Term
What do u give tot reat HSV and nonatal disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do u use to treat varicella-zoster virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What population is at risk for getting Cytomegalovirus? |
|
Definition
People with HIV, it is an opportunistic infection. Also people with an organ transplant or bone marrow transplant. |
|
|
Term
How is cytomegalovirus spread? |
|
Definition
body fluids, aka banging and pissing on people |
|
|
Term
A patient has Cytomegalovirus and HIV what do u give to treat them? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do u give to treat HHV-6? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of cells do HHV-1, HHV-2, and HHV-3 infect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of cells do HHV-5, HHV-6, and HHV-7 infect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of cells do HHV-4, and HHV-8 infect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common name for HHV-5? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common name of HHV-3? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common name of HHV-4? |
|
Definition
Epstein-Barr virus (mono) |
|
|
Term
What is the vector and what is the reservoir for west nile virus? |
|
Definition
reservoir= birds
vector= mosquitos |
|
|
Term
What is the vector and what is the reservoir for St Louis encephalitis? |
|
Definition
REservoir= birds
vector= mosquitos |
|
|
Term
What is the main virulence factor for Togaviruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the california encephalitis virus complex seen in the US? |
|
Definition
near ohio and west virginia. people there too stupid to name it right. |
|
|
Term
What is the vector and what is the reservoir for La Crosse virus? |
|
Definition
REservoir= chipmunks, squirrels, and rabbits
Vector= Aedes triseriatus (mosquito) |
|
|
Term
What is characteristic of the Reoviruses?
What are the 4 that affect humans? |
|
Definition
Virion has a double shell structure.
Orthoreovirus, Rotavirus, Coltivirus, Orbivirus |
|
|
Term
What is the common name for the Coltivirus? |
|
Definition
Colorado tick fever virus. U get it from hiking in the rocky mountains. |
|
|
Term
What is the vector and what is the reservoir for Coltivirus? |
|
Definition
Tick is the vector
Small mammals are the reservoir. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Patients
Intervention
Comparison
Outcome |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Number needed to treat to prevent one bad outcome. |
|
|
Term
What is absolute risk reduction? (ARR) |
|
Definition
Probability that the Rx will help the average patient. |
|
|
Term
What is the drug of choice for abcess seizures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the drug of choice for terminating status epilepticus? What is its possible side effect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you cant give Lorazapam what else can u give? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug reverses the CNS and respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You have given your patient Lorazepam to treat status epilepticus in the short term, now what drug do you give to be long lasting? What can chronic use cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the prodrug of Phenytoin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug is a significanthepatic enzyme inducer, has a half life of 3-4 days, and can cause respiratory and CNS depression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is a broad spectrum antiseizure medication?
Black box warning: Can cause hepatitis, teratogenicity and pancreatitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is a combination of valproic acid and sodium valproate and it dissociates into valproic acid in the GI tract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This drug is a broad spectrum antiseizure. It has an unclear MOA but probably slows the release of glutamate from vessicles by binding to SV2A. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of Erthosuximide? |
|
Definition
Used for abcess seizures. Inhibits T-type voltage gated Ca channels. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of Lorazepam? |
|
Definition
Used to terminate status epilepticus. Opens GABA-A channels. |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of Diazepam and midazolam? |
|
Definition
Alternatives to Lorazepam. Opens GABA-A channels. |
|
|
Term
What is the use and mechanism of Flumazenil? |
|
Definition
antidote for benzodiazepine overdose. Competitive inhibitor of GABA-A |
|
|
Term
What is the use and mechanism of Phenytoin? |
|
Definition
Longer lasting drug used after Lorazepam. Inhibits voltage gated Na channels. |
|
|
Term
What is the use and mechanism of Phenobarbital? |
|
Definition
significant hepatic enzyme enducer. Increases how long the GABA-A receptor stays open. |
|
|
Term
What is the use and mechanism of Valproic acid and Divalproex? |
|
Definition
Broad spectrum antiseizure medication. Inhivits voltage-gated Na channels, Ca channels(T channels), Promotes GABA synthesis and inhibits GABA breakdown. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Blocks GABA-T.
GABA-T breaks down GABA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What molecule goes through the GABA channel when stimulated? |
|
Definition
Cl- enters the postsynaptic neuron. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Binds to the AMPA and kainate receptors and doesnt let Na and Ca into the postsynaptic neuron. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Blocks the NMDA receptor so Ca and Ca cant enter the postsynaptic neuron. |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between Phenytoin and Fosphentoin? |
|
Definition
Phenytoin is given orally.
