Term
| what are the 3 compounds in antisensitivity toothpaste |
|
Definition
potassium nitrate
strontium chloride
sodium citrate |
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 compounds used for systemic fluoride |
|
Definition
sodium fluoride
sodium silicofluoride
hydrofluorosilic acid |
|
|
Term
| what are 2 forms of epidemiological studies that are longitudinal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is consistency between two different evaluators |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is consistency between one evaluator |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is data that is counted as whole numbers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what statistical test would you use to evaluate 2 means |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what statistical test would you use to evaluate 3 or more means |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what statistical test would you use to compare whole data sets such as surveys |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is an epidemiological study that follows 1 group over a long period of time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is an epidemiological study that follows two groups, one with a condition and one without |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is an epidemiological study where a section of the population is observed at one point in time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what p value is needed to reject the null hypothesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for the ability to detect disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for the ability to identify the absence of disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dmf is used for children under what age? Why? |
|
Definition
| under 6 because they should only have lost teeth due to decay if their 1st molars haven't erupted |
|
|
Term
| why does the def monitor teeth extracted from caries |
|
Definition
| provides two degrees of severity for caries- decay and gross decay which lead to extraction |
|
|
Term
| what 3 indices use the WHO probe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what index measures gingival inflammation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what index measures the severity of BOP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the highest score on the SBI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what index measures both gingivitis and periodontitis measured on the Ramfjord teeth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what index measures plaque and calculus on 6 teeth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the max score for the OHI-S |
|
Definition
| 6 (3 max for plaque and 3 max for calculus) |
|
|
Term
| what index measures plaque at the gingival margin only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the max score for the plaque index? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how many teeth is the plaque index measured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what index measures plaque biofilm on 5 tooth surfaces per buccal/lingual surface |
|
Definition
| patient hygiene performance |
|
|
Term
| what is the max score on the PHP index |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what federal grant provides funding for low income children health services such as school lunch programs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| who qualifies for head start |
|
Definition
| low income children who don't qualify for CHIP |
|
|
Term
| what 2 medications are used to treat MRSA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the largest antibody that makes first contact with an antigen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most abundant antibody that can cross the placenta and causes phagocytosis of previously encountered antigens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what antibody is found in body fluids such as saliva and prevents bacterial attachment to mucous membranes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what antibody is found in the lungs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibody is involved in the allergy response and binds to mast cells and basophils |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria is involved in early caries development |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria is involved in progression of caries (late involvement) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria is typically involved in endocarditis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria is associated with root caries |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 2 bacteria are associated with pregnancy gingivitis |
|
Definition
prevotella intermedia
campylobacter rectus |
|
|
Term
| what is a spirochete involved in NUG/NUP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 4 bacteria involved in NUG/NUP |
|
Definition
Treponema denticol
P. intermedia
P. gingivalis
fusobacterium |
|
|
Term
| what bacteria is involved in aggressive perio |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most common bacteria associated with chronic perio |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria is involved in meningitis and gonorrhea |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of bacteria (shape) is involved in syphilis and lyme disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the majority of plaque biofilm is made of what substance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for impingement of the maxillary sinus into the area of a previous extraction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what medication is used to slow collagenase activity in periodontally involved patients |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the active ingredient in periostat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 3 nutritive sweeteners |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the sweetener found in Nutrasweet and equal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| patients with PKU (phenylketonuria) should avoid what sweetener |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for ketones in the urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how many essential amino acids are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the normal blood sugar range for diabetic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a nutritive disease resulting from long term inadequate food intake in children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a nutritive disease resulting from acute protein deficiency which presents with abdominal swelling |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the name for Omega-6 fatty acids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the name for Omega-3 fatty acids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 3 dietary sources of omega-6 (linoleic) fatty acids |
|
Definition
veg. oil
sunflower oil
safflower oil |
|
|
Term
| what are 4 dietary sources of omega-3 (linolenic) fatty acids |
|
Definition
fish
canola oil
olive oil
peanut oil |
|
|
Term
| what is the absence of a menstrual cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for fine soft hair that is seen in patients with anorexia (2 names) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for dental erosion seen in patients with bulimia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 4 oral signs of bulimia |
