Term
| What are the 4 generalized neurological events (hint: ICE-T)? Under which categories is... Drugs? Infections? Auto-immune issue? Organ failure? Paraneoplastic? |
|
Definition
Ischemic
Complex seizure
Encephalitis: Infections, Auto-immune, Paraneoplastic
Toxic: Drugs, Organ Failure |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 categories of acute neurological disorders (hint: SPS)? Under which category is...embolism? Occlusive/Vasospastic? Hemorrhage? Epidural displacement? Subdural displacement? Tumor? |
|
Definition
Stroke- embolism, occlusive or hemorrhage
Partial Seizure
Structural- Epi or subdural or tumor |
|
|
Term
| Where might the lesion be if a patient has difficulty initiating gait (feet "glued" to floor) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An ataxic gait (looks inebriated) is indicative of a lesion where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term for when a patient has an ataxic gait, needs to look at feet to walk (loss of proprioception), and may periodically lose sight as well? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What innervates the dura mater above the Tentorium? Below it? |
|
Definition
| Above- Trigeminal Nerve; Below- First 3 cervical nerves and Vagus Nerve. |
|
|
Term
| Which Cranial Nerve controls... a) Sight; b) Hearing/Balance Regulation; c) turn head/lift shoulders; d) taste/swallow/salivation/monitor carotid and sinus; e)taste/swallow/lift palate/talk/communication with thoraco-abdominal viscera; f) move tongue; g) chew and feel front of head; h) smell; i) constrict pupils and most of eye muscle movement; j) moves lateral rectus muscle of eye; k) moves superior oblique muscle of eye. |
|
Definition
a) Sight = CN2 (Optic)
b) Hearing/Balance Regulation = CN8 (Vestibulochochlear)
c) turn head/lift shoulders = CN11 (Accessory)
d) taste/swallow/salivation/monitor carotid and sinus = CN9 (Glossopharyngeal)
e)taste/swallow/lift palate/talk/communication with thoraco-abdominal viscera = CN10 (Vagus)
f) move tongue = CN12 (Hypoglossal)
g) chew and feel front of head = CN5 (Trigeminal)
h) smell = CN1 (Olfactory)
i) constrict pupils and most of eye muscle movement = CN3 (Oculomotor)
j) moves lateral rectus muscle of eye = CN6 (Abducens)
k) moves superior oblique muscle of eye = CN4 (Trochlear) |
|
|
Term
| What two cranial nerves does a INO (Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia) prevent from connecting at the MLF (Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus)? What effect does an INO have on the eyes? |
|
Definition
| CN6 and CN3; Adducting eye impaired while the abducting eye exhibits nystagmus. |
|
|
Term
| What cranial nerve is affected by Bell's Palsy? How do you differentiate central from peripheral (supranuclear) palsy? |
|
Definition
| CN VII (Facial); central = droopy, weak muscles on entire contralateral side of face, peripheral = UMN or LMN only affected on contralateral side; |
|
|
Term
| Is it a central or peripheral lesion on CNVIII if hearing loss occurs in both ears? One ear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two cranial nerves contribute to the gag reflex (palatal movement)? What percent of patients do not have a gag reflex? |
|
Definition
| CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) and CN X (Vagus); 20% of patients |
|
|
Term
| What are the "KLM" sounds for Dysarthria and what Cranial Nerves do they test? |
|
Definition
| "Kuh Kuh Kuh" to test soft palate (CN9 &10), "La La La" to test tongue (CN12), "Mi Mi Mi" to test the lips (CN7) |
|
|
Term
| Will a central or peripheral lesion on CNXI (Accessory) present with weakness in the contralateral trapezius and ipsilateral sternocleidomastoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define: Monoparesis, Hemiparesis, Paraparesis, Quadraparesis, Diplegia |
|
Definition
Monoparesis- weakness in 1 limb
Hemiparesis- weakness on 1 side of bidy
Paraparesis- lower extremity weakness
Quadraparesis- weakness in all 4 limbs
Diplegia- bilateral facial weakness |
|
|
Term
| What Deep Tendon Reflex is test for C5-6, C6-7, L3-4, L5, S1? |
|
Definition
C5-6: Biceps and Brachioradialis
C6-7: Triceps
L3-4: Knee (patellar)
L5: Hamstrings
S1: Ankle (Achilles) |
|
|
Term
Which spinal nerve serves as the dermatome for the...
a) back of the head
b) back of neck
c) majority of the anterior shoulders
d) areola
e) lateral forearm
f) medial forearm
g) umbilicus
h) majority of anterior pelvis
i) anus
j) genitals
k) anterior thigh
l) posterior thigh
m) anterior knee
n) calcaneus |
|
Definition
[image]
a) back of the head- C2
b) back of neck- C3
c) majority of the anterior shoulders- C4
d) areola- T4
e) lateral forearm- C6
f) medial forearm- T1
g) umbilicus- T10
h) majority of anterior pelvis- L1
i) anus- S5
j) genitals- S3&4
k) anterior thigh- L2
l) posterior thigh- S2
m) anterior knee- L3
n) calcaneus- S1 |
|
|
Term
| What does Tonic mean in a Tonic-Clonic Seizure? Clonic? |
|
Definition
Tonic- arms raise, head turns to opposite of seizure side
Clonic- bilateral stiffening of limbs, straight forward |
|
|
Term
| What is Wernicke's Encephalopathy (Triad)? Who typically presents with it? |
|
Definition
| Triad- Confused, Nystagmus or eye paralysis, gait ataxia; Alcoholics with a B12 deficiency (Thiamine). |
|
|
Term
| What are the levels of the cervical plexis? Brachial plexis? Lumbar? Sacral? Coccygeal? |
|
Definition
Cervical plexis: C1-4
Brachial plexis: C5-T1
Lumbar: L1-5
Sacral: L4-S3
Coccygeal: S4-Co1 |
|
|
Term
| What autonomic system component is comprised of Auerbach's plexus (Myenteric) and Meissner's plexus (Submucosal) that controls GI motility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerve has the parasympathetic components for salivation and tearing? Just salivation? pupil and ciliary body constriction? |
|
Definition
| CN7 (tearing and salivation); CN9 (salivation); CN3 (pupil/ciliary constriction) |
|
|
Term
| What runs underneath CNII? |
|
Definition
| Opthalmic artery from the ICA |
|
|
Term
Is it a ACA, MCA, PCA stroke?