Fosphenytoin is given IV. When giving Fosphenytoin u should give it in Phenytoin Equivalents (PE) to avoid confusion. |
|
|
Term
_____ is the imaging modality of choice for looking at a Hemorrhagic stroke, it is also used to distinguish between a hemorrhagic and ischemic stroke. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a intercerebral hemorrhage is confirmed what is the next imaging modality you want to look at? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a pontine Hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
catastrophic brainstem hemorrhage. get tiny pupils and go into a coma. |
|
|
Term
What region of the brain do u definitely need a surgeon to fix if u have a hematoma here? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause for a Subarachnoid hemorrhage? What about the most common spontaneous cause? |
|
Definition
most common= trauma
Most common spontaneous cause= ruptured berry aneurysm |
|
|
Term
What is the main goal of hemorrhage treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are most strokes ischemic or hemorrhagic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Broca's area used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Wernicke's area used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A pt loses control of their baldder after a storke, what artery do u suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A pt presents unable to talk after a stroke what artery do u suspect? |
|
Definition
MCA on the language dominant side. (usually left) |
|
|
Term
What are lacunar strokes? |
|
Definition
small subcortical infarcts in the deep penetrating arteries. |
|
|
Term
How long does a TPA last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the hallmark trait for brain edema? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where in the skull does the fibers from CN 1 pass through? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would happen if u cut CN1? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would happen if u cut CN2? |
|
Definition
loss of vision. Depending on where will remove certain parts of your vision. |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with no peripheral vision, where is the cut in CN2? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nerve goes through the optic canal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nerve innervates the latteral rectus of the eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nerve innervated the superior oblique? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nerve innervates all the eye muscles except the latteral rectus and superior oblique? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Eye is drifted looking down and out what nerve is likely having issues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents with an inward gaze (towards nose) what nerve is likely the issue? |
|
Definition
CN VI is messed up causing inward gaze. |
|
|
Term
Why is the danger triangle of the face clinically significant? |
|
Definition
veins in the face dont have valves. Bacteria can backfrow from the facial vein -> Angular vein -> cavernous sinus |
|
|
Term
What foramen does the trigeminal nerve CN V pass through? List them from most superior to inferior |
|
Definition
Superior orbital fissure
Foramen Rotundum
Foramen Ovale
"Standing Room Only" |
|
|
Term
What branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the superior orbital fissure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen Rotundum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen Ovale? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents with no sensation of their forehead, or the mid line of their nose what nerve do u expect has an issue? |
|
Definition
Ophthalmic division (V1) of the trigeminal nerve |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with no sensation of their upper lip or the roof of their mouth, what nerve do u suspect has an issue? |
|
Definition
Maxilary (V2) division of the trigeminal nerve. |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with no sensation on the skin covering their jaw, they also can not clench their jaw. what nerve do u suspect has an issue? |
|
Definition
Mandibular (V3) division of the trigeminal nerve. |
|
|
Term
(T/F) Parker Calhoun can play better with 2 broken legs than Taylor Barnish healthy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents unable to move the muscles of their face or taste food on the anterior 2/3 of their tongue. What nerve do u suspect has an issue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents with a lack of balance and hearing what nerve do u suspect has an issue? |
|
Definition
CN VIII Vestibulocochlear |
|
|
Term
What nerve(s) pass through the internal accoustic meatus? |
|
Definition
Facial (CN VII) and vestibulocochlear (CN VIII) |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with a lack of tast and somatic sensation on the posterior 1/3 of their tongue. What nerve do u suspect has an issue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What foramen does the spinal accessory nerve (CNXI) pass through to leave the skull? |
|
Definition
Jugular foramen and the foramen magnum. |
|
|
Term
What foramen does the Hypoglossal nerve (CNXII) pass through to leave the skull? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents unable to move their tongue. What nerve do u suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the difference between a simple partial seizure and a complex partial seizure? |
|
Definition
simple partial= no alteration in consciousness
complex partial= alteration in consciousness |
|
|
Term
Which of these is preceeded by an aura?
Focal or generalized seizure |
|
Definition
Focal seizure
General have no aura |
|
|
Term
What does the GABA-B receptor do when stimulated? |
|
Definition
inhibitory.
