1.  An electronic thermometer measures a temperature in ____.

a.   7 to 8 minutes

b.  3 minutes

c.  2 to 60 seconds

d.  5 minutes

c- 2 to 60 seconds

2.  Which of the following is usually used to take a pulse?

a.  apical pulse

b.  radial pulse

c.  brachial pulse

d.  apical-radial pulse

b-   radial pulse

3. What is considered a normal adult pulse rate?

a.   70 – 170

b. 90 – 130

c. 70 – 80

d. 60 – 100

d-    60-100

4. The radial pulse is located in the _______.

a.   chest

b. neck

c. wrist

d. head

5. The least reliable measurement of body temperature is ______.

a.  rectal

b.  oral

c.  axillary

d.  none of the above

c-   axillary

6. The most accurate and reliable measurement of body temperature is ______.

a.   rectal

b. oral

c. axillary

d. nasal

a-   rectal

7.  What is considered a normal amount of resparation’s for an adult in a minute?

a. 14 to 20

b. 5 to 10

c. 25 to 30

d. none of the above

a-   14 to 20

8. Rapid breathing, the respiratory rate is usually greater than 24 respiration per minute is called ___.

a.  apnea

b.  hypoventilation

c.  tachypnea

d.  bradypnea

c- tachypnea

9. Persistent measurements above the normal systolic pressures are considered ____.

a.  hypotension

b.  hypertension

c.  normal

d.  none of the above

b- hypertension

10. The blood pressure should not be taken on an arm if ______.

  a.  the patient has had breast surgery on that side

  b.  on an arm with an IV infusion

  c.  on an arm with a cast

  d.  all the above

d-   all of the above

11. To measure a blood pressure you need___.

a.   stethoscope and sphygmomanometer

b.   thermometer

c.   rubber gloves

d.   to clean the area first

a-  stethoscope and a sphygmomanometer

12. Which is recorded as the systolic pressure?

    a. the point where the first sound is heard

    b. the point where the last sound is heard

    c. anything under 100 on the sphygmomanometer

    d. anything over 100 on the sphygmomanometer

13. When measuring blood pressure, which of the following is correct?

  a. the cuff should be applied to the bare upper arm

  b. room should be quiet so that blood pressure can be heard

  c. sphygmomanometer needs to clearly visible

  d. all of the above

14. With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately reported to the____

a.  patient

b.  doctor

c.  receptionist

d.  chart

b- doctor

15. You must take patient’s temperature, pulse and respiration when the doctor says___

a.  take blood pressure

b.  take temps

c.  take vital signs

d.  all of the above

c- take vital signs

16. Which of the following is used to take an infant’s rectal temperature?

a. oral thermometer

b. axillary thermometer

c. security thermometer

d. all of the above

c- security thermometer

17. Never clean a glass thermometer with ____.

a. disinfectant

b. cold water

c. alcohol

d. hot water

d- hot water

18. When the patient is breathing with only the upper part of the lungs this is referred to as ___

a. shallow respiration

b. Cheyne-Stokes respiration

c. stertorous respiration

d. abdominal respiration

a- shallow respiration

19. When the patient makes abnormal noises like snoring sounds when he is breathing, it is called ___.

a. Cheyne-Stokes respiration

b. irregular respiration

c. abdominal respiration

d. stertorous respiration

d- stertorous respiration

20. When the heart is contracting, the pressure is highest.  This pressure is called the ______.

a.  systolic pressure

b.  diastolic pressure

c.  air pressure

d.  high pressure

a-   systolic pressure

21. When listening to the brachial pulse you will use a(an) __________.

a.  sphygmomanometer

b.  earphone

c.  stethoscope

d.  radio

22. The two types of sphygmomanometers are ____.

a.  mercury type

b.  alcohol type

c.  aneroid type

d.  both a and c

d- both a and c

23. When the pressure is lowest, this pressure is called _________.

a.  diastolic pressure

b.  air pressure

c.  systolic pressure

d.  water pressure

a-   diastolic pressure

24. The process of inhaling and exhaling is called _______.

a.  temperature

b.  pulse

c.  respiration

d.  coughing

25.  When the depth of breathing changes and the rate of the rise and fall of the chest is not steady, it is called __________.

a.  abdominal respiration

b.  stertorous respiration

c.  shallow respiration

d.  irregular respiration

d- irregular respiration

26.  When taking the pulse, you must be able to report accurately the ______.

a.  rhythm of pulse beats

b.  rate (number of pulse beats per minute)