a) deficits in contralateral face and upper limb
b) deficits in contralateral foot and leg
c) visual agnosia
d) blurry peripheral vision |
|
Definition
a) MCA- face and upper limb
b) ACA- foot and leg
c) PCA- vision
d) Inf. branch of MCA- blurry peripheral vision |
|
|
Term
What artery supplies...?
a) Internal Capsule
b) Thalamus
c) Midbrain
d) Pons
e) Medulla Oblongata |
|
Definition
a) Internal Capsule- MCA
b) Thalamus- PCA (Basilar)
c) Midbrain- PCA (Superior Cerebellar)
d) Pons- PCA (AICA)
e) Medulla Oblongata- PCA (PICA) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most frequent cause of Trigeminal Nerve pain? |
|
Definition
| Impinging blood vessel(ie- Anterior Cerebelli Superior Artery) |
|
|
Term
| The internal carotid supplies what portion of the brain? The vertebral artery? A suspected vascular blockage associated with visual loss and dizziness would be associated with which artery? Weakness and loss of sensation on the left side of the body with a suspected vascular issue? |
|
Definition
| ICA branches into Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA) and Medial Cerebral Artery (MCA); VA becomes PCA; PCA = loss if vision/dizziness; Left side body = right hemisphere by right internal carotid. |
|
|
Term
| CN III lies between which two arteries, thereby susceptible to damage if an aneurysm occurred? |
|
Definition
| Posterior Cerebral A. and Superior Cerebellar A. |
|
|
Term
| What component of the Nervous System consists of visceral sensory and visceral motor functions? |
|
Definition
| Autonomic (Viseral) Nervous System |
|
|
Term
| Which nerves are involved in the parsympathetic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which nerves are only sensory? Do they all originate from the brain stem? Of those that originate from the brainstem, which do somatic sensory and visceral sensory? |
|
Definition
| CN 1,2,8; No- just CN8; CN8 does just somatic sensory |
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerves contain mixed (motor and somatic) neurons? Which mixed motor neuron does not do somatic motor, visceral motor, somatic sensory, visceral sensory? Which ones does it cover? |
|
Definition
| CN 5,7,9,10; CN5- only does Somatic motor and viseral |
|
|
Term
| Which Cranial Nerves are only motor in function? Are they all somatic motor? Are they all visceral motor? |
|
Definition
| CN 3,4,6,11,12 (Omit sensory 1,2,8 and mixed 5,7,9,10); All are somatic motor; only CN3 is visceral motor. |
|
|
Term
| Which nerve does the visceral sensory of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? Posterior 1/3? |
|
Definition
| CN7 for anterior 2/3; CN9 for posterior 1/3. |
|
|
Term
| What nerves mediate swallowing? Which controls the larynx? |
|
Definition
| CN9 and 10; CN10 controls larynx |
|
|
Term
| Which nerve closes the eyelid? Which opens the eyes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The right-side facial nucleus synapse of CN7 for motor function has a lesion below it; what type of motor deficit is expected? Lesion above it? |
|
Definition
| Full right side paralysis; Lower-half of face on right side. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
[image]
1) Normal
2) Ipsilateral
3) Bitemporal hemianopia
4 & 6) Homonymous hemianopia
5) Quadrant anopia |
|
|
Term
| What cranial nerve can large amounts of streptomycin, quinine, and aspirin affect bilaterally? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which system is generally characterized as anabolic, sympathetic or parasympathetic? |
|
Definition
| Parasympathetic (Sympathetic is generally catabolic) |
|
|
Term
| Which cranial nerve has the parasympathetic components for salivation and tearing? Just salivation? pupil and ciliary body constriction? |
|
Definition
| CN7 (tearing and salivation); CN9 (salivation); CN3 (pupil/ciliary constriction) |
|
|
Term
What are the sympathetic and parasympathetic actions on the:
a) eye
b) salivary glands
c) GI tract
d) Urinary bladder
e) sex organ |
|
Definition
a) eye- dilate pupil & contract pupil
b) salivary glands- viscous secretion & watery secretion
c) GI tract- inhibit motility & stimulate motility
d) Urinary bladder- relax & contract
e) sex organ- ejaculation & erection |
|
|
Term
| What is the general purpose of the Papez Circuit? What components of the brain contribute to it? |
|
Definition
| Emotional content of conscious thought and memory- consisting of the hippocampus, hypothalamus, thalamus, cerebral cortex, with input of the olfactory system. |
|
|
Term
| General awkwardness of intentional movements is indicative of a lesion on what? How about meaningless unintentional movements? |
|
Definition
| Cerebellum; Basal Ganglia |
|
|
Term
| What Basal Ganglia disorder is characterized by rigidity, slowness, and a resting tremor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where might a lesion be in the aphasic zone of speech if the person's speech habits contain plentiful and excessive words with inappropriate substitutes and neologisms (word salad)? If the speech is non-fluent and disturbed, with nouns and conjunctions missing? |
|
Definition
| Posterior region; Anterior Region |
|
|
Term
Which spinal nerve serves as the dermatome for the...
a) back of the head
b) back of neck
c) majority of the anterior shoulders
d) areola
e) lateral forearm
f) medial forearm
g) umbilicus
h) majority of anterior pelvis
i) anus
j) genitals
k) anterior thigh
l) posterior thigh
m) anterior knee
n) calcaneus |
|
Definition
[image]
a) back of the head- C2
b) back of neck- C3
c) majority of the anterior shoulders- C4
d) areola- T4
e) lateral forearm- C6
f) medial forearm- T1
g) umbilicus- T10
h) majority of anterior pelvis- L1
i) anus- S5
j) genitals- S3&4
k) anterior thigh- L2
l) posterior thigh- S2
m) anterior knee- L3
n) calcaneus- S1 |
|
|
Term
What nerve is affected if...
