Before tracer administration, all of the following preparations are required for a 27-year-old woman referred for total-body bone imaging EXCEPT:

a.  explaining the procedure to the patient

b. answering the patient's questions         

c. ruling out pregnancy                            

d.  removing attenuating materials from      

the patient.

d.  removing attenuating materials from the patient.

Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of children?

a.  diaphyses of the long bones                         

b.  breast tissue                                              

c.  costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates

d.  lumbar spine and cranium                             

c.  costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates

If tracer concentration is visualized in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most likely explanation for these findinigs is that the:

a.  patient was imaged too soon after tracer    administration.

b.  radiopharmaceutical contained excess free  ^99mTc pertechnetate.

c.  patient's renal function is compromised.    

d.  incorrect radiopharmaceutical.                  

b.  radiopharmaceutical contained excess free ^99mTc pertechnetate.

For interpretation of nuclear medicine lung images, a chest x-ray is required to:

a.  determine cardiac size                         

b.  rule out a pulmonary embolus               

c.  rule out previous lung surgery.              

d.  rule out possible causes of the patient's symptoms.

d.  rule out possible causes of the patient's symptoms.

The purpose of a charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is to absorb:

a.  bacteria         

b.  carbon dioxide

c.  moisture        

d.  xenon gas      

d.  xenon gas

Radionuclide venography may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ^99mTC-pentetate     

b.  ^99mTC-pertechnetate

c.  ^99mTc-exametazime 

d.  ^99mTc-MAA             

d.  ^99mTc-MAA

If ectopic thyroid tissue is suspected, the technologist can expect to find it most commonly in which of the following areas?

a.  in the brain                    

b.  at the base of the tongue

c.  in the mediastinum         

d.  b or c                            

d.  b or c

During parathyroid imaging, images of the chest as well as the neck are obtained to:

a.  correct the image series for patient motion.

b.  visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue.           

c.  visualize substernal thyroid tissue.            

d.  diagnose hyperparathyroidism.                  

b.  visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue.

When performing a gated equilibrium cardiac study, which of the following anatomical views best separates the right and left ventricles?

a.  left lateral              

b.  left posterior oblique

c.  left anterior oblique 

d.  anterior                  

c.  left anterior oblique

In preparation for a ²⁰¹Tl stress test, patients are instructed to fast to:

a.  prevent gastrointestinal upsets during           exercise.

b.  minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract.

c.  enhance myocardial tracer uptake.                

d.  standardize test conditions among patients.   

b.  minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract.

Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing remains in the plasma for the greatest length of time?

a.  dobutamine 

b.  adenosine   

c.  dipyridamole

d.  nitroglycerin 

c.  dipyridamole

SPECT liver imaging with ^99mTc-sulfur colloid is performed how soon after tracer administration?

a.  immediately  

b.  10-15 minutes

c.  30-45 minutes

d.  1-2 hours       

b.  10-15 minutes

Significantly increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images?

a.  colon   

b.  kidneys

c.  lungs   

d.  spleen  

b.  kidneys

Localization of a Meckel's diverticulum can be accomplished with which of the following radopharmaceuticals?

a.  ⁶⁷Ga-citrate            

b.  ^99mTc-pentetate      

c.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate

d.  ^99mTc-sulfur colloid  

c.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate

Evaluating the quality of a bolus injection is best accomplished by which of the following techniques?

a.  visually inspecting the bolus                        

b.  calculating the cardiac transit time                

c.  generating a time-activity curve for the            superior vena cava.

d.  imaging the injection site for residual activity.

c.  generating a time-activity curve for the superior vena cava.

In infants, 24-hour images are sometimes performed over what area to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux?

a.  lung fields               

b.  lower esophagus      

c.  stomach                 

d.  upper small intestine

a.  lung fields

Effective renal plasma flow (ERPF) is measured with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ^99mTc-pentetate 

b.  ^99mTc-disofenin  

c.  ^99mTc-medronate

d.  ^99mTc-mertiatide

d.  ^99mTc-mertiatide

Which of the following is/are NOT normally visualized on a ⁶⁷Ga image acquired 72 hours after tracer administration?

a.  kidneys          

b.  lacrimal glands

c.  sternum         

d.  liver               

a.  kidneys

Which of the following statements about "transmission-based precautions" is FALSE?

a.  These precautions are applied when a patient is known to be infected with a communicable disease. 

b.  These precautions must be implemented in     the case of diseases such as varicella, tuberculosis, and mumps.

c.  These precautions replace "standard               precautions."

d.  These precautions include guidelines              for airborne, droplet, and contact transmitted diseases.

c.  These precautions replace "standard precautions."

Which of the following statements is TRUE about pentetreotide?

a.  It is labeled with ^99mTc.                              

b.  It is a labeled antibody.                              

c.  It exhibits no HAMA effect.                          

d.  It is excreted exclusively through the kidneys.

c.  It exhibits no HAMA effect.

The purpose of using acetazolamide in conjunction with a brain agent is to:

a.  tranquilize the patient.                        

b.  evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia.        

c.  localize the area of the brain from which seizures arise.

d.  localize brain tumors.                          

b.  evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia.

The technologist's responsibilities during tracer administration for a cisternogram include:

a.  performing the lumbar puncture.                  

b.  obtaining consent to perform the procedure.  

c.  monitoring the patient for any adverse          reactions to the procedure.

d.  ensuring that personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity.

d.  ensuring that peronnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity.

Sodium phospate ³²P may be used to treat which of the following conditions?

a.  liver metastases    

b.  polycythemia vera   

c.  rheumatoid arthritis

d.  malignant effusions

b.  polycythemia vera

Supersaturated potassium iodide solution may be administered to the patient for therapy with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ¹⁵³Sm-lexidronam 

b.  ⁸⁹Sr-chloride        

c.  ¹³¹I-sodium iodide

d.  ¹³¹I-tositumomab 

d.  ¹³¹I-tositumomab

The first step that a technologist should initiate when a patient experiences cardiac arrest is to:

a.  perform chest compressions.

b.  establish an airway.            

c.  call for help.                      

d.  perform rescue breathing.     

c.  call for help.

¹¹¹In-pentetreotide should NOT be administered through an intravenous line containing:

a.  a total parenteral nutrition mixture.

b.  0.9% sodium chloride.                   

c.  dextrose and water.                      

d.  glucose.                                       

a.  a total parenteral nutrition mixture.

Dual isotope gastric emptying studies use which of the following radiopharmaceuticals for each phase of gastric emptying?

Liquid                                       Solid

a.  ^99mTc-sulfur colloid            ¹¹¹In-pentetate 

b.  ¹¹¹In-pentetate             ^99mTc-sulfur colloid

c.  ²⁰¹Tl-thallous chloride        ^99mTc-sestamibi

d.  ^99mTc-pentetate            ^99mTc-sulfur colloid

Liquid                            Solid

b.  ¹¹¹In-pentetate        ^99mTc-suflur colloid

Proper placement of a urine collection bag includes:

a.  placing it across the patient's lower legs          to keep it near the level of the bladder.

b.  placing it on the stretcher near the patient's        feet so that it is out of the field of view of the camera.

c.  hanging it from an IV pole and raising it above the level of the bladder.

d.  hanging it from the imaging table so that         it is lower than the level of the bladder.

d.  hanging it from the imaging table so that it is lower than the level of the bladder.

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals can be used to assess vesicoureteral reflux by the indirect method?

a.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate

b.  ^99mTc-sulfur colloid  

c.  ^99mTc-albumin        

d.  ^99mTc-pentetate     

d.  ⁹⁹ⁿTc-pentetate

Parenternal administration of a drug or radiopharmaceutical would include all of the following routes EXCEPT:

a.  intravenous   

b.  intramuscular

c.  subcutaneous

d.  oral              

d.  oral

The red cell survival test is most often performed on a patient with suspected:

a.  pernicious anemia.        

b.  intestinal malabsorption.

c.  iron deficiency anemia.   

d.  hemolytic anemia.          

d.  hemolytic anemia.

A technologist confirms a referring physician's request for a nuclear medicine procedure for a hospitalized patient by:

a.  locating the order for the test in the patient's medical record.

b.  telephoning the patient's physician                for confirmation.

c.  asking the patient why he/she came to the     nuclear medicine department.

d.  conferring with the nuclear medicine             physician.

a.  locating the order for the test in the patient's medical record.

Which type of collimator should be used for organ counting during a red cell sequestration study?

a.  low-energy, high-sensitivity parallel-hole 

b.  high-energy, low-resolution parallel hole  

c.  pinhole                                                

d.  flat-field                                              

d.  flat-field

If a plasma volume has been determined to be 15 L, which of the following events has most likely occurred?

a.  completion of a satisfactory study    

b.  overhydration of the patient             

c.  leakage of tracer from the circulation

d.  infiltration of the tracer                   

d.  infiltration of the tracer

A biohazard warning label would be found on all of the following EXCEPT a:

a.  contaminated sharps container.                  

b.  refrigerator containing potentially infectious material.

c.  receptacle for contaminated laundry.          

d.  unit of blood released for clinical use.        

d.  unit of blood released for clinical use.

The total blood volume may be calculated by dividing the plasma volume measured with labeled albumin by the:

a.  hematocrit.              

b.  plasmacrit.              

c.  corrected hematocrit.

d.  corrected plasmacrit. 

d.  corrected plasmacrit.