|
Definition
restorations that are higher than the surrounding teeth
enlarged parotid
thermal sensitivity
erosion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the chemical factor that breaks down the extracellular matrix which allows bacteria to detach and spread? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what stage of periodontal lesion development shows no signs of inflammation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what stage of periodontal lesion development where the early signs of gingivitis become evident |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what stage of periodontal lesion development where there are increased probing depths due to inflammation and takes 2-3 weeks to develop |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what stage of periodontal lesion development presents with irreversible bone loss and is considered periodontitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the best appointment time for osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis |
|
Definition
| mid morning after meds have kicked in |
|
|
Term
| what is a medical condition resulting in being very tall with possible congenital heart defects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a condition that presents with a porcelain doll appearance with an overproduction of collagen and shows limited ability to open the mouth and widened PDL spaces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a discoloration of digits related to cold |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the normal pulse range for an adult |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the normal pulse range for a child |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the normal respiration rate for an adult |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the normal respiration rate for a child |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the difference between a complex and a compound odontoma |
|
Definition
complex (diffuse radiopacity)
compound (can see diff. tissues- enamel, dentin, etc.) |
|
|
Term
| what is the most common extraoral location for an adenoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most common intraoral location for an adenoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is an antidepressant used for smoking cessation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the innervation for the TMJ |
|
Definition
| auriculotemporal and masseteric branch of V3 (mandibular branch of trigeminal) |
|
|
Term
| what side of the hip should be propped up for a pregnant woman? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a window like opening on the root surface of a tooth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 2 local anesthetics should be avoided with patients prone to metheglobinemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is used to polish gold crowns intraorally |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is used to polish gold crowns extraorally |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 3 symptoms seen in parkinson's |
|
Definition
bradykinesia (slow gait)
postural instability
dementia |
|
|
Term
| what is the term for a slow gait |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when should a patient with parkinson's be scheduled |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 3 things that may exacerbate the symptoms of MS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 4 fat soluble vitamins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where are fat soluble vitamins stored (2 locations) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a symptom of vitamin A deficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 5 sources of vit A |
|
Definition
fish
liver
milk
orange/yellow veggies
dark green veggies |
|
|
Term
| what vitamin is involved in absorption of calcium and phosphorus and plays a role in bone health and immunity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does a vitamin D deficiency result in for children and adults |
|
Definition
children- rickets
adults- osteomalacia |
|
|
Term
| what are 3 dietary sources of vitamin D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what fat soluble vitamin is an antioxidant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 2 dietary sources of vitamin E |
|
Definition
vegetable oil
green leafy veggies |
|
|
Term
| high doses of what vitamin can result in increased gingival bleeding and interferes with blood coagulation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what vitamin is involved in blood clotting (prothrombin) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 3 dietary sources of vitamin K |
|
Definition
green leafy veggies
canola oil
soybean oil |
|
|
Term
| what is the other name for vitamin B1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the other name for vitamin B2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the other name for vitamin B3 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the other name for vitamin B12 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the other name for vitamin C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what disease results from lack of thiamine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what vitamin is involved in nerve function and energy metabolism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| deficiency of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) results in what 2 clinical manifestations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what vitamin can be created from tryptophan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| deficiency of vitamin B3 can result in what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 4 symptoms of pellagra |
|
Definition
dementia
diarrhea
dermatitis
death |
|
|
Term
| what are 4 sources of vit B3 (niacin) |
|
Definition
lean meat
fish
fortified/whole grains
sweet potatoes |
|
|
Term
| deficiency of vitamin B12 results in what condition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what vitamin is involved in RBC development and folate metabolism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a dietary source of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is needed for absorption of vitamin B12 |
|
Definition
| intrinsic factor (from stomach) |
|
|
Term
| what vitamin is involved in forming DNA, RNA, and red blood cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 4 results of folate deficiency |
|
Definition
megaloblastic anemia
glossitis
diarrhea
spina bifada |
|
|
Term
| what are 3 dietary sources of folate |
|
Definition
leafy greens
enriched paste, rice, cereal
fruits |
|
|
Term
| deficiency of what vitamin causes scurvy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what population has an increased need for vitamin C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| which 2 cranial nerves control the muscles of the eyes |
|
Definition
| trochlear (4) and abducens (6) |
|
|
Term
| what is the taste innervation for the anterior 2/3 of the tongue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the innervation for the sublingual and submandibular glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what nerve is involved in taste and touch for the posterior 1/3 of the tongue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what nerve innervates the parotid gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what nerve controls the muscles of the tongue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 3 nerves of the posterior division of the mandibular nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the innervation for the SCM and trapezius |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 3 major branches of the external carotid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does the maxillary branch of the external carotid supply? (3) |