a) winging of scapula
b) unable to extend knee or flex hip
c) unable to adduct wrist or oppose little finger
d) unable to raise arm above 90 degrees
e) unable to flex at elbow
f) unable to extend at wrist and elbow
g) unable to flex wrist or oppose thumb
h) unable to adduct hip
i) unable to flex knee |
|
Definition
a) winging of scapula- Long thoracic (C5-7)
b) unable to extend knee or flex hip- Femoral (L2-4)
c) unable to adduct wrist or oppose little finger- Ulnar (C8-T1)
d) unable to raise arm above 90 degrees- Axillary (C5-6)
e) unable to flex at elbow- Musculocutaneous (C5-6)
f) unable to extend at wrist and elbow- Radial (C5-8)
g) unable to flex wrist or oppose thumb- Median (C6-T1)
h) unable to adduct hip- Obturator (L2-4)
i) unable to flex knee- Sciatic (L4-S3) |
|
|
Term
| What CN supplies parasympathetic fibers to lacrimal gland, nasal mucosa, and submandibular/sublingual glands? Parotid Gland? Eye? Genitalia, bladder, ureters, rectum, and small intestine? What does CN X (Vagus) supply? |
|
Definition
-Lacrimal gland, nasal mucosa, and submandibular/sublingual glands- CNVII
-Parotid Gland- CNIX
-Eye- CNIII
-Genitalia, bladder, ureters, rectum, and small intestine
-Pelvic Splanchnic Nerves (S2-S4)
-CNX supplies Heart, Lung, Liver, Gallbladder, Stomach, Pancreas, Intestines |
|
|
Term
What part of the sympathetic chain ganglion supplies innervation to...?
a) Eye, Lacrimal gland, nasal mucosa, blood vessels, arrector pili, sweat glands, salivary glands
b) Heart and Lungs
c) Liver, gallbladder, stomach, spleen, adrenal medulla, kidneys
d) Transverse large intestine, small intestine
e) Descending large intestine, rectum
f) Genitalia, bladder |
|
Definition
a) Eye, Lacrimal gland, nasal mucosa, blood vessels, arrector pili, sweat glands, salivary glands- SUPERIOR CERVICAL GANGLION
b) Heart and Lungs- CARDIAC & PULMONARY PLEXES (Superior Cervical Ganglion, Middle Cervical Ganglion, Inferior Cervical Ganglion, T1-T3)
c) Liver, gallbladder, stomach, spleen, adrenal medulla, kidneys- CELIAC GANGLION (via Greater Splanchnic nerve from T5-T9)
d) Transverse large intestine, small intestine- SUPERIOR MESENTERIC GANGLION & LESSER SPLANCHNIC NERVE (SMG branches from Celiac Ganglion which derives from greater splanchnic nerve from T5-T-9; Lesser splanchnic nerves derives from T10-12 and only feeds the small intestine)
e) Descending large intestine, rectum- INFERIOR MESENTERIC GNAGLION (via Lumbar Splanchnic Nerves from L1-2)
f) Genitalia, bladder- SACRAL SPLANCHNIC NERVES (base of sympathetic trunk) |
|
|
Term
| Is a (complex) seizure a generalized or focal neurological event? What are the two types if seizures? Under which type is...genetic? Idiopathic? Organ failure (other than brain) |
|
Definition
Generalized neurological event:
- Psychogenic
- Generalized: Genetic, Idiopathic, Organ failure |
|
|
Term
| Is a partial seizure a generalized or focal neurological event? What are the 5 categories under partial seizure (hint: 3 related to CNS)? |
|
Definition
Focal neurological event:
- CNS degeneration
- CNS Infection
- CNS Neoplasm
- Stroke
- Trauma |
|
|
Term
| Name at least 5 risk factors that provoke epileptic seizures? |
|
Definition
Alcohol/drug withdrawal, drug intoxication, renal failure (uremia), Porphyria (Heme abnormality) and...
Hypo-atremia, -magnesium, -calcemia, -glycemia, -xia (oxygen) and...
Hyper-atremia, -glycemia, --thyroidism |
|
|
Term
| What kind of meningitis is characterized by CSF lymphocytic pleocytosis without apparent cause? Is it always viral? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does the following commonly cause meningitis, encephalitis, or both?-
a) Herpes Viruses
b) HIV
c) Rabies
d) Influenza
e) Arboviruses
f) Enteroviruses |
|
Definition
a) Herpes Viruses- BOTH
b) HIV- BOTH
c) Rabies- ENCEPHALITIS
d) Influenza- ENCEPHALITIS
e) Arboviruses- ENCEPHALITIS
f) Enteroviruses- MENINGITIS (85%) |
|
|
Term
| Explain the process of latency in the herpes virus. |
|
Definition
· Infects:
• Peripheral site then clears
• Ganglia then clears
· Fraction of Neural DNA Nuclei infected
• Circular intermediate (stable, non-replicating)
• Maintained by LATs (latency associated transcription)
○ Inhibit cell apoptosis
· Transcription increase linked to stress, light, or other triggers
• Needs some transcriptional activity and “low point” immunity |
|
|
Term
| Which herpes viruses are Alpha Family? Beta? Gamma? |
|
Definition
Alpha: HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV
Beta: CMV, HHV6, HHV7
Gamma: EBV, HHV8 |
|
|
Term
| What do alpha, beta, and gamma proteins do during herpes replication? |
|
Definition
Alpha: transcribe early genes, which makes Beta proteins
Beta: Facilitate DNA replication, which makes, in part, Gamma proteins
Gamma: Virion assembly |
|
|
Term
Is the Arbovirus a Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, or a Reoviridae?