If radioactivity in the circulation from a previous nuclear medicine test is unaccounted for, results of a plasma volume determination will be:

a.  unaffected.               

b.  falsely elevated.       

c.  falsely decreased.     

d.  impossible to predict.

c.  falsely decreased

The recommended amount, in milligrams, of nonradioactive vitamin B₁₂ administered to a patient during a Schilling test is:

a.  1     

b.  10   

c.  100 

d.  1000

a.  1

Imaging with ¹¹¹In-pentetreotide routinely includes what areas of the body?

a.  head and chest         

b.  chest                       

c.  abdomen                 

d.  head to upper femurs

d.  head to upper femurs

A patient scheduled for scintimammography has symptoms involving her left breast.  Which of the following sites is the best choice for injection of the radiopharmaceutical?

a.  right antecubital area

b.  right carotid artery    

c.  left carotid artery     

d.  left hand                 

a.  right antecubital area

If a ⁹⁹Mo/^99mTc generator is eluted on Monday at 0600, the maximum ^99mTc activity could next be eluted at what time?

a.  1200, Monday     

b.  1800, Monday     

c.  0600, Tuesday    

d.  0600, Wednesday

c.  0600, Tuesday

According to the NRC, ⁹⁹Mo contamination in ^99mTc eluate must be measured how often?

a.  weekly                     

b.  daily                        

c.  after each elution      

d.  only after first elution

d.  only after first elution

A technologist performs an aluminum ion breakthrough test on ^99mTc eluate and obtains the following results:  When the indicator paper is spotted with aluminum ion solution, a faint red color is observed, but when the paper is spotted with eluate, no color change is observed.  These results indicate:

a.  the absence of radionuclidic impurities in the eluate.

b.  that the aluminum ion concentration in the    eluate is below the USP limit.

c.  that the eluate should be discarded.           

d.  that the aluminum ion solution contains less aluminum than the eluate.

b.  that the aluminum ion concentration in the eluate is below the USP limit.

All of the following procedures may be performed with ^99mTc-sulfur colloid EXCEPT:

a.  gastric emptying study.                    

b.  gastroesophageal reflux study.          

c.  gastrointestinal bleeding localization.

d.  Meckel's diverticulum localization.      

d.  Meckel's diverticulum localization.

Based on the day's clinic schedule shown here:

Patient                                     Procedure

Patient A                Thyroid uptake and image

Patient B            Therapy for hyperthyroidism

Patient C                    Cisternogram      

the technologist should prepare or order which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ¹³¹I-human serum albumin, ¹³¹I-sodium      iodide, and ^99mTc-pertechnetate. 

b.  ¹¹¹In-oxine and ¹²³I-sodium iodide.           

c.  ¹²³I-sodium iodide, ¹³¹I-sodium iodide, and ¹¹¹In-pentetate

d.  ¹³¹I-sodium iodide and ¹¹¹In-chloride        

c.  ¹²³I-sodium iodide, ¹³¹I-sodium iodide, and ¹¹¹In-pentetate

If an MAA kit must be reconstituted with 3.5 mL of ^99mTc-pertechnetate, what are the consequences if only 2.0 mL are added to the kit?

a.  Patients will receive fewer MAA particles per    mL of ^99mTc-MAA.

b.  Patients will receive more MAA particles per     mL of ^99mTc-MAA.

c.  Patients will receive the recommended number of particles if the correct activity is administered.

d.  the resulting perfusion lung images will have   the appearance of decreased tracer uptake.

b.  Patients will receive more MAA particles per mL of ^99mTc-MAA.

Reconstituted "cold" pyrophosphate is administered to the patient in which red blood cell labeling method(s)?

a.  in vitro method             

b.  in vivo method             

c.  modified in vivo method

d.  both b and c                

d.  both b and c

Which of the following radiopharmaceutical kit formulations is light sensitive?

a.  sestamibi     

b.  oxidronate    

c.  mertiatide    

d.  exametazime

c.  mertiatide

According to the USP, to be administered to patients, most ^99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals should have a radiochemical purity of at least what percentage?

a.  98%

b.  95%

c.  90%

d.  88%

c.  90%

Which radiopharmaceutical is used to label red blood cells with ^99mTc?

a.  ^99mTc-albumin         

b.  ^99mTc-exametazime 

c.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate

d.  ^99mTc-pyrophosphate

c.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used to label white blood cells with ^99mTc?

a.  ^99mTc-bicisate        

b.  ^99mTc-exametazime 

c.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate

d.  ^99mTc-sestamibi      

b.  ^99mTc-exametazime

When ^99mTc-exametazime is used to label white blood cells, which of the following reagents is omitted from its preparation?

a.  99mTc-pertechnetate      

b.  0.9% sodium chloride      

c.  methylene blue stabilizer

d.  ACD solution                  

c.  methylene blue stabilizer

In labeling red blood cells with radiochromium, the order of components to be added to the vial containing ACD solution is:

a.  patient blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid.

b.  radiochromium, patient blood, ascorbic acid.

c.  radiochromium, ascorbic acid, patient blood.

d.  ascorbic acid, radiochromium, patient blood.

a.  patient blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid.

According to the NRC, imaging rooms should be posted with which of the following signs?

a.  No posting required                

b.  Caution:  Radioactive Materials

c.  Caution:  Radiation Area         

d.  Caution:  High Radiation Area  

b.  Caution:  Radioactive Materials

A patient receives a unit dosage of ⁸⁹Sr-chloride intended for another patient.  Which of the following statements about this situation is TRUE?

a.  Because the patient received only a unit         dosage of ⁸⁹Sr, no report to the NRC is required.

b.  According to the NRC, this does not constitute a medical event, but a department record should be maintained.

c.  The situation describes a medical event that   needs to be reported only to the nuclear medicine supervisor and the authorized user.

d.  The situation describes a medical event         requiring notification of the NRC.

d.  The situation describes a medical event         requiring notification of the NRC.

According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is:

a.  500 mSv.

b.  150 mSv.

c.  50 mSv. 

d.  5 mSv.   

b.  150 mSv.

A vial of ¹³³Xe has been decayed in storage for 2 months.  When the vial is monitored with a  survey meter, the reading is twice the background radiation level.  What should the technologist do next?

a.  Remove any radiation symbols from the vial, then dispose of it.

b.  Return the vial to storage.                         

c.  Dispose of the vial as biohazardous waste.  

d.  Vent the radioactivity left in the vial into a   fume hood.

b.  Return the vial to storage.

According to the NRC, wipe tests of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be performed:

a.  on a reasonable schedule.                       

b.  every day radiopharmaceuticals are used.   

c.  weekly                                                  

d.  only if contaimination occurs.                   

a.  on a reasonable schedule.                       

When opening packages containing radioactive material, which of the following steps should be performed FIRST?

a.  Visually inspect the package for damage or leakage.

b.  Put on disposable gloves.                        

c.  Verify the package contents against the     packing slip.

d.  Wipe test the package for contamination.  

b.  Put on disposable gloves.

During clean-up of a radioactive spill, decontamination of the area must continue until:

a.  no more contamination can be removed from   the area.

b.  the exposure rate cannot be distinguished      from background activity.

c.  the contamination is reduced to a small area.

d.  no one would receive the maximum allowable TEDE if he/she remained in the area.

a.  no more contamination can be removed from the area.

Personnel must wear a radiation monitoring device during work hours if they are:

a.  exposed to radiation at any time during work   hours.

b.  exposed to radiation above background levels.

c.  likely to exceed 10% of the annual maximum   allowable occupational exposure.

d.  likely to exceed the annual maximum              allowable occupational exposure.

c.  likely to exceed 10% of the annual maximum   allowable occupational exposure.

A patient can be released after receiving a therapeutic radiopharmaceutical if no other individual is likely to receive an exposure dose exceeding how many rems from being exposed to the patient?

a.  0.1

b.  0.2

c.  0.5

d.  5.0

c.  0.5

According to the NRC, records of surveys must be retained for how many years?

a.  1 year                                                 

b.  3 years                                                

c.  5 years                                                

d.  as long as the facility's license is in affect

b.  3 years

Which of the following materials is recommended for shielding syringes containing positron-emitting radionuclides?

a.  lead                 

b.  plastic-lined lead

c.  tungsten           

d.  steel                 

c.  tungsten

If a nuclear medicine technologist needs a diagnostic x-ray, how should this exposure be included in his/her occupational exposure record?

a.  The technologist should wear his/her           radiation dosimeter during the x-ray examination.

b.  The RSO will estimate the probable exposure and add it to the technologist's permanent record.

c.  The RSO will supply a separate dosimeter for the technologist to wear during the x-ray examination.

d.  The exposure from the x-ray examination       must not be included in the occupation exposure record.

d.  The exposure from the x-ray examination       must not be included in the occupation exposure record.

According to the standard of practice, if the results of a dose calibrator linearity test demonstrate that the measured values exceed the values by 12-15%, the technologist should:

a.  replace the instrument                        

b.  have the instrument repaired                

c.  use a correction factor to determine true activities.

d.  use the actual dose calibrator activity     readings.

c.  use a correction factor to determine true activities.