Lets K+ leave the postsynaptic neuron. |
|
|
Term
______ is a glutamate analog found in marine algae that can be concentrated by shellfish in certain environmental conditions. This leads to neuron excitability and can cause seizures and amnesia by affecting the hippocampus.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What happens after repeatitive discharge during neuron excitability? |
|
Definition
Presynaptic neuron: Ca accumulates causing more glutamate release
Synapse: Extra glutamate and K causing K to not leave cells and depolarizing neighboring cells
Post-synaptic neuron: Ca enters trough NMDA glutamate channels. |
|
|
Term
What is the depolarizing shift and what causes it? |
|
Definition
Triggers a quick burst of seizure in the focus. Triggered by the activation of NMDA and AMPA channels by glutamate. |
|
|
Term
What happens after the depolarizing shift? What causes this? |
|
Definition
a period of afterhyperpolarization caused by GABA-A (lets in Cl-) and GABA-B (lets out K+) |
|
|
Term
How can penicillin cause a seizure? |
|
Definition
Penicillin can be a convulsant by acting as an antagonist of GABA-A |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of a generalized seizure? |
|
Definition
Cortical and thalmic cells become entrained as in slow wave sleep |
|
|
Term
How do seizures cause brain damage? |
|
Definition
High Ca in the cells leading to the activation of enzymes that degrade the cell.
Free radicals
Apoptosis
Na builds up in the cell and can cause it to burst. |
|
|
Term
What typically causes pathogenesis with mitochondrial disorders? |
|
Definition
dysfunction of oxidative phosphorylation leading to less ATP and U get ROS. |
|
|
Term
The threshhold for deletion mutations in mitochondria is ___% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The threshhold for pointn mutations in mitochondria is ___% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can replicative segregation lead to age related decline of tissues? |
|
Definition
REplicative segregation is random and may lter the balance of mutant vs WT mitochondria leading to age related functional decline of tissues. |
|
|
Term
how does one mutation cause one phenotype for one person and a different one for another person (pleiotropy)? |
|
Definition
phenotype depends on how many mutated mitochondria u get. |
|
|
Term
Mutations affecting ____ are the most common causes of inherited mitochondrial disease. |
|
Definition
DNA polymerase gamma (POLG) |
|
|
Term
What happens in the mitochondria to a person with alzheimers? |
|
Definition
Aβ interferes with the electron transport chain and it creates ROS and reduces ATP production. |
|
|
Term
What happens in the mitochondria to a person with parkinsons disease? |
|
Definition
Defects in NADH dehydrogenase/complex I |
|
|
Term
Mutations in ____ account for the majority of familital parkinsons disease and lead to aoptosis of neurons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Familial ALS features a deffective ___ in their mitochondria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Infection that develops into a vascularized capsule of live/dead microorganisms. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common family of bacteria that cause bacterial brain abcesses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does TB or fungal chronic meningitis look in the CSF? |
|
Definition
Increased protein
decreased glucose
lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
How do you differentiate a TB from fungal meningitis by looking at the CSF? |
|
Definition
fungal meningitis will have a positive india ink staining. |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 main ways u can get Cryptococcus neoformans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt spent the week hiking and looking at eucalyptus trees in the pacific northwest and australia. What bacteria do u suspect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 important virulence factors seen in the Cryptococcus family? |
|
Definition
Polysaccharide capsule and melanin |
|
|
Term
What 3 antifungals are used for the Cryptococcus family? |
|
Definition
Amphotericin B, flucytosine, and fluconazole |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
generic term for a tape worm. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a definitive host? |
|
Definition
where the sexual reproduction happens for parasites. |
|
|
Term
What is the definitive host for Taenia solium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an intermediate host? |
|
Definition
Where either a sexual reproduction or larval development takes palce. |
|
|
Term
What is the intermediate host for Taenia solium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why would u not wanna give pedal pump to someone with taeniasis? |
|
Definition
it travels through the human body from the intestines through the lymph system. |
|
|
Term
How do you prevent, diagnose, and treat Taeniasis solium? |
|
Definition
prevent: cook pork
Diagnose: eggs in shit
treat: praziquantel |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cysts in muscles, eyes, and brain. |
|
|
Term
How do you prevent, diagnose, and treat cysticerosis? |
|
Definition
Prevent: wash hand, dont drink bad water
diagnose: CT, MRI, biopsy, immunoblot
treatment: praziquantel |
|
|
Term
What is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how do u get Toxoplasma gondii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What group of people are most at risk from toxoplaasma gondii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do u prevent, diagnose and treat Toxoplasmosis gandii? |
|
Definition
prevention: wash hands after cleaning litter box, cook meat
diagnosis: IgG, IgM, or IGA antibodies. also PCR
treatment: pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine |
|
|
Term
What is the risk factor for the Cryptococcus species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does inflamation help or inhibit drugs from entering the CSF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug would u give to a patient with meningitis? |
|
Definition
Ceftriaxone(Strep pneumo or Neisseria meningitidis) + Vancomycin (resistant Strep pneumo)+Dexamethasone
Maybe Ampicillin (Listeria monocytogenes)
|
|
|
Term
When do u add Ampicillin to the meningitis regiment? |
|
Definition
If listeria is suspected usually in people over 50, or pregnant. |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with suspected encephalitis should be given? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents with suggestions of rickettsial or ehrlichial infection what drug should u give them? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism for Acyclovir? |
|
Definition
antiviral.