a) EEEV and WEEV
b) CEV
c) WNV
d) SLEV
e) YFN and DENV
f) CTFV |
|
Definition
a) EEEV and WEEV- TOGA
b) CEV- REO
c) WNV- FLAVI
d) SLEV- FLAVI
e) YFN and DENV- FLAVI
f) CTFV- REO |
|
|
Term
| Which meningitis causes virus is ether and acid resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What herpes virus family is problematic for transplant recipients? |
|
Definition
| Beta Herpes (CMV, HH6, HH7) |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 viruses are most prevalent in S. America and C. Africa, particularly during the rainy season? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Arbovirus is not required to reported to the government? Which herpes virus must be reported if death is the result? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which two meningitis causing viruses are NOT enveloped? Which viruses are ssRNA, dsRNA, and dsDNA? Which one does not have an icosahedral capsid? |
|
Definition
| Enteroviruses and CTFV; ssRNA- Enteroviruses and all Arboviruses but one, CTFV is dsRNA; dsDNA- herpes viruses; CEV- helical. |
|
|
Term
| Which virus prefers to infect the GI system? Trigeminal Ganglia? Lumbar/Sacral Ganglia? Nerve Roots? Intracellular? T-cells? Blood? |
|
Definition
GI- Non-polio Enteroviruses
Trigeminal- HSV1
Lumbar/Sacral- HSV2
Nerve Roots- VZV
Intracellular- CMV
T-cells- HH6 and HH7
Blood- Arboviruses |
|
|
Term
| Which virus affects the liver, presenting with jaundice? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Of which virus is the "La Crosse" a strain? What does it commonly cause, meningitis or encephalitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does Acyclovir work (Nucleoside Analogue)? For which herpes viruses is it most effective? |
|
Definition
| Incorporated into growing viral DNA strands- stops viral DNA Polymerase and halts chain; shortens duration and extent of shedding; no effect on period of latency; Effective for HSV1, HSV2, and VZV |
|
|
Term
| How does Foscarnet (Pyrophosphate Analogue)? |
|
Definition
| Selectively inhibits pyrophosphate binding site on viral DNA polymerases w/o affecting human DNA polymerases. |
|
|
Term
| What is a Tzank Smear? For which viruses is it useful? |
|
Definition
| Test for presence of Multinucleated Giant Cells scraped from ulcer; HSV1, HSV2, VZV, and CMV |
|
|
Term
| What are Latency-Associated Transcripts? |
|
Definition
| Latency-Associated Transcripts: generated by and suppresses herpes viral replication; triggered by sunlight, stress, or fever |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
P = problem, I = intervention, C = Compared, O = outcome
• I.e.- Formation of a PICO question
○ P- Schizophrenia
○ I- Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
○ C- compared to usual care
○ O- outcome (significant decrease in re-hospitalization) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 formulae for LHH (Likelihood of Helped vs. Harmed)? |
|
Definition
Help: ARR x Risk Factor Increase x Responsiveness of Patient
Harm: ARI x f-harm x severity |
|
|
Term
| What does CHA2DS2-VASc do? |
|
Definition
| Guideline for Anticoagulative decision making. |
|
|
Term
Decide if the following are Stroke (Hemorrhagic or Ischemic) or Stroke Mimic (Neurological, Infection, or Systemic):
a) Seizure
b) Alcohol intoxication
c) Embolism
d) Intracranial bleeding
e) Subarachnoid bleeding
f) Hypoxia
g) Thrombosis
h) Dementia
I) Tumor |
|
Definition
a) Seizure- Mimic, Neurological
b) Alcohol intoxication- Mimic, Systemic
c) Embolism- Stroke, Ishemic
d) Intracranial bleeding- Stroke, Hemorrhagic
e) Subarachnoid bleeding- Stroke, Hemorrhagic
f) Hypoxia- Stroke, Ischemic
g) Thrombosis- Stroke, Ischemic
h) Dementia- Mimic, Neurological
I) Tumor |
|
|
Term
| Which causes 80% of strokes, ischemia or hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What medical condition contribute to stroke risk? Lifestyles? Biological factors? |
|
Definition
Medical- Hypertension, Hearth disease, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, carotid stenosis, sleep apnea
Lifestyles- cigarettes, physical inactivity, alcohol, obesity, cavities
Biological- age, gender, ancestry, family history |
|
|
Term
Name that lobe:
a) judgment, voluntary movement, smell
b) comprehension of language
c) hearing, intellectual/emotional functions |
|
Definition
a) judgment, voluntary movement, smell-FRONTAL
b) comprehension of language- PARIETAL
c) hearing, intellectual/emotional functions- TEMPORAL |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Transient Ischemic Attack- brief neurologic deficit, usually indicates an imminent ischemic stroke. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common lacunar stroke symptom? What is typically absent with a deep subcortical lacunar stroke? |
|
Definition
| Motor Hemiparesis; Aphasia or Visual Field Defects |
|
|
Term
| What medication would you give someone within 3 hours of stroke? What medication would be best following a "small" stroke? "Large" stroke? |
|
Definition
| TPA for Fibrolysis; Warfarin for small; Clopidogrel for large |
|
|
Term
| What drugs help prevent secondary strokes in regard to anti-platelet therapy? Anti-coagulant? Other methods? |
|
Definition
Antiplatelet: Aspirin, Clopidogrel
Anticoagulant: Warfarin, Dabigatran
Others: statin, antihypetensives, antidiabetics, patient education |
|
|
Term
| Why would you want to drop arterial hypertension precipitously if a patient has a stroke? |
|
Definition
| You don't- drop gradually, about 15% during first 24 hrs |
|
|
Term
| What is the hallmark of brain edema and increased intracranial pressure? How would you treat it? |
|
Definition
| Depression of consciousness- but also unstable vitals and Cushings Reflex; Restrict fluids, administer mannitol, drain CSF, Trepanation |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage? What anticoagulant has a small propensity to cause hemorrhages? What common street drug? |
|
Definition
| Chronic hypertension; Warfarin; Cocaine |
|
|
Term
What does it check (midbrain, pons, medulla)?