According to the standard of practice, how often should dose calibrator linearity testing be performed?

a.  annually

b.  quarterly

c.  monthly

d.  daily     

b.  quarterly

Which of the following sources is the most appropriate for assessing dose calibrator constancy?

a.  ^99mTc

b.  ¹³⁷Cs

c.  ¹²⁵I  

d.  ¹³¹I  

b.  ¹³⁷Cs

Which of the following statements about the effect of the filter-cutoff frequency is TRUE?

a.  The lower the cutoff frequency, the smoother the image.

b.  The lower the cutoff frequency, the noisier the image.

c.  Adjusting the cutoff frequency will not affect    image appearance.

d.  The cutoff frequency cannot be adjusted after the image has been acquired.

a.  The lower the cutoff frequency, the smoother the image.

Temporal resolution is related to which of the following acquisition paramenters?

a.  percent energy window

b.  matrix size                 

c.  framing rate               

d.  collimator                   

c.  framing rate

Temporal smoothing could be appropriately applied in which of the following studies?

a.  whole-body bone image                       

b.  gated-equilibrium cardiac function study

c.  SPECT study of the liver                      

d.  thyroid image                                    

b.  gated-equilibrium cardiac function study

Which of the following instruments should be used to determine if all removable contamination has been eliminated?

a.  Geiger-Mueller counter          

b.  cutie pie (ionization chamber)

c.  well counter                        

d.  uptake probe                       

c.  well counter

Which of the following matrix sizes and acquisition modes would be most appropriate for a blood flow study of the feet?

a.  64x64 byte   

b.  64x64 word   

c.  256x256 byte

d.  256x256 word

a.  64x64 byte

A daily uniformity flood for a scintillation camera should contain a minimum of how many counts?

a.  1-2 million   

b.  3-5 million   

c.  6-10 million 

d.  20-30 million

b.  3-5 million

A pinhole collimator is moved farther away from the thyroid, how will it affect the image?

a.  The gland will appear larger                 

b.  The gland will appear smaller               

c.  Right and left are reversed                  

d.  There is no change in size or orientation

b.  The gland will appear smaller

Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer administration to an adult?

a.  30 minutes

b.  1 hour      

c.  2-3 hours 

d.  24 hours  

c.  2-3 hours

Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of adults?

a.  anterior iliac crests    

b.  glenoid fossa            

c.  sternoclavicular joints

d.  all of the above         

d.  all of the above

It is safe to block the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with suspected pulmonary emboli because:

a.  number of injected particles blocks only a        small number of precapillary arterioles.

b.  particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum.

c.  particles are rapidly phagocytized by lung        macro-phages.

d.  albumin is denatured before it is made into    particles.

a.  number of injected particles blocks only a small number of precapillary arterioles.

A nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung ventilation radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ^81mKr gas                               

b.  ¹³³Xe gas                               

c.  ^99mTc-pentetate                      

d.  ^99mTc-macroaggregated albumin

c.  ^99mTc-pentetate

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be used to image acute deep vein thrombosis in the lower extremities?

a.  ^99mTc-apcitide      

b.  ^99mTc-arcitumomab

c.  ¹³¹I-iobenguane    

d.  ¹¹¹In-oxyquinoline 

a.  ^99mTc-apcitide

In performing radionuclide venography with ^99mTc-MAA, the radiopharmaceutical is administered at what site?

a.  antecubital area of either arm   

b.  either femoral vein                  

c.  dorsal veins on top of each foot

d.  either basilic vein                    

c.  dorsal veins on top of each foot

After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally will demonstrate tracer concentration in which of the following areas?

a.  liver, lungs, and bones                          

b.  salivary glands, stomach, and bladder     

c.  liver, salivery glands, stomach, and lungs

d.  bladder, liver, and brain                        

b.  salivary glands, stomach, and bladder

A parathyroid adenoma will concentrate which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ¹²³I-sodium iodide                    

b.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate                 

c.  ^99mTc-sestamibi                       

d.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate or sestamibi

c.  ^99mTc-sestamibi

When positioning a patient for an LAO view of a gated equilibrium ventricular function study, tilting the camera detector toward the patient's feet separates what two structures?

a.  left ventricle and aorta       

b.  left ventrical and left atrium

c.  left and right atria              

d.  left and right ventricles       

b.  left ventrical and left atrium

Which tracer is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary system?

a.  ^99mTc-sestamibi        

b.  ^99mTc-exametazime   

c.  ^99mTc-medronate       

d.  ²⁰¹Tl-thallous chloride

a.  ^99mTc-sestamibi

A cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many electrodes on the patient's body?

a.  3 

b.  6 

c.  10

d.  12

c.  10

Visualization of bone marrow uptake on a ^99mTc-sulfur colloid liver/spleen image is most likely the result of which of the following?

a.  improper colloid particle size      

b.  insufficient tracer circulation time

c.  liver dysfunction                       

d.  overactive bone marrow             

c.  liver dysfunction

During hepatobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be visualized if cystic duct obstruction is present?

a.  common hepatic duct

b.  common bile duct     

c.  gallbladder              

d.  small intestine         

c.  gallbladder

All of the following ^99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals may be appropriate for performing a left-to-right cardiac shunt examination using the first-pass method EXCEPT:

a.  sulfur colloid

b.  pentetate    

c.  sestamibi    

d.  tetrofosmin 

a.  sulfur colloid

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is measured with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ^99mTc-pentetate 

b.  ^99mTc-succimer   

c.  ^99mTc-gluceptate

d.  ^99mTc-mertiatide

a.  ^99mTc-pentetate

Radionuclide cystography is performed by the direct method using which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ^99mTc-pentetate or ^99mTc-medronate        

b.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate or ^99mTc-sulfur colloid

c.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate or ^99mTc-mertiatide   

d.  ^99mTc-gluceptate or ^99mTc-sulfur colloid    

b.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate or ^99mTc-sulfur colloid

Filtered ^99mTc-sulfur colloid is required for which of the following examinations?

a.  gastroesophageal reflux

b.  gastric emptying          

c.  LeVeen shunt patency  

d.  lymphoscintigraphy      

d.  lymphoscintigraphy      

A patient with a nasogastric tube in place is transferred to the nuclear medicine department for an imaging procedure.  The technologist should:

a.  confirm physician orders for transfer and      reestablish suction if required.

b.  remove the nasogastric tube because it will interfere with the imaging procedure.

c.  use the nasogastric tube to administer the  radiopharmaceutical.

d.  cancel the study because the presence of a nasogastric tube precludes any imaging procedure being performed.

a.  confirm physician orders for transfer and      reestablish suction if required.

The appearance of what structure indicates the beginning of the venous phase of a cerebral blood flow study?

a.  anterior cerebral arteries

b.  carotid arteries             

c.  nasopharynx                 

d.  superior sagittal sinus    

d.  superior sagittal sinus    

In performing cisternography, the purpose of acquiring the first image over the lower thoracic/lumbar spine is to ascertain:

a.  the site of tracer administration                  

b.  the flow rate of the cerebral spinal fluid       

c.  that the tracer was not infiltrated               

d.  that the spinal cord was not damaged during tracer administration

c.  that the tracer was not infiltrated               

⁸⁹Sr-chloride is used to treat which of the following conditions?

a.  bone pain             

b.  polycythemia vera  

c.  rheumatoid arthritis

d.  malignant effusions

a.  bone pain             

Whole body imaging with ¹³¹I-sodium iodide is optimal how long after tracer administration?

a.  12 hours            

b.  18-24 hours        

c.  48-72 hours        

d.  96 hours or longer

c.  48-72 hours        

A patient undergoing an imaging procedure indicates to the technologist that a seizure is impending.  The most appropriate action for the technologist is to:

a.  instruct the patient to breathe deeply to help increase oxygen levels in the brain.

b.  ignore the patient's concerns because           the timing of seizures cannot be predicted.

c.  increase the number of physical restraints on the patient in order to prevent patient movement and injury.

d.  stop the imaging procedure and have the       patient lie on the floor with a pillow supporting the head.

d.  stop the imaging procedure and have the       patient lie on the floor with a pillow supporting the head.

After administration of ¹¹¹In-pentetreotide, which areas of the body should be imaged?

a.  anterior and posterior chest                      

b.  anterior and posterior abdomen                 

c.  anterior and posterior whole body              

d.  anterior, posterior, and laterals of head and neck

c.  anterior and posterior whole body              

Which of the following is the initial positioning for visualizing gastrointestinal bleeding with labeled red blood cells?

a.  xiphoid in middle of field of view                   

b.  symphysis pubis in middle of field of view      

c.  lower border of liver and spleen at top of field of view

d.  lower esophagus at top of field of view          

c.  lower border of liver and spleen at top of field of view

Which of the following tracers is preferred if a first-pass stress and rest cardiac function examination is to be performed on a patient?

a.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate

b.  ^99mTc-medronate    

c.  ^99mTc-pentetate     

d.  ^99mTc-sestamibi     

c.  ^99mTc-pentetate     

Patient preparation for breast imaging with 99mTc-sestamibi includes which of the following?

a.  explanation of the procedure        

b.  fasting for 8 hours before tracer     administration

c.  discontinuation of any medications

d.  consumption of a fatty meal         

a.  explanation of the procedure        

A Schilling test may be ordered for a patient with suspected:

a.  hemolytic anemia      

b.  pernicious anemia      

c.  iron deficiency anemia

d.  lymphocytic anemia    

b.  pernicious anemia      

Which of the following areas would NOT be an appropriate site for the vitamin B₁₂ injection administered during a Schilling test?

a.  upper arm                              

b.  posterior hip                           

c.  lateral aspect of the thigh        

d.  posterior aspect of the lower leg

d.  posterior aspect of the lower leg

A patient's plasmacrit may be determined by:

a.  multiplying the patient's heatocrit by 0.9 

b.  subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1

c.  finding the ratio of plasma volume to        red blood cell volume

d.  dividing 1 by the decimal hematocrit        

b.  subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1

During a red cell sequestration study, counts are obtained from all of the following organs EXCEPT the:

a.  liver    

b.  spleen  

c.  heart   

d.  kidneys

d.  kidneys

In performing a plasma volume with ¹²⁵I-albumin, three blood samples are collected at varying times after tracer administration and counted.  These counts vs. time are plotted on semilog graph paper.  The purpose of this graph is to:

a.  give a visual representation of the data         

b.  obtain the half-time clearance value used in     the calculations.

c.  correct for leakage of the radiopharmaceutical.

d.  show the decay of the radionuclide.               

c.  correct for leakage of the radiopharmaceutical.