c.  force of the beat

d.  all the above

d- all of the above

27. The balance between the heat produced and the heat lost is the _________

a.  pulse

b.  respiration

c.  body temperature

d.  none of the above

c- body temperature

28. The healthy adult excretes daily approximately __________ of urine.

a.  1000 to 1500 milliliters

b.  5 to 100 milliliters

c.  4000 to 6000 milliliters

d.  100 to 500 milliliters

29. A patient with a cast or those patients in traction would use a _________.

a.  bedpan

b.  commode

c.  fracture pan

d.  none of the above

c-  fracture pan

30.  Receptacles used by men for urine are called ___________.

a.  fracture pans

b.  urinals

c.  bowls 

d.  vases

b- urinals

31.  A portable chair or wheelchair with a center opening for a bedpan or similar receptacle is called a ________ .

a.  chair

b.  commode

c.  bucket chair

d.  none of the above

b- commode

32.  A rubber or plastic tube used to drain or inject fluid though a body opening is called _____.

a.  injection

b.  venipuncture

c.  catheter

d.  none of the above

c- catheter

33.  The process of inserting a catheter is called _____.

a.  major surgery

b.  catheterization

c.  specimen

d.  test for venereal disease

 b- catheterization

34.  When you use an autoclave, fill the water reservoir with ________.

a.  distilled water

b.  alcohol

c.  oil

d.  autoclave fluid

a- distilled water

35.  The inability to control the passage of urine in the bladder is called______.

a.  specimen

b.  urine analysis

c.  urinary incontinence

d.  dripping

c- urinary incontinence

36.  The clean-catch urine specimen is also called______.

a.  clean-voided specimen

b.  24- hour urine specimen

c.  mid-steam specimen

d.  both a and c

37.  The 24-hour urine specimen must be_____.

a.  heated

b.  chilled on ice

c.  refrigerated

d.  both b and c

38.  The fresh-fractional urine is used to test urine for_____.

a.   T.B.

b.  pneumonia

c.   sugar

d.  high blood pressure

c- sugar

39.  A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called____.

a.  high blood pressure

b.  diabetes mellitus

c.  A.I.D.S.

d.  none of the above

b- diabetes mellitus

40.  Another term for acetone in the urine is_____.

a.  sugar

b.  pus

c.  ketone bodies (kentones)

d.  none of the above

c- ketone bodies

41.  Some clinical signs for head injury could be_____.

a.  vomiting

b.  headache

c.  confusion

d.  all of the above

d-   all of the above

42.  Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine?

a.  acetest

b.  clinitest

c.  testape

d.  keto-diastix

43.  The passage of a hard, dry stool is called_____.

a.  flatulence

b.  diarrhea

c.  enema

d.  constipation

d- constipation

44.  an artificial opening between the colon and abdomen is called_____.

a.  peristalsis

b.  defecation

c.  colostomy

d.  flatus

c- colostomy

45. Excessive formation of gas in the stomach and intestines is_____.

a.  flatus

b.  chyme

c.  peristalsis

d.  anal incontinence

a- flatus

46.  The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called_____.

a.  enema

b.  colostomy

c.  constipation

d.  peristalsis

d- peristalsis

47.  A method of aseptic technique is called_____.

a.  disinfection

b.  sterilization

c.  sanitation

d.  all of the above

d- all of the above

48.  The prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum is called___.

a.  peristalsis

b.  anal incontinence

c.  fecal impaction

d.  feces

c- fecal impaction

 49.  The frequent passage of liquid stool is called_____.

a.  flatus

b.  diarrhea

c.  peristalsis

d.  none of the above

50.  When you position the patient sitting upright it is called_____.

a.  Sim’s position

b.  sitting position

c.  lithotomy position

d.  none of the above

b- sitting position

51.  When the patient lies flat on their back with arms at their sides it is called_____.

a.  prone position

b.  supine position

c.  dorsal position

d.  lazy position

b- supine position

52.  When the patient lies supine with knees sharply flexed and separated, it is called__.

a.  prone position

b.  dorsal recumbent position

c.  knee chest position

d.  supine position

 b- dorsal recumbent position

53.  When the patient’s feet are place in stirrups and the buttocks are positioned at the edge of the exam table, this is called _________.

a.  supine position

b.  prone position

c.  lithotomy position

d.  Sim’s position

54.  When the patient is positioned on the abdomen, arms under the head, which is        turned to one side, it is called the ______.

a.  dorsal recumbent position

b.  lithotomy position

c.  prone position

d.  supine position

c- prone position

55.  When the patient kneels, and places his/her head and chest on the table, with buttocks elevated, it is called _________.

a.  knee-chest position

b.  prone position

c.  lithotomy position

d.  proctal position

a- knee-chest position

56.  An otoscope is used for examination of the _____.

a.  eyes

b.  ears

c.  nose

d.  mouth

57.  Listening to sound of the body by using a stethoscope is called ______.

a.  percussion

b.  auscultation

c.  audiometry

d.  proprioceptor ideaul

b- auscultation

58.  When the physician feels with fingers or hands to determine the physical characteristics of tissues or organs it is called __________.