a) Gag reflex
b) Corneal reflex
c) Pupil size |
|
Definition
a) Gag reflex- Medulla
b) Corneal reflex- Pons
c) Pupil size- Midbrain |
|
|
Term
| Where is surgical intervention for intracranial hemorrhage shown to improve outcome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a Pontine hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
| Severe hemorrhage affecting the brainstem |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhages? Most common spontaneous cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the emergent work-up for suspected Subarachnoid Hemorrhage patients? |
|
Definition
| Head CT scan, Lumbar puncture, Cerebral Angiogram |
|
|
Term
[image]
Name the foramina and which Cranial Nerves transverse through them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do each of the cranial nerves innervate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
[image]
Name the foramina and which Cranial Nerves transverse them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Danger Triangle of the Face? |
|
Definition
| Veins that drain from nose/upper lip are valveless- infections can go straight to Cavernous Sinus behind eye. |
|
|
Term
| What nerves run through the Cavernous Sinus? |
|
Definition
O
TAC
O
M
(Oculomotor, Trochlear, Opthalmic of Trig, Maxillary of Trig. Carotid Internal), Abducent, Trochlear |
|
|
Term
| What Cranial Nerve has the Parotid Plexus and what are the 5 subsequent branches? |
|
Definition
| CNVII; Temporal, Zygomatic, Buccal, Marginal Mandible, Cervical |
|
|
Term
| What two nerves blend to form the Lingual Nerve? What does this collectively innervate? |
|
Definition
| CNV, Mandiblular branch and CNVII, via Chorda Tympani; anterior 2/3 tongue (CNVII-Somatic and CNV-Taste) |
|
|
Term
| What is the one muscle to which CNIX provides motor innervation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nerve innervates the following ganglia?-
a) Ciliary
b) Otic
c) Pterygopalatine
d) Submandibular |
|
Definition
a) Ciliary- CNIII
b) Otic-CNIX
c) Pterygopalatine- CNVII
d) Submandibular- CNVII |
|
|
Term
| Of what Cranial Nerve is the Supraorbital Nerve a branch? Infraorbital? Mental? |
|
Definition
| All CNV- Opthalmic, Maxillary, and Mandibular respectively |
|
|
Term
| What is replication segregation of mtDNA? |
|
Definition
| Random segregation without a spindle and independent of cell cycle from pre-existing maternal mtDNA. |
|
|
Term
| Define Heteroplasmy in mtDNA; how is this different from Homoplasmy? |
|
Definition
• Heteroplasmy = some mutants, some not
• Homoplasmy- all normal or all mutants |
|
|
Term
| What codes for most of the 1500 mt proteins, mtDNA or nuclear DNA? Which has a higher mutation rate? What DNA Polymerase is the most common cause of inherited mt disease? What codes for this Polymerase? |
|
Definition
| Nuclear DNA; mtDNA has 10x mutation rate (smaller): DNA Polymerase Gamma or POLG; coded by Nuclear DNA (but causes mtDNA disease!). |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of disorders in oxidative phosphorylation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Combination of Nuclear DNA and mtDNA from two females to make 1 viable oocyte. |
|
|
Term
| For a CNS S. pneumoniae infection, what drugs would you want to use? Why (for each)? When would you want to add Ampicillin? |
|
Definition
| Ceftriaxon (better rate than penicillin) + Vancomycin (for resistant strains) + Dexamethasone (anti-inflammatory); Ampicillin for Listeria |
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA for the "conazole" drugs? MOA of Flucytosine? Black box warning for the latter? |
|
Definition
| Block biosynthesis of ergosterol in cell membrane; disrupt RNA/DNA synthesis; avoid with Renal function impairment |
|
|
Term
| What are the common systemic antifungal agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the MOA for Echinocandins? Why preferred over "azole" antifungals? |
|
Definition
| Target cell wall to open pores and leak out contents, good for Candidiasis; less toxicity and drug-drug interactions; |
|
|
Term
| What are Tetracyclines? What do they typically treat? Which is the latest and most effective tetracycline? What is side effect if given to pregnant women or children under 8 yrs old? |
|
Definition
| Antimicrobials that inhibit protein metabolism; Tick Diseases (an Ca pneumonia, peptic ulcers, chlamydia, and cholera); Tigecycline (but start with doxycycline); discolored teeth |
|
|
Term
| What is the hallmark of a partial (focal) seizure? Explain this process. |
|
Definition
| PDS (Paroxysmal Depolarization Shift)- prolonged depolarization state via AMPA receptors, followed by bursts of repetitive firing potentials (interictal states) via NMDA receptors, ending with a prolonged hyperpolarized state (ictal period). |
|
|
Term
| What does GABA A control? GABA B? What are the two G-protein subunits to which GABA couples? Which receptor is faster? |
|
Definition
GABA A- Cl-
GABA B- K+ (Gi subunit) and Ca2+ (Go subunit)
GABA A is faster |
|
|
Term
| Explain Feed Forward and Feedback inhibition. Which receptor do both of these methods target? |
|
Definition
○ Feed Forward: Excitatory neuron activates inhibitory neuron simultaneously at synapse that blocks excitation signal at target neuron.
○ Feedback: Inhibitory mechanism blocks excitatory signal (negative feedback loop) from continuing AND block surrounding principal neurons.