Patient preparation for a thyroid uptake test may include discontinuation of antithyroid medications.  Which of the following is one of these antithyroid drugs?

a.  synthroid                  

b.  potassium perchlorate

c.  propylthiouracil         

d.  thyroxine                  

c.  propylthiouracil         

During a radiochromium red cell mass determination, an infusion set may be used to place a needle in the patient's antecubital vein.  To maintain the patency fo the infusion set tubing, what substance should be injected into the infusion set tubing?

a.  heparin                

b.  normal saline        

c.  ACD solution         

d.  bacteriostatic water

a.  heparin                

In case of insulinoma, which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may cause hypoglycemia?

a.  ¹¹¹In-pentetreotide    

b.  ^99mTc-sestamibi         

c.  ⁶⁷Ga-citrate               

d.  ¹⁸F-fluorodeoxyglucose

a.  ¹¹¹In-pentetreotide    

Which of the following structures is normally visualized on an image performed with ¹⁸F-fluorodeoxyglucose?

a.  thyroid          

b.  brain             

c.  pituitary gland

d.  pancreas        

b.  brain             

The ¹⁴C-urea breath test is used to:

a.  detect the presence of peptic ulcers         

b.  detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria

c.  identify gastric cancers                          

d.  rule out Zollinger-Ellison syndrome         

b.  detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria

If no eluate is obtained during generator elution, the technologist should next:

a.  attempt elution with another evacuated        elution vial.

b.  contact the generator manufacturer.             

c.  check the generator tubing for kinks or leaks.

d.  add more saline to the generator column.      

a.  attempt elution with another evacuated        elution vial.

According to the NRC, records of ⁹⁹Mo concentration in ^99mTc eluate must be maintained how long?

a.  1 year   

b.  3 years  

c.  5 years 

d.  10 years

b.  3 years  

According to the NRC, the concentration of what radionuclide impurity must be determined after the first elution of a ⁹⁹Mo/^99mTc generator.

a.  Al⁺³                       

b.  free pertechnetate

c.  ⁹⁹Mo                   

d.  a and c                

c.  ⁹⁹Mo                   

Based on the day's clinic schedule shown here:

Patient                                            Procedure

Patient A                           Renal function study

Patient B                        Total body bone image

Patient C          Meckel's diverticulum localization

Patient D                             Hepatobiliary Study

the technologist should prepare or order all of the following radiopharmaceuticals EXCEPT:

a.  ^99mTc-MAA          

b.  _^99mTc-mebrofenin 

c.  ^99mTc-medronate 

d.  ^99mTc-mertiatide  

a.  ^99mTc-MAA          

According to NRC regulatoins, records of written directives must be maintained for how long?

a.  3 years      

b.  5 years      

c.  10 years    

d.  Indefinitely

a.  3 years      

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals should be prepared if a renal function study is being performed to determine the glomerular filtration rate?

a.  ^99mTc-gluceptate 

b.  ^99mTc-mertiatide 

c.  ^99mTc-pentetate 

d.  ^99mTc-succimer   

c.  ^99mTc-pentetate 

Heating is required during the preparation of all the following ^99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals EXCEPT:

a.  bicisate      

b.  mertiatide   

c.  sestamibi    

d.  sulfur colloid

a.  bicisate

All of the following units are expressions of radiopharmaceutical specific activity EXCEPT:

a.  uCi/mg    

b.  kBq/mL    

c.  Ci/g         

d.  MBq/mole 

b.  kBq/mL    

When red blood cells are labeled with ^99mTc using in vivo method, in what order are the reagents injected into the patient?

a.  Stannous pyrophosphate and ^99mTc-             pertechnetate are administred at the same time.

b.  Stannous pyrophosphate is administered 15-30 minutes before ^99mTc-pertechnetate.

c.  Stannous pyrophosphate is administered 2-3 hours before ^99mTc-pertechnetate.

d.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate is administered 15-30    minutes before stannous pyrophosphate.

b.  Stannous pyrophosphate is administered 15-30 minutes before ^99mTc-pertechnetate.

Venipuncture materials labeled with which of the following expiration dates may be used safely on August 10, 2005?

I.  July 31, 2005

II.  August 31, 2005

III.  September 30, 2005

IV.  October 1, 2006

a.  IV only              

b.  III or IV only      

c.  II, III, or IV only

d.  I, II, III, or IV    

c.  II, III, or IV only

According to NRC regulations, which of the following information must appear in the record of ⁹⁹Mo concentration measurements?

a.  ratio of ⁹⁹Mo to ^99mTc activities                  

b.  time and date of measurement                   

c.  name of individual making the measurement

d.  all of the above                                        

d.  all of the above   

According to the NRC, a written directive must be prepared for administration of which fo the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  1 mCi ¹¹¹In-oxine          

b.  5 mCi ¹³¹I-sodium iodide

c.  10 mCi ⁶⁷Ga-citrate       

d.  30 mCi ^99mTc-sestamibi  

b.  5 mCi ¹³¹I-sodium iodide

If ^99mTc eluate needs to be diluted to prepare ^99mTc-labeled products, the correct diluent is which of the following?

a.  sterile saline containing 0.2% thiosulfate

b.  preservative free isotonic saline             

c.  bacteriostatic saline                             

d.  distilled water                                     

b.  preservative free isotonic saline             

Which of the following federal (U.S.) agencies regulates the packaging and transport of radioactive materials?

a.  Department of Transportation    

b.  Environmental Protection Agency

c.  Food and Drug Administration    

d.  Nuclear Regulatory Commission  

a.  Department of Transportation    

According to the NRC, a written directive is required for the administration of all of the following radiopharmaceuticals EXCEPT:

a.  25 mCi ¹³¹I-sodium iodide     

b.  20 mCi ¹⁸F-FDG                    

c.  15 mCi ³²P-sodium phosphate

d.  10 mCi ⁸⁹Sr-chloride              

b.  20 mCi ¹⁸F-FDG

According to NRC regulations, which of the following cannot be disposed of in the sewage system?

a.  disposable diaper of a child who has               received ⁶⁷Ga

b.  feces from a patient who received ¹³¹I therapy

c.  unused ¹²³I-sodium iodide capsules               

d.  urine from a Shilling test                              

c.  unused ¹²³I-sodium iodide capsules               

In performing a room survey with an end window G-M counter, the technologist should FIRST:

a.  measure the room background                    

b.  perform a battery check on the counter        

c.  measure each area designated on the survey diagram

d.  perform a wipe test on the designated area 

b.  perform a battery check on the counter        

A technologist monitors the empty carton from a shipment of ¹³¹I-sodium iodide.  The container measures 0.08 mR/h, and room background measure 0.07 mR/h.  The technologist should next:

a.  obliterate any radiation symbols and dispose   of the container in regular trash.

b.  dispose of the container as radioactive waste.

c.  wipe test the container for contamination.     

d.  notify the NRC.                                          

a.  obliterate any radiation symbols and dispose   of the container in regular trash.

According to NRC regulations, in what areas can radioxenon be administered?

a.  in any room that can be closed off with doors 

b.  only in rooms that have xenon alarm systems 

c.  only in imaging rooms that can be negatively   pressurized

d.  in any room where a radioxenon trapping         device is used

c.  only in imaging rooms that can be negatively   pressurized

When can a decay factor be used to calibrate a unit dosage in place of measuring the dosage ina  dose calibrator?

a.  A dose calibrator must be used to measure  every dosage.

b.  Only if a unit dosage was not manipulated   after preparation and calibration.

c.  Only if the dosage contains ^99mTc.             

d.  Only if the dosage contains less than 1 mCi activity.

b.  Only if a unit dosage was not manipulated   after preparation and calibration.

A patient received 5 mCi of ¹³¹I-sodium iodide for treatment of hyperthyroidism.  The patient should adhere to all of the following instructions EXCEPT:

a.  minimize close contact with others.

b.  wash hands after using the toilet.  

c.  remain at home at least 30 days.   

d.  drink plenty of fluids.                    

c.  remain at home at least 30 days.   