a.  auscultation

b.  audition

c.  palpation

d.  propitiation

59.  Tapping the patient with fingers and listening to the sounds produces is called____.

a.  percussion

b.  audition

c.  auditive

d.  propitiation

60.  The instrument used to examine the eyes is called the ________.

a.  ophthalmoscope

b.  stethoscope

c.  sphygmomanometer

d.  otoscope

61.  An instrument used for auditory and sensory perception is called the _______.

a.  percussion hammer

b. tuning fork

c.  tape measure

d.  speculum

62.  An instrument used to test reflexes is called the _______.

a.  tuning fork

b.  percussion hammer

c.  pronation hammer

d.  flexion hammer

b- percussion hammer

63.  Why are buttock muscles as injection sites on children under age two contraindicated?

a.  too close to the sciatic nerve

b.  too close to the back bone

c.  too close to the coccyx

d.  the dermis is too sensitive

a- too close to the sciatic nerve

64.  When administering an ultrasound treatment the coupling agent should be ____.

a.  applied at room temperature

b.  heating to 110 degrees

c.  kept on the ultrasound machine

d.  applied with a damp towel

 a- applied at room temperature

65.  Which of the following individuals would have the fastest pulse rate? 

a.  adolescent

b.  adult 

c.  infant

d.  preschooler

c- infant

66.  An X-ray examination of the gall bladder following oral administration of a contrast medium, is called ________.

a.  cholecystography

b.  gastroscopy

c.  photocopy

d.  ultrasound

a- cholecystography

67.  Synthetic casts are often preferred over plaster casts because they ______.

a.  are least expensive

b.  dry and set faster

c.  are more flexible

c.  weigh more

b- dry and set faster

68.  When giving an injection to determine if the needle is in a blood vessel, you would___.

a.  palpate

b.  aspirate

c.  inject

d.  remove the needle and observe the injection site

b- aspirate

69.  Which of the following is used to administer an intradermal injection?

a.  hypodermic syringe

b.  insulin syringe

c.  tuberculin syringe

d.  tubex closed injection system

c- tuberculin syringe

70.  The angle of the needle for intradermal injection should be _______ degrees.

a.    91

b.  45

c.  10 – 15

d.  55

c- 10*-15*

71.  Apical pulse is the method of choice for determining the heart rate for ______.

a.  infants and young children

b.  children over three years of age

c.  adolescence

d.  adults between twenty and fifty years of age

a- infants and young children

72.  Amniocenteses allows physicians to _____.

a.  monitor irregularities of the heart

b.  check for gall stones

c.  perform genetic tests before birth

d.  remove duodenal ulcers

c- perform genetic tests before birth

73.  What does it mean when you see diagonal lines on the autoclave tape of a wrapped article?

a.  the tape is defective

b.  the tape is old

c.  the article has been autoclaved

d.  the autoclaved article is not sterile

c- the article has been autoclaved

74.  An instrument that is used to grasp a curved needle for suturing is called _____.

a.  a retrator

b.  a probe

c.  a tenaculum

d.  a needle holder

d- a needle holder

75.  An instrument used to open or distend a body orafice is called ______.

a.  a tenaculum

b.  a sound

c.  a curette

d.  a speculum

d- a speculum

76.  What instrument is used to clamp off blood vessels?

a.  a hemostat

b.  a tenaculum

c.  a speculum

d.  a Voklman retractor

a-  a hemostat

77.  The most common type of burn is ______.

a.  first degree

b.  second degree

c.  third degree

d.  fourth degree

a- first degree

78.  A wound in which the outer layers of the skin are scraped off is called______.

a.  laceration

b.  abrasion

c.  puncture

d.  incision

b- abrasion

79.  On a visual acuity reading of 20/50, what does the 20 represent?

a.    the distance between the patient and the test chart

b.    the percent of accuracy

c.     the amount of acuity in the patient’s eye

d.    none of the above

a-  the distance between the patient and the test chart

80.  A clean smooth cut caused by a sharp cutting instrument is called_____.

a.    laceration

b.  puncture

c.  abrasion

d.  incision

d- incision

81.  At which angle of injection would an intramuscular injection be given?  

a.  45 degrees

b.  90 degrees

c.  15 degrees

d.  10 degrees

b- 90*

82.  The position of a patient for a gynecological examination is _________.

a.  sims

b.  horizontal recumbent

c.  lithotomy

d.  prone

c- lithotomy

83.  An injection where the skin is pulled laterally 1½ inches away from the injection site, is called_________.

a.  intramuscular

b.  intravenous

c.  EZ track

d.  Z track

d- Z track

84.  Equipment used to convert cardiac arrhythmia’s into regular rhythm is called _____.

a.  stethoscope

b.  defibrillator

c.  sonogram

d.  thermography

b- defibrillator

85.  The area of the body used for an intramuscular injection is the ________.

a.  deltoid muscle

b.  anterior forearm

c.  gluteus maximus muscle

d.  sciatic nerve

a- the deltoid muscle

86.  Why is a circular motion used when cleansing an area for an injection? 

a.    it carries contaminants away from the injection site

b.    to cover a wider area faster

c.     to stimulate the skin

d.    to cleanse the skin

a- it carries contaminants away from the injection site

 87.  The gluteus medius is most commonly used for ________.

a.  subcutaneous injections

b.  intradermal injection

c.  intramuscular injection

d.  intravenous injection

c- intramuscular injections

88.  The sharpened end of the needle is called__.

a.  bevel

b.  hub

c.  point

d.  lumen

c- point

89.  The part of the syringe that holds the medication and has markings on its surface, is called ________.

a.  tip

b.  flange

c.  plunger

d.  barrel

d- barrel