- Both use GABA receptors to inhibit. |
|
|
Term
| What area of the brain helps facilitate seizure spreading by synchronizing PDS among neurons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What receptor initiates the fast depolarization of a PDS? Which receptor follows more slowly and is characterized by the interical period? Which is the Tonic and Clonic portions of a partial seizure? An influx of what eventually ends the episode? |
|
Definition
| AMPA- fast (tonic); NMDA-slow (clonic); ends with influx of K+ and Cl- |
|
|
Term
| What is depleted during the Tonic phase of a partial seizure? What does the return of this molecule do during the Clonic phase? |
|
Definition
| GABA is depleted in Tonic phase' Return during Clonic phase results in waves of firing and inhibition as it tries to recover from prolonged hypopolarization. |
|
|
Term
| What is the hallmark of Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy (Partial Epilepsy)?; Which seizure spreads faster, one with a neocortex origin or limbic (hippocampus or amygdala)? |
|
Definition
| Hippocampus sclerosis (due to synchronizing PDSs and spreading seizures); Neocortex origin spreads faster. |
|
|
Term
| What type of seizure involves oscillation of excitability between the thalamus and the neocortex? Is it a partial or generalized seizure type? What is the term for the build-up of excitability, ultimately leading to a seizure? What excitatory transmitter is implicated in this process? |
|
Definition
| Childhood Absence Seizures; Generalized; Kindling; Calcium |
|
|
Term
| What is the process of cell apoptosis resulting from prolonged seizures starting with exitotoxicity? |
|
Definition
| Excitotoxicity- excessive Glutamate- excessive Calcium- Secondary activation of perioxidation enzymes ("ases")- free radical damaged proteins + edema w/o Na+/K+ pumps = apoptosis |
|
|
Term
| Do convulsants enhance or block excitation? Inhibition? What does Domoic acid do? Penicillin? What would impairment of Glia cells do? |
|
Definition
| Convulsants enhance excitation or block inhibition; Domoic acid is a NMDA agonist- enhanced excitation; Penicillin impairs GABA- blocks inhibition; Impair Glia- glutamate remains available- enhanced excitation |
|
|
Term
| Do anticonvulsants enhance or block excitation? Inhibition? In which category do most anticonvulsant medications today work? |
|
Definition
| Anticonvulsants block excitation or enhance inhibition; more medications today enhance inhibition. |
|
|
Term
| What is a common undesirable effect of anti-herpetic viral drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antifungal agent is highly effective but has many side effects? What is the new version called that has fewer side effects? |
|
Definition
| Amphotericin B; Lipid-Associated Amphotericin B |
|
|
Term
| What bacteria is associated with about 70% of bacterial brain abcesses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For chronic meningitis, what would you expect from a CSF draw in regard to...?
a) Clarity
b) Protein levels
c) Glucose levels
d) WBC count
e) Gram stain |
|
Definition
a) Clarity- mostly clear
b) Protein levels- elevated
c) Glucose levels- decreased
d) WBC count- increased
e) Gram stain- Acid Fast Stain |
|
|
Term
The 3 stages of T. gondii- Tachyzoite, Sporozoite,, and Bradyzoite; Which is associated with...?
a) protected by an oocyst in environment
b) rapidly dividing invader
c) slowly dividing in tissue cysts |
|
Definition
a) protected by an oocyst in environment- Sporozoite
b) rapidly dividing invader- Tachyzoite
c) slowly dividing in tissue cysts- Bradyzoite |
|
|
Term
Cryptococcus, T. solium, or T. gondii:
a) Cats as a definitive host
b) Polysaccharide capsule and Melanin
c) Transmitted via pigeon dropping inhalation
d) Transmitted via soil inhalation
e) Pregnant women are at increased risk
f) Usually asymptomatic in presentation
g) ID'd using India Ink Stain |
|
Definition
a) Cats as a definitive host- T. gondii
b) Polysaccharide capsule and Melanin- Cryptococcus
c) Transmitted via pigeon dropping inhalation- Cryptococcus neorformans
d) Transmitted via soil inhalation- Cryptococcus gatti
e) Pregnant women are at increased risk- T. gondii
f) Usually asymptomatic in presentation- T. gondii
g) ID'd using India Ink Stain- Cryptococcus |
|
|
Term
| What medication would you use to treat Cryptococcus species? Tania solium? Toxoplasma gondii? |
|
Definition
| Cryptococcus species- Amphotericin B w/ Flucytosine then Fluconazol; Tania solium- Praziquantel; Toxoplasma gondii- Pyrimethamine & Sulphadiazine |
|
|
Term
Define:
a) Nullimorph
b) Hypomorph
c) Antimorph
d) Neomorph
e) Concordance
f) Discordance |
|
Definition
a) Nullimorph- total loss of function
b) Hypomorph- partial loss
c) Antimorph- antagonistic to normal function
d) Neomorph- new function
e) Concordance- two family members with same disease
f) Discordance- one family member affected, another not |
|
|
Term
| How is Relative Risk determined for multifactorial genetic disorders? How are MZ and DZ twins used to determine heritability (h2) of a trait? |
|
Definition
| Prevalence among family / Prevalence among general population; Different in variance / Variance of DZ pairs |
|
|
Term
| When comparing siblings for a certain genetic trait, where on the bell curve would you expect two brothers with low correlation? High correlation? |
|
Definition
| Opposite ends of bell curve; closer together |
|
|
Term
| What does an EEG measure? What is the term if you were to stick an electrode into the extra-cellular space but not next to a neuron? Next to a neuron? Inside the cell? |
|
Definition
| Potentials of scalp surface relative to common ground; Field potential; Extracellular; Intracellular |
|
|
Term
| What area of the brain can an EEG effectively record? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does an increase in signal amplitude on an EEG signify? What wave frequency is expected during a relaxed awake state? Where would see activity in the brain? What frequency group during intense mental activity? Where in the brain is the activity? During sleep/drowsiness? |
|
Definition
| Synchronizing of neurons; Alpha waves- parietal and occipital lobes; Beta waves- frontal lobe; Delta and Theta frequencies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Medulloblastoma Histology |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Perivascular Pseudorosettes |
|
|
Term
| What is the number one CNS tumor? Where are typically located in adults? Children? What is the likelihood it will metastasize outside the CNS system? What disease is most likely to metastasize to the brain? |
|
Definition
| Glioblastoma Multiforme (GBM)and other Astrocytomas; Front for adults, back for kids; does not metastasize outside CNS (not other way around); Melanoma, followed by breast & lung cancer |
|
|
Term