After a ^99mTc spill, decontamination procedures have not been able to remove all of the spilled material.  If the current exposure rate is 32mR/h, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to 2mR/h?

a.  16 hours

b.  18 hours

c.  24 hours

d.  30 hours

c.  24 hours

If a patient must be hospitablized in isolation after receiving high activity of ¹³¹I, which of the following signs must be placed on the isolation room?

a.  Authorized Personnel Only                           

b.  Sign noting the length of time a visitor may    stay in the room

c.  Reverse Isolation Procedures Required          

d.  Sign-in sheet to record name and age of each visitor

b.  Sign noting the length of time a visitor may    stay in the room

How soon after a misadministration has occurred must the NRC be notified?

a.  telephone notification no later than the   following calendar day

b.  telephone notification within 72 hours    

c.  written report within 5 regular work days

d.  written report within 30 calendar days    

a.  telephone notification no later than the   following calendar day

According to the NRC, written instructions must be provided to a patient who has received radionuclide therapy when:

a.  the patient is a female of childbearing age     

b.  the patient resides with children younger than 18 years of age

c.   another individual may receive an exposure     greater than 0.1 rem from the patient

d.  Every patient must receive instructions,          regardless of dosage

c.   another individual may receive an exposure     greater than 0.1 rem from the patient

Which of the following statement is TRUE about the shielding method of performing a dose calibrator linearity test?

a.  When the shields are first used, the decay     method must be used to confirm their accuracy.

b.  Only a few microcuries of radioactivity are      needed to perform the test.

c.  Linearity must be tested more frequently if    this method is used.

d.  A different source activity is required for each shield combination.

a.  When the shields are first used, the decay     method must be used to confirm their accuracy.

To perform a constancy test on a dose calibrator that is being used in a general nuclear medicine imaging department, the best choice of radionuclide settings on which to count the reference standard woudl include which of the following?

a.  ¹²³I, ¹²⁵I, ¹³¹I    

b.  ¹²⁵I, ⁵⁷Co, ¹³⁷Cs 

c.  ^99mTC, ²⁰¹Tl, ¹²³I

d.  ⁵⁷Co, ¹³⁷Cs, ¹³¹I 

c.  ^99mTC, ²⁰¹Tl, ¹²³I

Which of the following filters is a high-pass filter?

a.  Butterworth

b.  Hanning     

c.  Parzen       

d.  Ramp         

d.  Ramp         

In quantitating scintillation camera detector uniformity, the central field of view (CFOV) is defined as the diameter of the useful field of view (UFOV) times:

a.  0.75

b.  0.5  

c.  0.33

d.  0.25

a.  0.75

When the heart rate is 95 beats/min, what is the length of an average R-R interval?

a.  0.5 seconds  

b.  0.63 seconds

c.  1 second     

d.  1.6 seconds 

b.  0.63 seconds

60 seconds                 

95 beats/min         = 0.63

Coincidence loss is likely to occur when using a well counter if the:

a.  energy of the radionuclide is below 50 keV.  

b.  energy of the radionuclide is above 300 keV.

c.  activity of the source is below 1 uCi.           

d.  activity of the source is above 2 mCi.          

d.  activity of the source is above 2 mCi.           

In order to assure a maximum error of 2% at the 95% confidence level, all samples that are measured in a well counter should be counted for a time interval that produces at least:

a.  10,000 counts

b.  5,000 counts  

c.  1,000 cpm     

d.  500 cpm        

b.  5,000 counts  

Static bone imaging is performed several hours after tracer administration to permit:

a.  maximum tracer uptake in the skeleton  

b.  blood clearance of excess tracer            

c.  tracer clearance from sites of infiltration

d.  tracer clearance from normal bone tissue

b.  blood clearance of excess tracer            

For which of the following clinical indications would limited bone imaging ("spot" views) be most appropriate?

a.  evaluate temporomandibular joint pain          

b.  evaluate Paget's disease                              

c.  rule out skeletal metastases                        

d.  history of child abuse; rule out occult fractures

a.  evaluate temporomandibular joint pain          

Three or four-phase bone imaging is particularly useful when which of the following conditions is suspected?

a.  skeletal metastases

b.  osteoporosis          

c.  osteomyelitis         

d.  stress fracture        

c.  osteomyelitis 

The standard views performed in a lung perfusion study are:

a.  anterior and posterior only                           

b.  posterior and obliques only                          

c.  anterior, posterior, and lateral of the affected lung

d.  anterior, posterior, laterals, and obliques.      

d.  anterior, posterior, laterals, and obliques.      

Upon completion of an imaging procedure, the patient sits up quickly and complains of dizziness and feeling faint.  The most appropriate action for the technologist would be to:

a.  talk with the patient and have the patient   breathe slowly and deeply.

b.  check vital signs.                                     

c.  have the patient lie down again.               

d.  have the patient stand and walk around the room.

a.  talk with the patient and have the patient   breathe slowly and deeply.

All of the following statements about performing a lung ventilation study with ^99mTC-pentetate aerosol are TRUE EXCEPT:

a.  Multiple projections may be obtained with       one dose of tracer.

b.  The patient is disconnected from the nebulizer after inhalation of the aerosol.

c.  The patient is imaged while inhaling particles 

  from the nebulizer.

d.  The face mask, tubing, and nebulizer must be disposed of as radioactive waster.

c.  The patient is imaged while inhaling particles 

  from the nebulizer.

The purpose of wrapping the legs with elastic bandages before performing a radionuclide venogram with ^99mTc-MAA is to:

a.  distend the veins in the feet.                       

b.  suppress superficial circulation.                    

c.  prevent blood clots from traveling to the lung.

d.  trap the tracer int he lower extremities.         

b.  suppress superficial circulation.                    

When the radiation level coming from a radioiodine therapy patient in isolation is measured, it should be measured:

a.  every day                                                

b.  every day at the same time                        

c.  at the same distance from the patient each   time

d.  every day and at the same distance from the patient each time.

d.  every day and at the same distance from the patient each time.

The function of a draw sheet is to provide:

a.  warmth to the patient during the procedure. 

b.  support for the patient during a stretcher to  bed transfer.

c.  protection from infectious disease.             

d.  patient privacy during an imaging procedure.

b.  support for the patient during a stretcher to  bed transfer.

A gated equilibrium ventricular function study can be performed with which of the following ^99mTc-labeled tracers?

a.  pentetate                 

b.  medronate                

c.  pyrophosphate          

d.  human serum albumin

d.  human serum albumin

Stress/rest myocardial imaging performed with ^99mTc-sestamibi required two administrations of tracer, because the tracer:

a.  does not redistribute once it has been taken up by the myocardium.

b.  rapidly washes out of the myocardum          after administration.

c.  has too short a half-life to permit delayed    imaging.

d.  must be administered immediately after its preparation.

a.  does not redistribute once it has been taken up by the myocardium.

In a normal hepatobiliary study, which of the following structures will NOT be visualized?

a.  liver                  

b.  spleen               

c.  common bile duct

d.  gallbladder         

b.  spleen               

In preparation for hepatobiliary imaging, patients are required to fast to:

a.  prevent renal uptake of the tracer       

b.  enhance liver uptake of the tracer       

c.  avoid stimulating the gallbladder        

d.  minimize the risk of radioactive emesis

c.  avoid stimulating the gallbladder        

To determine the patency of a LeVeen shunt, the radiopharmaceutical is administered into:

a.  a vein                     

b.  the peritoneal cavity 

c.  the intrathecal space

d.  the shunt tubing      

b.  the peritoneal cavity 

Which of the following is the correct patient/camera positioning for imaging a transplanted kidney?

Patient position                    Camera placement

a.  upright                                 anterior  

b.  upright                                 posterior

c.  supine                                  anterior  

d.  supine                                  posterior 

c.  supine                                  anterior  

In performing an effective renal plasma flow determination, the injection site should be imaged to:

a.  quantitate the amount of tracer deposited at the injection site.

b.  rule out tracer infiltration.                          

c.  calculate the amount of injected activity.     

d.  correct the kidney transit time of the tracer. 

b.  rule out tracer infiltration.                          

All of the following conditions may demonstrate uptake of ¹¹¹In-labeled leukocytes EXCEPT:

a.  osteomyelitis          

b.  dental abscess        

c.  pulmonary embolism

d.  ostomy site            

c.  pulmonary embolism

Signs/symptoms that a patient is going into anaphylactic shock include all of the following EXCEPT:

a.  hot, dry skin 

b.  pallor           

c.  restlessness 

d.  tachycardia   

a.  hot, dry skin 

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals crosses the intact blood-brain barrier?

a.  ^99mTc-bicisate        

b.  ^99mTc-gluceptate    

c.  ^99mTc-pentetate     

d.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate

a.  ^99mTc-bicisate        

The patency of ventriculoperitoneal shunts may be assessed with which of the following tracers?

a.  ¹¹¹In-chloride         

b.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate

c.  ^99mTc-bicisate        

d.  ^99mTc-MAA             

b.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate

According to the FDA, written informed consent must be obtained to administer which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ¹²³I-sodium iodide

b.  ^99mTc-sestamibi    

c.  ^99mTc-bicisate      

d.  none of the above 

d.  none of the above 

Patient preparation for ⁸⁹Sr-chloride therapy includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a.  nuclear medicine bone imaging     

b.  complete blood count                  

c.  discontinuation of pain medication

d.  renal function studies                  

c.  discontinuation of pain medication

Patient preparation for ¹³¹I therapy for thyroid cancer includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a.  ruling out pregnancy                    

b.  administering oral potassium iodide

c.  reviewing isolation requirements   

d.  discontining breast feeding           

b.  administering oral potassium iodide

One verification method used to ensure that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered is to check the label found on the vial.  The best times to check this label would include all of the following EXCEPT:

a.  before the vial is removed from the shelf.      

b.  before the radiopharmaceutical is dispensed.  

c.  after the vial is placed back on the shelf.       

d.  after the radiopharmaceutical is aedministered to the patient.

d.  after the radiopharmaceutical is aedministered to the patient.

