnio fluid
3. Fluorescence polarization - Values greater than 55 mg/g in a mom w/out diabetes and 70 mg/g in a mom WITH diabetes. |
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Term
| How many ounces of breastmilk or formula does a newborn require each day? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the important immunoglobin found in breastmilk? What are it's properties? |
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Definition
Secretory IgA
It has antiviral, antibacterial, and antigenic-inhibiting properties |
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Term
| What component of breastmilk promotes myelination and neurologic development in infants? |
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Definition
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Term
| If cow's milk is given to infant's under 1 year of age, it can cause __________ & ___________ |
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Definition
|
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Term
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Definition
| An autosomial recessive disorder of galactose metabolism, after birth a baby is intolerant to milk |
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Term
| What is the normal glucose level for a newborn? **Meaning they are not hypoglycemic? |
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Definition
| Blood glucose greater than or equal to 40 mg% |
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Term
| What are 5 common signs of respiratory distress (in newborns) that the nurse should educate the parents on? |
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Definition
1. Tachypnea
2. Grunting
3. Retractions
4. Change in color
5. Nasal flaring |
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Term
| How often should a newborn's vitals be taken in the first 4 hours after birth |
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Definition
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Term
| What part of the male newborn's penis is excised during circumcision? |
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Definition
| The prepuce is separated from the glans penis. |
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Term
| Important nursing interventions post-circumcision? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What temperature ranges in a newborn are signs of illness? |
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Definition
| Axillary temperature above 38°C (100.4°F) or below 36.6°C (97.8°F) |
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Term
| What are the 4 ways in which GESTATIONAL AGE is ASSESSED? |
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Definition
1. Maternal menstrual history – age assessed by last ovulation or menstrual period
2. Ultrasound examination
3. Ballard assessment – Ballard Gestational Age assessment tool
4. Lens vascularity |
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Term
| What are the two categories of the Ballard Assessment tool? |
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Definition
External physical characteristics &
Neurologic characteristics |
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Term
| What is one of the more important things to consider when evaluating a newborn for gestational age (i.e. when giving a Ballard assessment, you need to consider this as a factor that will affect baby) |
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Definition
| Maternal analgesia and anesthesia |
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Term
| If you know the woman/baby had a long, hard labor when is the earliest you should do the second assessment of the baby? (After the initial one in the L&D room) |
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Definition
| You should wait 2 hours because the baby will be fatigued from the long labor. |
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Term
| Scarf sign vs. Square window sign(How are there results similar but different?) |
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Definition
With the scarf sign, if the infant shows no resistance than that indicates a preterm baby < 30 weeks.
Vice versa, with the square window sign, if the hand/wrist show little to no resistance (hand can be folded over onto wrist), this is an indication of a term to post-term baby 40-42weeks |
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Term
| When assessing a newborns temperature, Where should you do it & for how long? |
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Definition
| At the axillary site for at least 3 minutes. |
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Term
| What is an indicator of Sepsis in an infant? |
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Definition
| Fluctuations in temperature |
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Term
| In a newborn infant, the head circumference should be ____ cm. larger than the chest circumference |
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Definition
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Term
| After the L&D initial newborn assessment, when should the second, more comprehensive one take place? (Within what time frame) |
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Definition
| Within 1 - 4 hours of birth |
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Term
| What is a very important newborn assessment to make? |
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Definition
| You should assess for COLD STRESS |
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Term
| Do we take the blood pressure of normal newborn babies? |
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Definition
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Term
| When should the first feeding occur? |
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Definition
| Within the first hour of life |
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Term
| In the first two days of life, what is acceptable weight loss amounts for a newborn? |
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Definition
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Term
| What can mottling indicate in a newborn? |
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Definition
| The baby is COLD or has an INFECTION |
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Term
| What is the anterior fontanelle also known as? How is it shaped? |
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Definition
| AKA Bregma & it is shaped like a diamond |
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Term
| How is the POSTERIOR FONTANELLE shaped? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the differences between
CAPUT SUCCEDANEUM
&
CEPHALHEMATOMA?
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Definition
1. Cepalhematoma is a collection of blood vs. Caput Succedaneum which is a collection of fluids
2. Cephalhematoma DOES NOT cross SUTURE LINES & Caput DOES CROSS SUTURE LINES
3. Caput is PRESENT AT BIRTH or shortly thereafter & Cephalhematoma becomes apparant on FIRST OR SECOND day
4. Cephal..takes 2-3 WEEKS (Up to months) to disappear whereas Caput Suc.. is reabsorbed within 12 hours - 3 days after birth. |
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Term
| What is a physical indicator of Down syndrome in a newborn? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the term for toxic levels of bilirubin in the brain? |
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Definition
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Term
How do you assess for BRITTLE BONE DISEASE in a newborn?
What does this disease do to the body (specifically, why are you looking at the eyes to assess?) |
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Definition
1. Assess for true blue sclera (osteogenic imperfecta)
-The newborn will have defective connective tissue. Baby cannot make Type I collagen. These fibers are found in the sclera |
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Term
| What are normal B/P ranges for a newborn? |
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Definition
| 70-50 Systolic/ 50-45 Diastolic |
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Term
| What are possible complications that can occur if the baby gets stuck in delivery and gets shoulder dysplasia? |
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Definition
| Brachial Palsy or Erb-Duchenne Paralysis |
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Term
| When you examine the back for associations with any neural tube defects, what should you look for? |
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Definition
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Term
1. What is the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale?
2. Why is it done?
3. When is it usually done? |
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Definition
1. A tool used in assessing newborn's state changes, temperament, individual behavior patterns
2. Assists families in learning which responses and interventions best meet need of newborn
3. Done on 3rd day of life |
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Term
| After birth and the infant has been dried off, what are the 2 highest causes (avenues) of heat loss? |
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Definition
1. Radiation - heat xferred from body to a surface or object (walls of room or incubator, placing cold objects on top of incubator)
2. Convection - loss of body heat to cooler air currents (A/C'd rooms, unwarmed O2 by mask, removal of infant from incubator for procedures) |
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Term
| What are the normal H & H levels in Newborn Cord Blood Values? |
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Definition
Hemoglobin: 14-20 g/dl
Hematocrit: 43-63% |
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Term
| If a mother has been given meperidine (Demerol), what affect can this have on the newborn? |
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Definition
| The drug may prevent the metabolism of brown fat so you need to assess for cold stress |
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Term
| A newborn should have its first void within how many hours? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which type of immunoglobin crosses the placenta? |
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Definition
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Term
| When a newborn watches Mommy or Daddy walk across the room (follows with his eyes), what sensory capacity is he/she using? |
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Definition
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Term
| The capacity to ignore repetitious disturbing stimuli (i.e. responses become less intense when light is shined in pupil), is called? |
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Definition
| Habituation - a neonatal defense mechanism that shuts out overwhelming/disturbing stimuli |
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Term
| What is the most common fetal position (right before or at onset of labor) |
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Definition
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