needs an enzyme from the virus to be activated so it only affects infected cells. Inhibits their DNA synthesis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Group of antifungals that all end in -fungins
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Azole antifungals
Inhibit fungal cytochrome P450 enzymes |
|
|
Term
What is the major problem with -conazoles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the adverse effects of amphotericin B? Why do you use lipid associated products? |
|
Definition
lots of nephrotoxicity (renal failure), phlebitis (vein inflamation), fever, chills
less side effects. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of tetracycline? |
|
Definition
antibacterial
Inhibits protein metabolism by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit. |
|
|
Term
What group can u not prescribe tetracycline, and why? |
|
Definition
kids under 8 and pregnant chicks
Makes ur teeth all grey/black (phototoxic reaction) |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between phototoxic and photoallergic reactions? |
|
Definition
phototoxic= sun hits drug in skin and is toxic, causes sunburn
Photoallergic= light turns compound into something u are allergic to. |
|
|
Term
What drug do u give for lyme disease or rocky mountain spotted fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 mechanisms of resistance to tetracycline. |
|
Definition
bacteria can pump it out or ribosomal protection protein. |
|
|
Term
Explain why tigecycline has activity versus micro-organisms resistant to other tetracyclines
|
|
Definition
Tigecycline has side chains that overcomes the 2 common bacterial resistance mechanisms (pumping out and ribosomal protection protein). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
antagonistic to normal function |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
expression of a gene depends on modifier genes.
Mutation on one gene can mask the effects of a mutation in another. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
several genes each contribute some small ammount to a trait. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
people affected by a disease cluster in families. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
2 family members have the same disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
one family member is affected but the other is not. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
you have it or not. ex epilepsy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
on a scale of severity. ex HTN |
|
|
Term
What is the best way to tell if a disease is caused by genetics or environment? |
|
Definition
compare monozygotic and dizygotic twins to differentiate between shared genetics (monozygotic) and environment (Dizygotic). |
|
|
Term
How do genetic wide association studies work?
Does this prove a cause? |
|
Definition
look for SNPs in people with and without the disease and look for the ones that occur in just the affected people. This does not mean it is the cause though, it could just be associated. |
|
|
Term
What measures electrical potentials across the cell membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What measures electrical potentials in the extracellular space relative to a common ground and close to a single neuron? |
|
Definition
Single unit extracellular recording |
|
|
Term
What measures electrical potentials in the extracellular space relative to a common ground and NOT close to a single neuron? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What measures electrical potentials relative to a common ground from the scalp surface? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where in the brain does EEG work well?