When dual-radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging is performed, which fo the following tracers is used for stress and which for rest?

Stress                                        Rest

a.  ^99mTc-sestamibi          ²⁰¹Tl-thallous chloride

b.  ²⁰¹Tl-thallous chloride           ^99mTc-sestamibi

c.  ^99mTc-sestamibi                 ^99mTC-teboroxime

d.  ^99mTc-sestamibi                  ^99mTc-labeled rbc

a.  ^99mTc-sestamibi          ²⁰¹Tl-thallous chloride

If ^99mTc-sulfur colloid is administered to demonstrate gastrointestinal bleeding, the bleeding can be best visualized how long after the radiopharmaceutical is administered?

a.  10-15 minutes             

b.  20-30 minutes             

c.  45 minutes - 1 hour     

d.  Anytime up to 24 hours

a.  10-15 minutes             

Which of the following areas is the recommended injection site for a cardiac first-pass study?

a.  median basilic vein

b.  cephalic vein        

c.  axillary vein         

d.  dorsal vein           

a.  median basilic vein

Patient preparation for a Schilling test includes:

a.  stopping all medications                         

b.  hydrating the patient                              

c.  administered furosemide before the tracer 

d.  fasting from solid food for at least 8 hours

d.  fasting from solid food for at least 8 hours

Radioactive vitamin B₁₂ used for a Schilling test is administered by what route?

a.  intravenously   

b.  intramuscularly

c.  orally             

d.  by inhalation   

c.  orally             

Which of the following statements best describes the preferred injection and blood sampling site(s) when performing a plasma volume?

a.  A butterfly placed in an antecubital vein          should be used for injection of the radiopharmaceutical and subsequent blood sampling.

b.  Intravenous injection should be performed in   an antecubital vein, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from the same vein.

c.  Intravenous injection should be performed in   an antecubital vein, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from a different antecubital vein in the same arm.

d.  Intravenous injection should be performed in   an antecubital vein in one arm and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from an antecubital vein in the opposite arm.

d.  Intravenous injection should be performed in   an antecubital vein in one arm and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from an antecubital vein in the opposite arm.

When administering the flushing dose of vitamin B₁₂ during a Schilling test, the needle should be inserted into the muscle at an angle of:

a.  90 degrees

b.  45 degrees

c.  15 degrees

d.  5 degrees  

a.  90 degrees

When counting ⁵¹Cr red blood cell samples in a scintillation well counter, the window should be set around the photopeak at:

a.  81 keV 

b.  159 keV

c.  320 keV

d.  511 keV

c.  320 keV

Which tomographic plane of the heart displays all walls of the left ventricle?

a.  horizontal long axis

b.  short axis              

c.  transaxial              

d.  vertical long axis    

b.  short axis              

When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake with an uptake probe, the most appropriate collimator to use is a:

a.  low-energy, high-sensitivity parallel-hole collimator

b.  converging collimator                            

c.  straight-bore collimator                         

d.  flat-field collimator                               

d.  flat-field collimator                               

Which of the following would NOT be in accordance with electrical safety guidelines?

a.  use of three-pronged plugs and outlets         

b.  disconnecting an electrical plug from the wall by pulling on the cord

c.  keeping walk areas free from electrical cords 

d.  not using frayed or kinked cord                    

b.  disconnecting an electrical plug from the wall by pulling on the cord

Failure to administer nonradioactive vitamin B₁₂ during part one of a Schilling test will have what effect on ⁵⁷Co vitamin B₁₂ excretion?

a.  The results are unpredictable   

b.  ⁵⁷Coexcretion wil be unaffected

c.  ⁵⁷Co excretion will be increased

d.  ⁵⁷Co excretion will be decreased

d.  ⁵⁷Co excretion will be decreased

In preparation for ¹⁸F-fluorodeoxyglucose imaging, patients are required to fast to:

a.  prevent hypoglycemic episodes 

b.  enhance cardiac uptake            

c.  maximize tumor uptake           

d.  eliminate the need for laxatives

c.  maximize tumor uptake           

Which of the following steps is performed before administration of ⁹⁰Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan therapy?

a.  determine PSA level                                  

b.  fasting for 8 hours                                    

c.  whole-body imaging with ¹¹¹In-ibritumomab  tiuxetan

d.  intravenous hydration for 4 hours                

c.  whole-body imaging with ¹¹¹In-ibritumomab  tiuxetan

The size of a ⁹⁹Mo/^99mTc generator is expressed as the total activity of:

a.  ⁹⁹Mo on the column              

b.  ^99mTc on the column             

c.  ^99mTc eluted from the column

d.  a and b                              

a.  ⁹⁹Mo on the column              

The maximum allowable limit of Al⁺³ in ^99mTc eluate is set by the:

a.  Nuclear Regulatory Commission      

b.  U.S. Pharmacopeia                        

c.  Environmental Protection Agency    

d.  U.S. Department of Transportation  

b.  U.S. Pharmacopeia                      

Increased levels of Al⁺³ in ^99mTc eluate used to prepare ^99mTc-sulfur colloid may cause the tracer to concentrate in the:

a.  liver               

b.  lungs             

c.  red blood cells

d.  thyroid           

b.  lungs             

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be ordered to treat bone pain caused by bony metastases?

a.  ¹³¹I-sodium iodide      

b.  ¹¹¹In-oxine                

c.  ³²P-chromic phosphate

d.  ¹⁵³Sm-lexidronam       

d.  ¹⁵³Sm-lexidronam       

According to NRC regulations, reports of medical events sent to the NRC must include all of the following information EXCEPT:

a.  whether the patient or a relative was notified

b.  a description of the incident                        

c.  the referring physician's name                     

d.  the patient's name                                     

d.  the patient's name                                     

All of the following radiopharmaceuticals are prepared with reduced ^99mTc-pertechnetate EXCEPT:

a.  ^99mTc-sulfur colloid                  

b.  ^99mTc-oxidronate                     

c.  ^99mTc-macroaggregated albumin

d.  ^99mTc-lidofenin                        

a.  ^99mTc-sulfur colloid                  

Based on USP criteria, which of the following statements is TRUE about the particle size of MAA preparations?

a.  No particles should exceed 90 microns in        diameter

b.  Some particle may be smaller than 10 microns

c.  All particles have the same diameter             

d.  Up to 10% of the particles may exceed 150     microns in diameter

b.  Some particle may be smaller than 10 microns

In labeling red blood cells with ⁵¹Cr-sodium chromate, which of the following reagents is used to prevent the blood sample from coagulating?

a.  ACD solution   

b.  EDTA              

c.  heparin           

d.  sodium fluoride

a.  ACD solution   

Which of the following medications has been shown to interfere with in vivo ^99mTc labeling of red blood cells?

a.  doxorubicin      

b.  heparin           

c.  penicillin         

d.  all of the above

d.  all of the above

In the radiopharmacy laboratory, good radiation protection technique includes which of the following practices?

a.  wearing disposable gloves when withdrawing unit doses

b.  using syringe shields when preparing unit      doses

c.  manipulating needles, syringes, and vials      containing radioactivity at arm's length

d.  all of the above                                         

d.  all of the above                                         

If ^99mTc-exametazime is prepared at 0900 to label white blood cells, it should be used no later than what time?

a.  0930

b.  1100

c.  1300

d.  1500

a.  0930

When ^99mTc-exametazime is used to label white blood cells, methylene blue stabilizer is omitted from its preparation.  For this reason, the preparation should be used within 30 minutes,

Upon visual inspection, a vial of ^99mTc-medronate appears to be white and slightly turbid.  Which of the following actions should the technologist perform next?

a.  Prepare unit doses from the vial                 

b.  Adjust the pH of the preparation                 

c.  Prepare another vial of ^99mTc-medronate      

d.  Filter the preparation with a membrane filter

c.  Prepare another vial of ^99mTc-medronate    

Of the following needles, which size is the most likely to cause coring of the rubber closure of a  medication vial?

Gauge                 Length

a.  27                3/8 inch

b.  25                3/4 inch

c.  22                   1 inch

d.  16                1.5 inch

d.  16                1.5 inch

According to NRC regulations, which of the following signs should be posted on the door of a radiopharmacy laboratory in which radiation levels have been measured to be 7.5 mR/h?

a.  No posting is required.           

b.  Caution:  Radioactive Materials

c.  Caution:  Radiation Area         

d.  Caution:  High Radiation Area  

c.  Caution:  Radiation Area         

To determine the transportatoin index for a package containing radioactive material, the package must be monitored at:

a.  the surface of the package. 

b.  6 inches from the surface.   

c.  1 meter from the surface.   

d.  2 meters from the surface.  

c.  1 meter from the surface.   