|
Definition
teeth
muscles of mastication
ear |
|
|
Term
| what does the lingual branch of the external carotid supply? (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does the facial branch of the external carotid supply? (5) |
|
Definition
muscles of facial expression
lips
eyelids
soft palate
throat |
|
|
Term
| what nerve is involved in the sense (touch) for the anterior 2/3 of the tongue |
|
Definition
| mandibular branch of the trigeminal |
|
|
Term
| what vascular structure can be pierced during a PSA injection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when does the upper lip form |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what embryonic structures form the upper lip (3) |
|
Definition
median nasal process
R and L maxillary process |
|
|
Term
| when does the palate form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what embryonic structures form the palate (3) |
|
Definition
globular process
R and L palatal shelves |
|
|
Term
| what is the embryonic precursor for the thyroid gland? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the only unencapsulated major salivary gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the main salivary duct for the sublingual gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the minor salivary gland openings for the sublingual gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a radiographic radiolucency associated with the submandibular gland? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is an oral sign of a mumps infection |
|
Definition
| swelling of the parotid gland |
|
|
Term
| what salivary gland produces amylase for starch digestion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when does the stomodeum form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| pulp and dentin form from what embryonic structure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the enamel organ develops from what embryonic structure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what structures develop from the dental sac |
|
Definition
PDL
alveolar bone
cementum
SAC- PAC |
|
|
Term
| in what stage of tooth development does the enamel organ develop 4 distinct layers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are the 4 layers of the matured enamel organ |
|
Definition
OEE
stellate reticulum
stratum intermedium
IEE |
|
|
Term
| ameloblasts develop from what embryonic structure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the OEE of the enamel organ develop into? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are remnants of hertwigs root sheath? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the thickening of ectoderm that forms tooth buds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are remnants of dental lamina called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| after tooth eruption, the enamel organ becomes the reduced enamel epithelium which develops into what mature structure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| oblique ridges of molars run between which cusps? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what kind of cementum is found at the apex of teeth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what kind of cementum is found at the CEJ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what kind of cementum can regenerate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 2 teeth have 5 cusps? |
|
Definition
| maxillary and mandibular 1st molars |
|
|
Term
| what tooth is most likely to have a root with 2 canals |
|
Definition
| mand 1st molar (mesial root) |
|
|
Term
| what is the last deciduous tooth to erupt (2 options) |
|
Definition
max cuspid
mandibular 2nd molar |
|
|
Term
| what is the last succedaneous tooth to erupt (2 options) |
|
Definition
max cuspid
mand 2nd premolar |
|
|
Term
| taurodontism is commonly seen in people with what medical condition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what developmental condition commonly presents with hypodontia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what developmental condition commonly presents with supernumerary teeth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Gardner's syndrome presents with what 2 side effects |
|
Definition
colon polyps (possibly malignant)
osteomas |
|
|
Term
| what is a radiographic feature of patients with dentinogenesis imperfecta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| dentinogenesis imperfecta is commonly seen in patients with what other developmental condition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| teeth with internal resorption have what clinical appearance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is another term for hypoadrenocorticism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is another term for hypercortisolism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 3 causes of hairy tongue |
|
Definition
smoking
antibiotics
poor oral hygiene |
|
|
Term
| A papilloma is associated with what infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is another name for skin warts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is another name for genital warts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the incubation period for primary herpes infections |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for pulp exposure due to chronic caries |
|
Definition
| chronic hyperplastic pulpitis |
|
|
Term
| decreased incidence of apthos ulcers are seen in what group? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what virus is associated with kaposis sarcoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hairy leukoplakia is associated with what infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where is hairy leukoplakia seen in the oral cavity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 2 diseases associated with coxsackie viruses |
|
Definition
herpangia
hand foot mouth disease |
|
|
Term
| what autoimmune conditions presents with bulls eye or target lesions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what infection can trigger an outbreak for a person with erythema multiforme |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a more severe form of erythema multiforme |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what condition presents with reticular lines called wickham striae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sialoliths are most commonly associated with what major salivary gland? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the most common salivary gland tumor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where does squamous cell carcinoma metastasize to first? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| atrophy of tongue papilla is seen with deficiencies in what 5 vitamins/minerals |
|
Definition
riboflavin (B2)
niacin (B3)
folate
cobalamin (B12)
iron |
|
|
Term