| What do most CNS malignancies specifically attack? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 3 distinguishing factors of Astrocytomas? |
|
Definition
| Cellularity, Pleomorphism, Hyperchromastism |
|
|
Term
| What CNS disease is characterized by frequent crossing of the corpus collosum, bilateral extension into the white matter, mottled red and yellow, similar in shape to a butterfly? What are the 3 distinguishable histological characteristics of the disease above? |
|
Definition
| GBMs; Marked cellularity, Necrosis, and Glomeruloids (small blood vessel clusters) |
|
|
Term
| What is a key difference in imaging between Astrocytomas and Oligodendrogliomas? |
|
Definition
| Calcoshperites (Calcifications) |
|
|
Term
| Match disease to appropriate ventricle affected- Ependymoma, Colloid Cyst? |
|
Definition
| 4th ventricle; 3rd ventricle |
|
|
Term
| Which CNS tumor is extremely radiosensitive? Where would you typically find this pathology? |
|
Definition
| Medulloblastoma; Cerebellum |
|
|
Term
| What CNS pathology interferes with the pituitary glands if present? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common physical change to the brain from Complex Partial Seizures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must be present to induce a Febrile Seizure? With which population are Febrile Seizures most associated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some structural causes of seizures? |
|
Definition
| Congenital, Metabolic (drugs/alcohol), Trauma, Tumors, Vascular (AVMs), Degenerative Diseases (Alzheimers), Infectious (bacteria, herpes, AIDs) |
|
|
Term
In what lobe is the partial seizure with the following symptoms are present:
a) Flushing, lip smacking, pupillary dilation
b) Vertigo, hallucinations
c) Tonic/Clonic
d) Vertigo, contralateral numbness/tingling
e) Sparkles, flashes in vision |
|
Definition
○ Temporal Lobe: Medial = flushing, lip smacking, pupillary dilation; Lateral = Vertigo, hallucinations
○ Frontal Lobe: Tonic/Clonic
○ Parietal Lobe: Vertigo, contralateral numbness/tingling
○ Occipital Lobe: Sparkles, flashes |
|
|
Term
| What is more radiolucent, air or bone? Least radiodense? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What appears darker on a CT scan, white or gray matter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the color of the following for a T1, T2, and Flair MRI: CSF, Grey matter, and White matter. |
|
Definition
T1- dark CSF and Grey, Light white
T2- Light CSF and Grey, Dark White
Flair- Dark CSF, Light Grey, Dark White |
|
|
Term
| What is characteristic of a epidural hemorrhage, as opposed to a subdural hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
| Convex shape on the image |
|
|
Term
| When is a CT best for a seizure? MRI? |
|
Definition
CT- secondary causes (tumor, infection, ect...)
MRI- chronic seizures and structural disorders |
|
|
Term
| What image modality is preferred for child patients? Why? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organ typically calcifies around 30 yrs and helps assess midline in imaging? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is "Todd's Postictal Hemiparalysis"? |
|
Definition
| Ask patient right after seizure which side feels weaker = derived from opposite side of brain |
|
|
Term
| What is the classic wavelength of absence seizures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of seizure patients are typically seizure free after monotherapy (1 drug)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| About what percentage of convulsive status epilepticus patients have precipitated events (ie- head trauma, infection, tumor, ect...)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the immediate medical management for status epilepticus? |
|
Definition
| Establish airway, assess vital signs, and ensure adequate circulation (exclude severe hypotension). |
|
|
Term
| List the following in order you would give during an epileptic event: Phenobarbital, General Anesthesia, Lorazepam, Phenytoin; Which is best for short-term prevention of recurrence while long-term is determined? |
|
Definition
| Lorazepam, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital, General Anesthesia; Phenytoin |
|
|
Term
Explain why children are more susceptible to seizures in regard to:
a) Ion channel development
b) Neurotransmitter development
c) GABA-A Channels
d) Excitatory connections
e) Glia buffer potassium |
|
Definition
a) Ion channel development- AMPA and NMDA develop first.
b) Neurotransmitter development- Glutamate comes in first.
c) GABA-A Channels- Cl- tends to flow out at first (reverse of adult)
d) Excitatory connections- higher when younger.
e) Glia buffer potassium- buffering improves with age. |
|
|
Term
Match the disease- Ohtahara Syndrome, Dravet Syndrome, Lennox-Gastaut, Landau-Kleffner Syndrome:
a) Loss of language and hearing, extremely rare, epilepsy originates from language cortex.
b) Most severe, tonic spasms that show high voltage bursts on EEG.
c) Mental retardation, voltage highest in frontal region, episodes triggered by changes to meds (often Benzodiazepine).
d) Precipitated by fever/illness, tied to point mutation, status epilepticus common in 50% of patients. |
|
Definition
a) Landau-Kleffner Syndrome
b) Ohtahara Syndrome
c) Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
d) Dravet Syndrome |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
[image]
Name these compounds. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Glutamate Decarboxylase do?GABA Transaminase? What is the eventual product of GABA Transaminase? |
|
Definition
| Convert Glutamate to GABA; Degrade GABA in astrocytes and neurons; Succinate (dumps amine); |
|
|
Term
| Why can glutamate, asparate, and succinate all become GABA? |
|
Definition
| The CAC eventually brings all to glutamate which is decarboxylated to GABA (GABA degraded to succinate). |
|
|
Term
| What does Valproic Acid in Benzodiazapine do to reduce seizures? |
|
Definition
| Increases GABA production by binding to GABA transaminase (preventing degradation) while blocking Aspartate (to feed more Glutamate). |
|
|
Term
| Where is GABA C found and what molecule does it allow to fllow into the cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 distinct regions of the limbic association area? What does each generally do? |
|
Definition
Parahippocampal: memory encoding and retrieval
Cingulate Gyrus: Conduit between thalamus and neocortex (memories stored, self esteem)
Orbital Frontal Gyrus: Decision making & emotion
Gyri of temporal lobe: visual retention and language |
|
|
Term
| What is the general function of the limbic system (hint: H.O.M.E.)? |
|
Definition
| Homeostasis, Olfactory, Memory, Emotion/drives |
|
|
Term
| What is the main effector organ in the limbic system? What are its functions (HINT: TAP HATS)? What structure separates the above feature in the middle? |
|
Definition