To comply with NRC regulations, personnel radiation exposure records must be maintained:

a.  for 3 years.

b.  for 5 years.

c.  for 5 years.

d.  indefinitely 

d.  indefinitely 

If a point source produces an exposure rate of 50 mR/h at a distance of 1 foot, at what distance from the source will the exposure rate be reduced to 2mR/h?

a.  5 ft.   

b.  5.5 ft.

c.  10 ft. 

d.  25 ft. 

a.  5 ft.   

An occupationally exposed worker who is required to wear personal radiation monitor must wear it at work EXCEPT when:

a.  he/she leaves the nuclear medicine                department.

b.  he/she is personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure.

c.  badge readings are likely to exceed allowable  limits.

d.  radiation exposure results from patients who   had radioactive materials administered at another facility.

b.  he/she is personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure.

According to the NRC, a written directive from the administration of 15 mCi of ¹³¹I-sodium-iodide must include the following information:

a.  dosage                                          

b.  patient's thyroid uptake value           

c.  patient's date of birth                      

d.  lot number of the radiopharmaceutical

a.  dosage                                          

According to the NRC, the annual radiation exposure to members of the general public must be limited to no more than:

a.  500 mrem  

b.  100 mrem  

c.  50 mrem   

d.  2 mrem     

b.  100 mrem 

Which of the following materials is the best choice for shielding ³²P?

a.  lead                                    

b.  plastic                                 

c.  aluminum                             

d.  no shielding is required for ³²P

b.  plastic                                 

During a routine room survey for radioactive contamination, a technologist identifies an area on the floor that exceeds the trigger level.  Which of the following should the technologist do next?

a.  Determine the identify of the radionuclide   present in the contaminated area.

b.  Ascertain the source of the contamination. 

c.  Perform a wipe test to determine if the       contamination is removable.

d.  Cover the area until it has decayed to         background level.   

c.  Perform a wipe test to determine if the       contamination is removable.

In the case of a radioactive spill that involves contamination and life-threatening injuries to personnel, which of the following actions should be given priority?

a.  decontamination of the victim                 

b.  confinement of the radioactive spill          

c.  medical treatment of the seriously injured

d.  notification fo the radiation safety officer  

c.  medical treatment of the seriously injured

Nurses caring for ¹³¹I therapy patients who require isolation should be advised that the major sources of contamination include the patient's:

a.  feces, urine, and blood         

b.  urine, saliva, and perspiration

c.  blood and urine                   

d.  sputum and blood                

b.  urine, saliva, and perspiration

According to NRC regulations, a technologist cannot use a diagnostic dosage that exceeds 20% of the dosage prescribed by the authorized user unless:

a.  there is no other radiopharmaceutical             available.

b.  the patient weighs more than 20% over the     standard reference weight.

c.  the authorized user approves the individual     dosage.

d.  the patient's physician approves the individual dosage.

c.  the authorized user approves the individual     dosage.

If a woman who is breast feeding needs ¹³¹I therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer, how long must she suspend breast feeding?

a.  48 hours                                                    

b.  1 week                                                      

c.  She may not resume it with this child.           

d.  Suspension of breast feeding is not necessary in this case.

c.  She may not resume it with this child.           

According to the NRC, wipe test results must be reported as:

a.  cpm    

b.  dpm    

c.  mR/h   

d.  mrem/h

b.  dpm    

A package containing radiopharmaceuticals is delivered before the nuclear medicine department opens.  According to the NRC, the package must be checked in and monitored:

a.  as soon as the department opens            

b.  within 3 hours after the department opens

c.  within 6 hours after the department opens

d.  within 24 hours of the time of delivery      

b.  within 3 hours after the department opens

If a parrallel-line equal-space (PLES) transmission phantom is used, how many images must be acquired to assess linearity over the entire field of view of a scintillation camera?

a.  one  

b. two 

c.  three

d.  four 

b. two 

According to the NRC, all dose calibrator quality control results must be retained for:

a.  1 year                                                  

b.  3 years                                                

c.  the life of the instrument                       

d.  as long as the facility's license is in effect

b.  3 years                                                

What is the effect of changing the order of a Butterworth filter from 3 to 5?

a.  The image will be smoother.         

b.  The image will be sharper.            

c.  The image will appear unchanged. 

d. The star artifact will be eliminated

b.  The image will be sharper.            

Which of the following statements is TRUE about an image acquired with zoom?

a.  Background counts are increased.

b.  Image resolution is increased.    

c.  More memory is required.           

d.  Contract is decreased.               

b.  Image resolution is increased.    

An uptake probe would be used for which of the following studies?

a.  Schilling test            

b.  red cell mass           

c.  red cell survival        

d.  splenic sequestration

d.  splenic sequestration

In performing a bone image, which of the following views would best demonstrate an abnormality in the calcaneus?

a.  lateral views of the patella                          

b.  postvoid image of the pelvis                        

c.  plantar view of the feet                               

d.  anterior view of the distal humerus and radius

c.  plantar view of the feet                               

All of the following statements about four-phase bone imaging are TRUE EXCEPT:

a.  this study includes both dynamic and static imaging.

b.  the study may be performed with any blood pool agent.

c.  the patient is positioned under the camera  before tracer administration.

d.  the third phase if performed 5-6 hours after tracer administration.

b.  the study may be performed with any blood pool agent.

Which of the following patients should receive fewer particles than typically administered for lung perfusion imaging?

a.  80-year old woman with suspected pulmonary embolism

b.  65-year old man with chronic obstructive         pulmonary disease

c.  45-year old man with right-to-left cardiac        shunt

d.  25-year old woman with asthma                    

c.  45-year old man with right-to-left cardiac        shunt

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the wash-in/wash-out method of performing xenon ventilation studies?

a.  The patient rebreathes a mixture of xenon and oxygen during the wash-in phase

b.  The patient can be disconnected from the gas  trapping apparatus

c.  This method is not recommended for comatose patients.

d.  It is not necessary to introduce oxygen or air   into the xenon delivery system.

a.  The patient rebreathes a mixture of xenon and oxygen during the wash-in phase

After administration of ^99mTc-pentetate aerosol with face mask, radioactive contamination is likely to be found in all of the following areas EXCEPT:

a.  on the floor between the patient and nebulizer.

b.  around the patient's mouth.             

c.  on the patient's chest.                    

d.  on the technologist's hands.            

d.  on the technologist's hands.            

Thyroid imaging may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate                             

b.  ¹²³I-sodium iodide                                

c.  ^99mTc-sestamibi                                   

d.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate or ¹²³I-sodium iodide

d.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate or ¹²³I-sodium iodide

When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake, nonthyroidal (body) background measurements may be taken over the:

a.  lateral skull 

b.  mediastinum

c.  abdomen     

d.  thigh          

d.  thigh          

Pulse rates may be determined by all of the following methods EXCEPT:

a.  multiplying the respiration rate by 4       

b.  using a pulse oximeter                         

c.  listening to the heart with a stethoscope

d.  analyzing the electrocardiogram             

a.  multiplying the respiration rate by 4       

Which of the following statements regarding the administration of oxygen is FALSE?

a.  Oxygen is classified as a drug                   

b.  Oxygen therapy may be ordered by a          physician, nurse, athletic trainer, or respiratory therapist

c.  With the consent of a physician or nurse, an oxygen appliance may be removed from the paitient if it interferes with the imaging procedure.

d.  Orders for oxygen therapy must include the   amount to be delivered, the type of oxygen appliance to be used, and whether or not administration is to be continuous or intermittent.

b.  Oxygen therapy may be ordered by a          physician, nurse, athletic trainer, or respiratory therapist

Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the administration of:

a.  adenosine      

b.  aminophylline 

c.  acetazolamide

d.  nitroglycerin   

b.  aminophylline 

Which of the following must be discontinued for at least 24-36 hours before the administration of dipyridamole?

a.  water         

b.  aspirin        

c.  insulin        

d.  theophylline

d.  theophylline

In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur no longer than how many minutes after tracer administration?

a.  5-10 minutes   

b.  20-30 minutes 

c.  45-60 minutes 

d.  1-2 hours        

b.  20-30 minutes 

Which fo the following agents would be used to perform a gallbladder ejection fraction

a.  sincalide and ^99mTc-disofenin     

b.  sincalide and ^99mTc-sulfur colloid

c.  morphine and ^99mTc-lidofenin     

d.  morphine and ^99mTc-mertiatide   

a.  sincalide and ^99mTc-disofenin     

For which of the following procedures is the radiopharmaceutical administered orally?

a.  gastric emptying                 

b.  gastrointestinal bleeding     

c.  salivary gland imaging         

d.  vesicoureteral reflux imaging

a.  gastric emptying                 

Patient preparation for funcation renal imaging should include which of the following?

a.  hydration of the patient                           

b.  discontinuation of all medications             

c.  fasting for at least 2 hours before imaging 

d.  administration of furosemide 1 hour before  imaging

a.  hydration of the patient                          

Static renal imaging is performed about how long after administration of ^99mTc-succimer?

a.  immediately

b.  30 minutes  

c.  2 hours       

d.  8 hours       

c.  2 hours       

Patient preparatoin for ⁶⁷Ga-citrate imaging may include administration of which of the following?