| what radiolucent radiographic lesion is seen in the posterior mandible and has a high recurrence rate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what kind of cyst would lift the ala of the nose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for malignant tumor of the epithelium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a malignant tumor of mesenchymal tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for a glandular tumor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a tumor of connective tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a malignancy of plasma cells which results in a punched out appearance of the skull in radiographs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a soap bubble lesion in the posterior mandible |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| an ameloblastoma looks like what other condition with a high recurrent rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a radiolucent lesion at the apex of anterior mandibular teeth which becomes more radiopaque as time passes |
|
Definition
| periapical cemental dysplasia |
|
|
Term
| what condition has a cotton-wool appearance in bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| patients with pagets disease show an increase in what blood component |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| other than medications, what 5 conditions can result in gingival hyperplasia |
|
Definition
mouthbreathing
inflammation
genetics
leukemia
hormones |
|
|
Term
| what are 4 genetic conditions that can result in periodontal disease |
|
Definition
cyclic neutropenia
Down's syndrome
Papillion-LaFevre syndrome
Cheduak-Higashi |
|
|
Term
| what disease presents with hyperkeratosis of the hands and feet |
|
Definition
| Papillion-LaFevre syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What is the antibiotic of choice for NUG/NUP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is an increase in blood vessels in tissues |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| hyperemia of the pulp and mild inflammation of the pulp due to deep restoration placement is known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| are smokers at an increased risk for caries? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for a loss of taste or altered taste |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| arachidonic acid is metabolized into what two immune mediators |
|
Definition
prostaglandins
leukotrienes |
|
|
Term
| prostaglandins cause what body reaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| leukotrienes cause what body reaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what form of medication administration is used when a sustained effect is desired |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of drug administration form is local anesthetic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what type of drug administration form is a TB test |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is another name for a TB test |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| sublingual doses of medications are delivered where in the body (organ) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| patients with asthma should not receive what pain reliever medication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what condition results if children are given aspirin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what medication is given to reduce saliva flow during surgery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what medication is given to patients to increase salivary flow (such as patients with Sjogren's) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ibuprofen (NSAIDS) interact with what 6 other medication classes |
|
Definition
ACE inhibitors
aspirin
beta blockers
steroids
loop diuretics
lithium |
|
|
Term
| what other medication has a 10% cross allergenicity with penicillin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what antibiotic causes pseudomembranous colitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the priority for premedication (1st to last choice) |
|
Definition
amoxicillin
cephalexin
clindamycin
azithromycin/clarithromycin |
|
|
Term
| what is the dosage for amoxicillin premed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the dosage for cephalexin premed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the dosage for clindamycin premed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the dosage for azithromycin and clarithromycin premed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the medication and dosage for a candida infection |
|
Definition
| nystatin 5ml 4/day for 2 weeks |
|
|
Term
| Prilocaine (citanest) should be avoided in patients with what 2 health conditions |
|
Definition
anemia
taking acetaminophen |
|
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Term
| what is the epi dose limit for a health patient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the epi dose limit for a medically compromised patient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the number of mg per pound for 2% lidocaine administration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the number of mg of lidocaine per cartridge |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the equation for calculating the number of cartridges of 2% lidocaine a patient can receive |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| what is the total mg max for lidocaine, regardless of the patient weight? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| what drug class are medications ending in -pam |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Epinephrine is contraindicated in patients taking what class of medication? What is an example? |
|
Definition
tricyclic antidepressants
Elavil (amitriptyline) |
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Term
| what medication is used to treat partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is an oral medication used to manage asthma |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| what is an H2 blocker used for patients with GERD |
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Definition
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|
Term
| in addition to warfarin, what is another anticoagulant that can cause increased bleeding |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| what type of medication is lasix (furosemide) |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| loop diuretics create an imbalance of what compound |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| what cardiovascular medication can cause dysgeusia |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| medications ending in -pril are from what class? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| is cocaine a stimulant or depressant? What happens to the pupils |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| is heroin a stimulant or depressant? what happens to the pupils |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| what are the chemical compounds in developer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the temp and time needed for developer exposure (manual) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the chemical compound in fixer |
|
Definition
| sodium thiosulfate (hypo) |
|
|
Term