Where does it not work well? |
|
Definition
Good= cortex near the electrodes
Bad= messed up by bone and tissue, doesnt work in the hippocampus, thalmus, or brain stem. |
|
|
Term
What does a large EEG signal represent? |
|
Definition
many neurons firing synchronously |
|
|
Term
Where is the main area u see astrocytomas in adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the main area u see astrocytomas in kids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
glial neoplams derived from astrocytes.Primary adult brain tumor. Broken into 3 grades of devestation. |
|
|
Term
characterize a grade I astrocytoma? |
|
Definition
poorly demarcated and infiltrates the cortex with an indistinct border. |
|
|
Term
characterize a grade II astrocytoma (anaplastic astrocytoma)? |
|
Definition
greater cellulatity, cellular pleomorphism, and anaplasiathan a Type I. |
|
|
Term
What is characteristic of a Glioblastoma Multiforme (GBM)? |
|
Definition
lots of infiltration into the cortex, often crossing the corpus callosum. Looks like a butterfly on gross examination. See glomeruloid formations histalogically. |
|
|
Term
What is the characteristics of an Oligodendroglioma? |
|
Definition
arises in the white matter
clear halo of cytoplasm (fried egg look)
often causes seizures
radiographically u see Calcopherites |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of an Ependymoma? |
|
Definition
malignant tumor, slow growth
often seen in 4th ventricle resulting in hydrocephalus
sheets of cells with granular chromatin
Perivascular Pseudorosettes, where cells are arranged around blood vessels. |
|
|
Term
Whata are the characteristics of colloid cysts? |
|
Definition
often occur in young adults
Round cysts in 3rd ventricle that can block the Foramina of Monro
Can cause noncommunicating hydrocephalus |
|
|
Term
what are the characteristics of Medulloblastoma? |
|
Definition
always in cerebellum
seen in kids
small round blue cells
agressive
often a loss of genetic materical from chromosome 17 |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of meningiomas? |
|
Definition
tumors from the arachnoid villi
compress the brain
deletion or mutation of chromosome 22
histologically they have a whorled pattern with Psammoma Bodies |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of Schwannoma? |
|
Definition
benign masses attached to nerves
Antoni A and B patterns |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of Acoustic Neuroma? |
|
Definition
Schwannoma on the 8th cranial nerve in the cerebellar pontine angle.
present with deafness. |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of Craniopharyngioma? |
|
Definition
cystic legions arising from the epithelium of Rathke's pouch.
children usually come in because of endocrine deficiencies. |
|
|
Term
_____ is the most common CNS neoplasm in patients with AIDS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of primary brain lymphoma? |
|
Definition
AIDS people, highly agressive
small and large neoplastic lymphocytes.
EBV can be recovered within the tumors. |
|
|
Term
Chances of a metastatic tumor reaching the CNS.
Disseminated Melanoma ___%
Breast and lung cancer ___%
Kidney and colon __% |
|
Definition
Disseminated Melanoma 50%
Breast and lung cancer 35%
Kidney and colon 5% |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
aka focal, only affects a portion of the brain. |
|
|
Term
What is a complex partial seizure? |
|
Definition
AKA temporal lobe or psychomotor seizures
Starts with an Aura
Then impaired consciousness and convulsians
most common seizure originating from the temporal lobe.
|
|
|
Term
What is Hippocampal Sclerosis? |
|
Definition
- neuronal cell loss mostly in the hippocampus
- loss of pyramidal neurons and reactive gliosis
- most common type of neuropathologic damage seen in individuals with complex partial seizures
|
|
|
Term
What are febrile seizures? |
|
Definition
seizures seen in children 6mo-5yo caused by fever
Do lumbar puncture to rule out bacterial meningitis
Do not require anti-epileptics |
|
|
Term
What is seen histalogically in people with seizures? |
|
Definition
loss of neurons and gliosis
this causes a loss in GABA causing a reduction in inhibition. |
|
|
Term
What is the principal effector organ of the limbic system? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the neocortex in the limbic system used for? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the insular cortex in the limbic system used for? |
|
Definition
consciousness/ self awareness and emotional responses to pain. |
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|
Term
What is the orbital frontal cortex in the limbic system used for? |
|
Definition
decision making and emotion |
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|
Term
What happens if the Subcallosal gyrus in the limbic system is overactive? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the cingulate gyrus in the limbic system used for? |
|
Definition
connects the thalmus and neocortex. Projects to the entorhinal cortex. |
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|
Term
What is the parahippocampal gyrus in the limbic system used for? |
|
Definition
memory encoding and retreival |
|
|
Term
What does the hypothalmus do? |
|
Definition
samples hormone content of the blood to maintain homeostasis. |
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|
Term
What does the amygdala do? |
|
Definition
organizes appropriate behavioral responses to environmental stimuli. |
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|
Term
What happens if u get a bilateral lesion of the amygdala? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does the Papex circuit do? |
|
Definition
turns short term memories into long term ones. Allows to compare past and present experiences. |
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|
Term
What is anterograde amnesia? |
|
Definition
inability to form new declarative memories. |
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|
Term
What is retrograde amnesia? |
|
Definition
loss of events prior to the lesion. Can still do procedural things like play guitar. |
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|
Term
What is the order of the Papez circuit starting with the Cingulate gyrus? |
|
Definition
Cingulate gyrus
Cingulum
Hippocampus
Fornix
Mamillary nuclei
mamillothalamic tract
anterior thalamic nucleus
Caucasian cock helped fuck many moms asses |
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|
Term
What is the septal area of the basal forebrain used for? |
|
Definition
plays a role in modulation response to stimulus.