a.  diuretics                   

b.  potassium perchlorate

c.  Lugol's soluation       

d.  laxative                    

d.  laxative                    

A normal biodistribution of ¹¹¹In-labeled leukocytes will demonstrate the greatest tracer at 24 hours after injection in which of the following sites?

a.  bone marrow

b.  liver            

c.  lung            

d.  spleen         

d.  spleen         

A patient with diabetes who becomes hypoglycemic may exhibit all of the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT:

a.  weakness and shakiness

b.  confusion                     

c.  irritability                     

d.  nausea and vomiting      

d.  nausea and vomiting      

Which of the following tracers may be used to confirm brain death?

a.  ^99mTc-exemetazime   

b.  ^99mTc-oxidronate       

c.  ^99mTc-mertiatide       

d.  ²⁰¹Tl-thallous chloride

d.  ²⁰¹Tl-thallous chloride

Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in a patient's nose after intrathecal tracer administration is most useful when which of the following conditions is suspected?

a.  rhinorrhea              

b.  hydrocephalus         

c.  CSF shunt patency   

d.  blockage of CSF flow

a.  rhinorrhea              

Colloidal ³²P-chromic phosphate is administered by which of the following routes?

a.  intraperitoneal

b.  intravenous    

c.  subcutaneous 

d.  inhalation      

a.  intraperitoneal

Which of the following radiation safety measures should be used when performing ⁸⁹Sr therapy?

a.  use of lead vial and syringe shields               

b.  urinary catheterization for incontinent patients

c.  use of absorbent paper in isolation room        

d.  monitoring patient radiation levels weekly      

b.  urinary catheterization for incontinent patients

Based on blood flow, which of the following is visualized as an area of high tracer concentration on a brain image performed with ^99mTc-exametazime?

a.  gray matter         

b.  white matter        

c.  pineal body         

d.  medulla oblongata

a.  gray matter         

A technologist is performing a lung image on a patient known to have active tuberculosis.  The most appropriate personal protective device the technologist should utilize is:

a.  latex gloves

b.  gown         

c.  lab coat     

d.  mask         

d.  mask         

The patency of a LeVeen shunt may be demonstrated with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a.  ^99mTc-disofenin or ^99mTc-sulfur colloid           

b.  ^99mTc-MAA or ^99mTc-suflur colloid                  

c.  ^99mTc-pentetate or ^99mTc-pertechnetate         

d.  ^99mTc-albumin or ^99mTc-labeled red blood cells

b.  ^99mTc-MAA or ^99mTc-suflur colloid                  

Which of the following is common to imaging gastroesophageal reflux in both adults and children?

a.  ^99mTc-sulfur colloid is the tracer of choice      

b.  The patient must fast from midnight before    the test

c.  An abdominal binder is used to increase        pressure over the abdomen

d.  The patient ingests dilutes hydrochloric acid  with the tracer

a.  ^99mTc-sulfur colloid is the tracer of choice      

The following studies are ordered for a patient:

I.  ERPF determination            

II.  Total-body bone imaging     

III.  ¹¹¹In-pentetreotide imaging

In which order should the studies be performed so that they do not interfere with one another and so that they can be accomplished in the shortest amount of time?

a.  I, II, III

b.  I, III, II

c.  II, I, III

d.  III, II, I

a.  I, II, III

The function of intrinsic factor administerd during a Schilling test is to:

a.  increase urine output                                  

b.  facilitate that absorption of vitamin B₁₂           

c.  saturate the body's vitamin B₁₂ storage sites.

d.  relieve patient anxiety                                 

b.  facilitate that absorption of vitamin B₁₂           

The region(s) of interest for detection of a left-to-right cardiac shunt is (are) drawn around which of the following structures?

a.  superior vena cava                  

b.  one or both lungs                    

c.  left ventricle                           

d.  right ventricle and great vessels

b.  one or both lungs                    

A common antecubital vein used for intravenous administration of radiopharmaceutical is the:

a.  cephalic

b.  radial    

c.  liver      

d.  spleen   

a.  cephalic

The ⁵¹Cr red cell sequestration study is performed to identify abnormal destruction of red blood cells by the:

a.  bone marrow

b.  heart           

c.  liver            

d.  spleen         

d.  spleen         

The difference in hematocrit values between the average whole-body hematocrit and the venous hematocrit is the result of:

a.  the difference in vessel size               

b.  the variation in red blood cell diameter

c.  the increased amount of blood in the    extremities

d.  plasma leakage                                 

a.  the difference in vessel size               

A technologist is asked to check the flow rate on a drip infusion on a patient in the department.  An acceptable flow rate is how many drops per minute?

a.  1-5    

b.  10-20 

c.  40-60 

d.  75-100

b.  10-20 

The total blood volume may be calculated by dividing the measured red cell volume by the:

a.  hematocrit             

b.  plasmacrit              

c.  corrected hematocrit

d.  corrected hematocrit

c.  corrected hematocrit

A patient scheduled for ¹⁸F-FDG imaging has a measured blood glucose level of 100 mg/dl.  Which of the following actions should the technologist perform next?

a.  Reschedule the patient for a later time          

b.  Administer insulin to lower the patient's blood glucose leve

c.  Administer glucose to raise the patient's blood glucose level

d.  Proceed with the examination                       

d.  Proceed with the examination                       

After a ⁹⁹Mo/^99mTc generator is eluted, it takes approximately how many hours for the ^99mTc activity build up to a maximum level?

a.  8 hours 

b.  12 hours

c.  24 hours

d.  48 hours

c.  24 hours

A wet column generator is equipped with all of the following parts EXCEPT a(n):

a.  alumina column

b.  lead shield       

c.  charging port    

d.  collection port   

c.  charging port    

According to the USP, the maximum allowable aluminum concentration in ^99mTc eluate is not to exceed:

a.  0 mg/mL 

b.  10 mg/mL

c.  20 mg/mL

d.  10 mg/mL

b.  10 mg/mL

Which of the following pairs of radiopharmaceuticals may be used to perform lung perfusion and ventilation imaging?

a.  ^99mTc-sulfur colloid and ^99mTc-pentetate     aerosol

b.  ^99mTc-albumin and ¹³³Xe gas                   

c.  ^99mTc-macroaggregated albumin and ¹³³Xe gas

d.  ^99mTc-bicisate and ^99mTc-pentetate aerosol

c.  ^99mTc-macroaggregated albumin and ¹³³ Xe gas

Which of the following ingredients in a sulfur colloid kit are combined and heated?

a.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate and thiosulfate mixture

b.  thiosulfate mixture and acid                        

c.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate, thiosulfate mixture and acid

d.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate, thiosulfate mixture,       acid and buffer

c.  ^99mTc-pertechnetate, thiosulfate mixture and acid

When preparing to withdraw a unit dose of ³²P-chromic phosphate, the technologist visually inspects the radiopharmaceutical and notes that it is a blue-green color.  The technologist should next:

a.  contact the radiopharmaceutical manufacturer

b.  reschedule the procedure                            

c.  withdraw the unit dose                               

d.  a and b                                                     

c.  withdraw the unit dose                               

The label on an unopened vial states that the vial contains 10mL of radiopharmaceutical with a concentration of 55.5 MBq/mL.  When the technologist assays the vial in a dose calibrator, it meaures 9 mCi.  Which of the following actions should the technologist perform first?

a.  Check the radionuclide setting on the dose     calibrator  

b.  Begin to prepare unit doses form the vial       

c.  Perform an accuracy check on the dose           calibrator

d.  Contact the radiopharmaceutical manufacturer

a.  Check the radionuclide setting on the dose     calibrator  

In labeling red blood cells with ⁵¹Cr-sodium chromate, which of the following components is first added to the ACD solution?

a.  ⁵¹Cr-sodium chromate

b.  blood sample            

c.  ascorbic acid             

d.  heparin                    

b.  blood sample            

All of the following are advantages of the in vitro method of labeling red blood cells with ^99mTc-pertechnetate EXCEPT:

a.  The red blood cells can be washed to remove   substances form the plasma that may interfere with labeling

b.  A commercially manufactured kit is available    that requires no cell separation by centrifugation

c.  Higher labeling efficiencies than with the in     vivo method are possible

d.  In vitro labeling has the lowest risk of red cell hemolysis

d.  In vitro labeling has the lowest risk of red cell hemolysis

Which of the following equipment is needed to verify the size and number of MAA particles in a ^99mTc-MAA preparation?

a.  dose calibrator                                     

b.  limulus amebocyte lysate solution           

c.  chromatography strips, solvent, develping chamber

d.  hemocytometer, light microscope             

d.  hemocytometer, light microscope             

According to NRC regulations, records of patient dosage determinations must be retained for how long?

a.  3 years      

b.  5 years      

c.  10 years    

d.  Indefinitely

a.  3 years      

During red blood cell labeling with ⁵¹Cr, the purpose of adding ascorbic acid to the ACD-whole blood solution is to:

a.  prevent hemolysis of the red blood cells    

b.  maintain the pH of the mixture                 

c.  prevent clot formation                             

d.  reduce the chromate ion to a lower valence state

d.  reduce the chromate ion to a lower valence state

Upon visual inspection, a vial of ^99mTc-MAA has a white, slightly cloudy appearance.  Which of the following actions should the technologist perform next?

a.  Prepare unit doses from the vial    

b.  Prepare another vial of ^99mTc-MAA

c.  Filter the preparation                   

d.  Adjust the pH of the preparation