| what is the occupational MPD for one year |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the non-occupational MPD for one year |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for x-ray exposure in the air (old and new) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for absorbed dose of radiation (old and new) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for dose equivalent in man (old and new) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the collimation width mandated by the FDA |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| what is the aluminum filtration thickness required by the FDA for machines operating over and under 70 kVp |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| how thick is an aluminum vest and what is the percentage of absorption |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| a pano is equivalent to how many bitewings in terms of radiation exposure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many watts can a safelight be and how far away from film should it be mounted |
|
Definition
7 1/2 or 15 watts
4 ft away |
|
|
Term
| what medication has a side effect of producing a dry cough |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the dosage for nitroglycerine during an angina attack |
|
Definition
| 1 tab every 5 minutes (3 tabs max) |
|
|
Term
| nitroglycerine should only be given during an attack if the systolic BP is above what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the term for sweating |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is an appointment modification for patients with arrythmias |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| digoxin, used to treat CHF, can cause what side effect |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Should you use an air polisher or US scaler on a patient with congestive heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| how long should you defer dental treatment after a patient has had coronary artery bypass sx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can patients with asthma receive local anesthetic? |
|
Definition
| yes, as long as there is no epi. Bisulfides in the preservative can trigger an attack |
|
|
Term
| what is the respiratory condition known as a "pink puffer" with a dry cough |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the respiratory condition known as the blue bloater with a wet cough |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the recommended recall for a patient with HIV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a normal platelet range |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 4 clinical signs in a patient with sickle cell |
|
Definition
pale mucosa
delayed eruption
papillary atrophy
hair on end skull appearance (radiographs) |
|
|
Term
| when should patients on renal dialysis be scheduled |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| patients with renal failure are more prone to what 2 conditions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What treatment modality should be avoided for patients suffering from renal failure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the serological marker for a patient who has active hep B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the serological marker for a patient who is immune to hep B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Addison's disease can result from damage to the adrenal glands caused by what previous infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 4 signs of insulin shock (hypoglycemia) |
|
Definition
tachycardia
sweating
shakiness
visual problems
*drunken appearance |
|
|
Term
| what are 6 signs of diabetic coma (hyperglycemia) |
|
Definition
deep rapid sweet smelling breathing
polydipsia
polyurea
polyphagia
fever
dry skin |
|
|
Term
| exophthalmos is seen in what condition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what 2 things can cause a goiter |
|
Definition
lack of iodine in the diet
hyperthyroidism |
|
|
Term
| grave's disease is associated with what thyroid dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what causes cerebral palsy |
|
Definition
| lack of oxygen during birth |
|
|
Term
| what can help control the involuntary movements associated with cerebral palsy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what spinal level injury (and below) results in the ability to perform self care with devices |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| injury to what level of the spine would result in need for a ventilator |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what home care recommendation is contraindicated in patients with alzheimers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| when is the best time to schedule patients with ADD/ ADHD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is a temporary unilateral facial paralysis that can result from viral infection or pregnancy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are 7 drug classes that can cause xerostomia |
|
Definition
adrenergics
anticholinergics
antidepressants (SSRI, tricyclic)
antihistamines
diuretics
calcium channel blockers
methamphetamines |
|
|
Term
| what bacterial genus lacks a cell wall and is therefore unaffected by penicillin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| if a BP cuff is too large, will the BP be higher or lower than normal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the order of syphilis lesions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria colonizes gingival crevices |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria colonizes oral soft tissues |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria colonizes non-keratinized oral tissues |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria colonizes oral hard sufaces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria colonizes the tongue and saliva of children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what test can be done chairside to ID perio pathogens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what bacteria primarily colonizes the tongue |
|
Definition
| S. sanguis and salivarius |
|
|
Term
| scalloping around roots is seen in what radiographic lesion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is seen when an inner shell electron is ejected and low level energy is generated when an outer shell electron shifts to an inner vacancy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what occurs when an incident electron ejects an outer shell electron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what occurs when an electron passes near an outer shell electron and causes vibration and ionization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what occurs when outer shell electrons move to fill voids left by the ejection of electrons from the inner shells of the target material atoms. |
|
Definition
| discrete / characteristic radiation |
|
|
Term
| what is produced when the slowing down process results in a transference of the electron's kinetic energy into x-ray energy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where does a potassium sparing diuretic act? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| where do loop diuretics act? |
|
Definition
| thick segments of ascending limbs |
|
|
Term
| where do thiazide diuretics act? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what are average probing depths (with normal gingival contour) for early, moderate, and advanced periodontitis |
|
Definition
early- 3-4mm
moderate- 5-6
advanced-7 and above |
|
|
Term
| what are 4 conditions associated with end stage renal disease |
|
Definition
hypertension
bleeding (heparin therapy)
antiobiotic premed due to shunt
decreased drug metabolism |
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|