Lesions to this cause a person to over react (Septal rage syndrome) |
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|
Term
What is the nucleus accumbens of the basal forebrain used for? |
|
Definition
pleasure center
Remove this and u become unmotivated |
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|
Term
What is the Basal nucleus of Meynert of the basal forebrain used for? |
|
Definition
long term storage of memories
Alzheimers affects here |
|
|
Term
What is Kluver-Bucy syndrome? |
|
Definition
destruction of both temporal lobes in monkeys
They became fearless yet unagressive (no emotions)
never remembered objects |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of elderly dementia? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the Entorhinal cortex used for? |
|
Definition
major gateway between hippocampal formation and the neocortex |
|
|
Term
What is the prefrontal cortex used for? |
|
Definition
planning, personality, decision making |
|
|
Term
What is the premotor area used for? |
|
Definition
selects the appropriate movement for the current situation. |
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|
Term
Which moves around the paitients head?
CT or MRI |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When do you normally add a contrast agent to an MRI or CT? |
|
Definition
to evaluate blood vessels or the integrity of the BBB. |
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|
Term
How do you tell the difference between a T2 and a flair MRI when looking at radiographs? |
|
Definition
T2= CSF white
Flair= Dark CSF |
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|
Term
What radiographic image would u want for a suspected brain infection? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
____ is located in the exact midline of the brain and can be used to evaluate a shift in the midline of the brain. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are the tests you should run if u suspect epilepsy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
You think it is caused from something but you are not sure the exact cause. |
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|
Term
Pt presents after having a periof of Automatisms (picking at clothes, smackink lips, wandering, etc). What type of seizure do u suspecy? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does it mean if a seizure is myoclonic? |
|
Definition
the person did not have altered/loss of consciousness. |
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|
Term
What is an atonic seizure? |
|
Definition
when someone just collapses
Classic example is football players that just collapse on the field. |
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|
Term
What is seen on an EEG with absence seizures? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Pt presents with rapid jerking of one or both arms or legs, but has not lost consciousness. What type of seizure do u suspect? |
|
Definition
Primary myoclonic seizure
Tonic-clonic seizure may follow so monitor. |
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|
Term
What is the preffered initial drug for status epilepticus? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
You have given Benzodiazapine to a patient with status epilepticus and 5 mins later there is still no response what do u give them next? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is an alpha rhythm on an EEG? |
|
Definition
normal in awake adults
8-13 Hz |
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|
Term
What is a beta rhythm on an EEG? |
|
Definition
background in normally awake patients
above 12Hz |
|
|
Term
What is a theta rhythm on an EEG? |
|
Definition
seen in drowsyness
4-7 Hz |
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|
Term
What is a delta rhythm on an EEG? |
|
Definition
normal in Deep sleep
<4Hz |
|
|
Term
What is an epileptic spike on an EEG? |
|
Definition
sharp spike that may help diagnose epilepsy |
|
|
Term
What is a focal slowing on an EEG? |
|
Definition
Theta or delta waves siin in only certain electrodes.
Indicated underlying structural lesion |
|
|
Term
What is a diffuse slowing on an EEG? |
|
Definition
Theta or delta seen in all leads
Indicates encephalopathy or medication effects |
|
|
Term
What is an ambuulatory EEG? |
|
Definition
patient is wired for at least 24 hours and sent home. |
|
|
Term
How does the ion channel development make the young brain more susceptible to seizure? |
|
Definition
Depolarizing channels develop first |
|
|
Term
How does the neurotransmitter development make the young brain more susceptible to seizure? |
|
Definition
excitatory transmitters develop first |
|
|
Term
How does the GABA-A channel development make the young brain more susceptible to seizure? |
|
Definition
Reversed Cl- gradients in babies |
|
|
Term
How does the prevalence of electrical synapses in development make the young brain more susceptible to seizure? |
|
Definition
higher ammount of electrical synapses in development |
|
|
Term
How does the pruning of excitatotory connections during development make the young brain more susceptible to seizure? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How does the ability of glia to buffer potassium development make the young brain more susceptible to seizure? |
|
Definition
Na+/K+ ATPase develops with age to improve buffering. |
|
|
Term
What is Ohtahare syndrome? |
|
Definition
most severe and earliest developing epileptic encephalopathy
characterized by EEG high voltage bursts
severe psychomotor prognosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
breif jerk of one or more limbs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
usually they have fever first
severe form of epilepsy in infants
standard drugs dont work |
|
|
Term
Describe Lonnox-Gastaut syndrome |
|
Definition
seen in mentally retarded people
slow EEG pattern
seizures usually triggered by change in treatment |
|
|
Term
Describe Landau-Kleffner syndrome |
|
Definition
epileptic aphasia. you cant talk
Normal until 3-6 then begin to lose the ability to talk.