| Hypothalamus- Thirst, Anterior pituitary, Posterior pituitary, Hunger, Autonomic regulation, Temperature, and Sexual urges; Separated by 3rd ventricle. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 secondary effector organs of the limbic system? What are their functions? |
|
Definition
Amygdala: Fear, Aggression
Hippocampus: Memory formation (Papez Circuit)
Basal Forebrain: S.A.M. = Septal Area (response modulation (think bipolarism)), Nucleus Accumbens (Pleasure, Addiction), Basal Nucleus of Meynert (Long term Memories) |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the Papez Circuit? If initial input comes into the Cingulate Gyrus for conversion to long term memory, place the following in order of the circuit: Mammillary nuclei, Mammillary tract, Fornix, Hippocampus, Anterior Thalamic Nucleus, Back to Cingulate gyrus, Neocortex? |
|
Definition
| Convert short term into long term memory; Cingulate Gyrus- Hippocampus- Fornix- Mamillary Nuclei- Mamillothalamic tract- Anterior Thalamic Nucleus- Back to Cingulate Gyrus- Neocortex; |
|
|
Term
| Where is the Perforant Pathway in Limbic System? Place it in order: CA3, CA1, Dentate Gyrus, Entorhinal Cortex, Subiculum, Fornix |
|
Definition
| Hippocampus; Entorhinal Cortex, Dentate Gyrus, CA3, CA1, Subiculum, Fornix |
|
|
Term
| Lorazepam, Valproic Acid, Levetriacetam, Phenytoin, Ethosuximide, Phenoarbital: Which block excitation and which enhance inhibition? Which does both? |
|
Definition
Block Excitation: Levetriacetam, Phenytoin, Ethosuximide
Enhance Inhibition: Lorazepam, Phenoarbital
Both: Valproic Acid |
|
|
Term
| What is the preferred anticonvulsant for Status Epilepticus? Absence Seizures? What is the most used general anticonvulsant? |
|
Definition
| Lorazepam; Ethosuximide; Valproic Acid |
|
|
Term
| What is a preferred short-term anticonvulsant for sustained seizure repression? What are the side effects? |
|
Definition
| Phenytoin; "Purple Glove" and Gingival Hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Phenytoin Equivalent used for Fosphenytoin (IV). |
|
|
Term
| What would you give to reverse the effects of Lorazepam? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What anticonvulsant would you particularly not want to give to a pregnant women or someone with liver issues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two main subcategories of Primary CNS Comas? Which is not related to a focal spot on the brain or Spinal Cord? Anything that is not CNS falls under what Coma category? |
|
Definition
Diffuse- general
Focal- specific
Systemic Involvement- non CNS |
|
|
Term
| What is the number one cause of secondary dementia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dementia or Delirium?
a) Fluctuates
b) Long Course
c) Attention intact |
|
Definition
a) Fluctuates- Delirium
b) Long Course- Dementia
c) Attention intact- Dementia |
|
|
Term
| What is the central theme of hypotheses concerning effects of aging on the brain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is Superoxide Anion and where is largely found? |
|
Definition
| Most common Free Radical- derived from O2 picking up electrons in the Mitochondria Matrix. |
|
|
Term
| Ubiquinone or Ubiquinol- which is most oxidized? Is it higher or lower in energy? Where does each generally go- Cytosol or Matrix? |
|
Definition
| Ubiquinone is more oxidized; lower energy but higher electronegativity; goes to matrix (pick up more protons) while Ubiquinol heads to Cytosol. |
|
|
Term
| What enzyme converts superoxide free radicals to hydrogen peroxide? What does Glutathione peroxidase and Glutahione reductase do? What donates the H+ for Glutathione Reductase? |
|
Definition
| Superoxide Dismutase; G peroxidase reduces HOOH to water; G. reductase reduces product back to Gluthathione; NADPH |
|
|
Term
| What would the uncoupling protein do if there was an increase of Free Radicals? |
|
Definition
| Dissipate across the mitochondrial membrane |
|
|
Term
| Which form of Alzheimer's is genetic and which is sporadic? |
|
Definition
Early- genetic
Late- Sporatic |
|
|
Term
| How does Beta-Amyloid and Tau contribute to Alzheimer's? |
|
Definition
Beta Amyloid- Extracellular, damages terminals
Tau- Intracellular, disrupts internal transport of nutrient proteins |
|
|
Term
| What does increasing Alpha-Secretase do to help in Alzheimer's? |
|
Definition
| Decreases A-Beta Amyloid plaque |
|
|
Term
| What disease do these chromosome mutations cause?- APP (C21), PSEN1 (C14), PSEN2 (C1). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do all AD cases have in common, Tau or A Beta Amyloid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With which disease is Apolipoprotein E associated? Which form increases risk 30-50%? Which is neutral? Which reduces risk? |
|
Definition
| AD- E4 is increased risk, E3 is neutral, E2 is decreased risk. |
|
|
Term
| Unlike AD, where are Tau also located in addition to the neuron in Pick's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a hallmark pathological feature of Parkinson's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Elaborations of growth cone if axon that responds to environmental cues for development. |
|
|
Term
| What type of collagen comprises neural scarring in the CNS? What is in the PNS that prevents scare tissue deposition? |
|
Definition
| Type IV Collagen; Plasminogen Activators from Growth Cone |
|
|
Term
| What is so special about the lateral ventricle and dentate gyrus? |
|
Definition
| Source of brain stem cell neurogenesis |
|
|
Term
| Why are these two genes important: Oct4 and Cdx2? Where is each found? |
|
Definition
| Essential Embronic stem cells; Oct4 in Inner Cell Mass; Cdx2 in Trophectoderm |
|
|
Term
| What slow growing disease does not have nucleic acids to induce a significant immunoresponse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Multiple variations of HIV in one person due to high rate of mutation. |
|
|
Term
| Which prefers to attack CD4 AND CD8 cells, B cells, neutrophils, and eosinophils, M-Tropic or T-Tropic HIV virus? What are the gene markers associated with each? |
|
Definition
| T-tropic (CXCR4); the other is M-tropic (CCR5) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the envelope, strand number, nucleic acid type, and sense for HIV, Rabies, and PML. |
|
Definition
HIV/Rabies- Enveloped, Single Strand (HIV diploid), RNA, + (HIV) and - (Rabies)
PML- Double stranded (circular) and DNA |
|
|
Term
| Which two slow growing viruses were genetic only in transmission? Which is infectious, sporadic, and genetic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disease is caused by T. pallidum? Rhabdoviridae? Measles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What slow growing virus presents with symptoms of myoclonic jerks, Ataxia, and Dementia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What slow growing disease is likely if histology sample reveals Negri bodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