thought to be from the inhibition of pruning |
|
|
Term
What is the effects of the neurotransmitter glycine |
|
Definition
Inhibitory neurotransmitter. Lets Cl- into postsynaptic neurons through the glycine recptor |
|
|
Term
_____ is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzyme converts Glutamate into GABA? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
____ is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the GABA-A receptor do when stimulated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the GABA-B receptor do when stimulated? |
|
Definition
GABA-B is a G-protein that activates GIRK which lets our K+ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Whay is declarative or explicit memory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How and where is GABA degraded? |
|
Definition
GABA transaminase and Succinate semialdehyde dehydrogenase degrades GABA in the astrocytes and neurons. Breaks GABA -> Glutamine where it is transfered back to the presynaptic neuron where
Glutamine-> Glutamate -> GABA
GABA-
(GABA transaminase)->
Succinate semialdehyde-
(Succinate semialdehyde dehydrogenase)->
Succinate (product of citric acid cycle.)
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|
|
Term
How does aspartate act as a neurotransmitter? |
|
Definition
excitatory neurotransmitter |
|
|
Term
_____ is the most widely prescribed anti-epileptic drug worldwide. What is its mechanism? |
|
Definition
Valproic acid (Valproate)
Increases GABA
decreases aspartate
Mimics glutamate, GABA, and many other compounds making it a dirty drug. Binds and inhibits GABA transaminase and α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. |
|
|
Term
What happens if u block GABA transaminase? |
|
Definition
doesnt break down GABA, decreases aspartate |
|
|
Term
What happens if u block α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism for Benzodiazapines? |
|
Definition
Binds to GABA-A letting in Cl- |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism for Phenytoin? |
|
Definition
Antiseizure medication that works by blocking voltage gated Na+ channels |
|
|
Term
what is the effects of the neurotransmitter glycine? |
|
Definition
inhibitory neurotransmitter
Lets in Cl- |
|
|
Term
Where is the GABA-C receptor found and what does it let in/out? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does the GABA-A receptor differ in development? |
|
Definition
Cl- is higher inside the cell during development to instead of coming in, it leaves when the GABA-A is stimulated. This causes it to be excitatory in development. |
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|
Term
How is it possible for glycine to act as an excitatory neurotransmitter, when it is normally inhibitory? |
|
Definition
if it spills out into the spinal cord it can bind to the NMDA receptor and make it more sensitive to glutamate making u get enhanced pain transmission. |
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|
Term
____ is an antagonist of glycine and leads to convultions and muscular hyperactivity. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How is glycine taken back into the cell and which cell does this happen in? |
|
Definition
The glycine receptor on the presynaptic neuron uptakes it by using the Na+ gradient. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
unarousable unresponsiveness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
acute mental status change |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
general mental deterioration, does not fluctuate |
|
|
Term
What is the use of the association cortices? |
|
Definition
This is where u store explicit (declarative) memories. Different ones in the frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
facts, this is a branch of explicit memory |
|
|
Term
What are episodic memories? |
|
Definition
events, a branch of explicit memory |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Inability to remember how semantic memories were acquired. |
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|
Term
What are implicit memories? |
|
Definition
memories we are not consciously aware of. |
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|
Term
How are memories stored through changes in the synapses? |
|
Definition
Presynaptic: make it release more neurotransmitter
Postsynaptic: make it more sensitive to the neurotransmitter
General: add more synapses |
|
|
Term
How does the prefrontal cortex contribute to memory? |
|
Definition
Working memory. Signal is stored in a neural circuit in the prefrontal cortex |
|
|
Term
How is the hippocampus used in memory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Earliest pathological changes in Alzheimer disease occur in the ________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lesions of the right hippocampus would cause what problems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lesions of the left hippocampus would cause what problems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
memory loss and impairment in at least one other area. |
|
|
Term
what are the 2 types of lesions seen in Alzheimers disease? Where are these seen in the brain? |
|
Definition
Senile plaques
neurofibrillary tangles
Neocortex and hippocampus |
|
|
Term
How much do healthy brains shrink every year after 35? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How much does brain metabolism decrease every year after 35? |
|
Definition
0.2% same as how much it shrinks each year. |
|
|
Term
How much do diseased brains shrink every year? |
|
Definition
about 0.4%, double that of healthy brains. |
|
|
Term
What is the common characteristic seen in aging? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is the brain so susceptible to damage by ROS and aging? |
|
Definition
brain uses tons of energy, very metabolically active. |
|
|
Term
What happens with too little ROS? |
|
Definition
eliminates the benefits of excercise, reduced immune signaling |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between oxidative stress and the production of free radicals? |
|
Definition
oxidative stress is when u produce too many free radicals and u cant remove them all. |
|
|
Term
How is most superoxide formed? |
|
Definition
O2 picks up an electron from the electron transport chain to form O2- |
|
|
Term
What does more NADH mean more ROS? |
|
Definition
get more oxidative phosphorylation meaning more ROS. |
|
|
Term
What does superoxide dismutase catalyze? |
|
Definition
Superoxide to hydrogen peroxide
O2- -> H2O2 |
|
|
Term
What reaction does Glutathione peroxidase catalyze? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What reaction does glutathione reductase catalyze? |
|
Definition
Reduces glutathione to restore its antioxidant capacity. Uses NADPH to power this. |
|
|
Term
Why does an increase in ROS lead to an increase in uncoupling protein? |
|
Definition
allows for an elimination of the protein gradient so high energy oxygens are not bumping into things in the ETC. Allows high energy electrons to fall down and are not sitting there waiting to bump into oxygen. |
|
|
Term
Dementia is characterized by what microscopically? |
|
Definition
β amyloid (most important feature) and Tau |
|
|
Term
how does the β amyloid contribute to alzheimers? |
|
Definition
disrupts synapses and acts as a vasoconstrictor causing inadequate bloodflow |
|
|
Term
How do the Tau proteins help cause Alzheimers? |
|
Definition
disrupt the intracellular transport of nutrients along the axon causing neuronal cell death.
AD affects neurons but not glial cells. |
|
|
Term
mutations of what proteins would give someone a genetic predisposition for early onset autosomal dominant Alzheimers disease? |
|
Definition
Amyloid precursor protein (Chromosome 21)
PSEN1 (Chromosome 14)
PSEN2(Chromosome 1) |
|
|
Term
How is the Apolipoprotein E isoforms associated with alzheimers? |
|
Definition
ε2= reduced risk of developing AD
ε3= neutral risk of developing AD (4x more likely than ε2)
ε4= increased risk of developing (15x more likely than ε2) |
|
|
Term
A mutation in Tau (MAPT) contributes to what disease? |
|
Definition
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the prototype for Frontotemporal lobar demetia (FTLD)
Caused by mutations in Tau. Seen in neurons and glia. |
|
|
Term
TDP-43 mutations cause what? |
|
Definition
Frontaltemporal lobar disease (FTLD) |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between Parkinsons and Lewy body dementia? |
|
Definition
parkinsons= α-Synuclein lewy bodies in the subbstantia nigra and striatum
LBD= α-Synuclein lewy bodies found all over in the brain. |
|
|
Term
What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? |
|
Definition
Prion disease. dont eat brains
PrP undergoes a shape change to a beta sheet and can convert others around it. |
|
|
Term
What is more common Lewy body dementia or Frontotemporal lobor disease in terms of dementia causes? |
|
Definition
Lewy body dementia more common. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Proteinaceous infectious particles
no nucleic acid
no immune response
causes transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who gets bovine spongiform encephalopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
sheep, not seen in humans |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
people who have blood transfusions or u can get it from other medical instruments or even familial. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
people who eat infected beef |
|
|
Term
What does Quasisoecies mean? |
|
Definition
many different varients inside one person. Can help evade immune system in HIV. Escapes from CTLs and neutralizing antibodies. |
|
|
Term
What is the viral attachment protein in HIV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 cofactors of cell receptor that HIV binds to along with CD4? You only need to bind to one to cause HIV but certain strains bind one and other bind the other so you can have immunity to one strain but not another if u have a double mutation in one of these. |
|
Definition
CCR5 (M-tropic viruses) and CXCR4 (T-tropic viruses) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Treponema pallidum invades the CSF |
|
|
Term
What disease are negri bodies seen in? |
|
Definition
|
|