Term
Which of the following is an accurate method of verifying patient identity?
A. Calling the patient by his or her full name
B. Checking the name listed on the medical record
C. Examining the patient’s wrist identification band
D. Confirming with a family member or friend |
|
Definition
C. Examining the patient’s wrist identification band
Checking the information located on the wrist band is the most accurate method of verifying patient identification. |
|
|
Term
The rights of the patient include which of the following?
1. The patient has the right to considerate and respectful care.
2. The patient has the right to receive a copy of the diagnostic procedure performed.
3. The patient has the right to refuse medical treatment.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
C. 1 and 3 only
The American Hospital Association drafted A Patient’s Bill of Rights in 1973. Included among the 12 "rights" are the patient’s right to considerate and respectful care and the right to refuse treatment. Release of the patient’s diagnostic examination results is not an inherent right and is at the discretion of the physician(s) involved. |
|
|
Term
A patient is required to have the following radiographic examinations: CT of the abdomen, GI series, and a barium enema. The correct order for the scheduling of these procedures would be:
A. barium enema, GI series, CT of the abdomen.
B. GI series, CT of the abdomen, barium enema.
C. CT of the abdomen, GI series, barium enema.
D. CT of the abdomen, barium enema, GI series. |
|
Definition
D. CT of the abdomen, barium enema, GI series.
The correct order for the scheduling of these procedures would be the CT study followed by the barium enema, with the GI series last. Dense barium causes a streak artifact on the CT image, so it is important that computed tomography be performed first. The barium administered during a GI series could interfere with interpretation of a diagnostic enema study. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following should be included as instructions to the patient before beginning any CT examination?
1. Describe the examination to be performed: area of body, etc.
2. Explain the process of contrast administration.
3. Give any necessary breathing instructions clearly and precisely.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
D. 1, 2, and 3
Proper communication with the patient prior to the start of any CT examination is extremely important. A thorough explanation of the procedure with a detailed set of instructions helps to reduce patient anxiety and improve cooperation in obtaining a high-quality study. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following should be included on a patient consent form for a CT scan involving intravenous contrast media?
A. A statement releasing the health professionals involved from any and all responsibility
B. A clause protecting the technologist from possible lawsuit for negligence
C. An explanation of the procedure with its accompanying risks and possible alternatives
D. Complicated medical and technical terminology |
|
Definition
C. An explanation of the procedure with its accompanying risks and possible alternatives
The purpose of a consent form is to educate the patient regarding all aspects of the procedure to be performed. A signed consent form indicates that the patient thoroughly understands the procedure. The components of a proper consent form include: a statement authorizing the health professional to perform the procedure; a full explanation of the procedure with the involved risks and benefits, and possible alternatives; a statement indicating that the patient understands the procedure; and the patient’s signature. |
|
|
Term
Patient preparation for a CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis may include which of the following?
1. NPO for 4 hours prior to the study
2. Digestion of a fatty meal 1 hour prior to the study.
3. Refraining from urination for 2 hours prior to the study
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
A. 1 only
Each hospital or private outpatient facility has its own specific protocols regarding patient preparation for CT examinations. However, when possible, all protocols should have patients refrain from eating for some time prior to the scheduled examination. Avoiding eating before a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis reduces nausea and vomiting from contrast medium injections, decreases patient discomfort from bladder filling during the study, and ensures gastric emptying for more accurate diagnoses. An empty stomach also makes it easier for the patient to consume the necessary oral contrast agent. |
|
|
Term
The patient is not required to give informed consent for which of the following CT studies?
A. Noncontrast brain to R/O subdural hematoma
B. CT-guided abscess drainage
C. Stereotactic biopsy of a cranial tumor
D. CTA chest for pulmonary embolism |
|
Definition
A. Noncontrast brain to R/O subdural hematoma
The patient is required to provide informed consent prior to the start of any invasive procedure. A noncontrast CT study of the brain is not invasive and therefore does not require informed consent. |
|
|
Term
The preparation for a contrast-enhanced CT examination of a patient with prior allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media may include:
A. premedication with steroids and antihistamines.
B. administration of a negative contrast agent.
C. increase in fluids for 24 hours prior to the examination.
D. refraining from urination for 2 hours prior to examination. |
|
Definition
A. premedication with steroids and antihistamines.
The incidence of allergic reaction to iodinated intravenous contrast media may be reduced with the administration of steroids and/or antihistamines prior to a CT examination. |
|
|
Term
Patient preparation for a contrast-enhanced CT examination of the chest may include:
A. NPO for 4 hours prior to the examination.
B. low-residue diet for 12 to 24 hours prior to the examination.
C. cleansing enema on the day preceding the examination.
D. no preparation necessary. |
|
Definition
A. NPO for 4 hours prior to the examination.
The patient should have nothing by mouth (NPO) for several hours prior to a contrast-enhanced CT examination of the chest. This practice reduces the incidence of nausea, vomiting, and possible aspiration of contrast material. |
|
|
Term
A patient is scheduled for an intravenous iodinated contrast-enhanced CT scan of the kidneys. Prior to the injection, the involved medical personnel should examine recently measured laboratory values for which of the following?
1. CBC
2. Creatinine
3. PT
A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
A. 2 only
It is important to assess the serum creatinine level of a patient scheduled to undergo a contrast-enhanced CT examination. This is especially true for any patient with a history of renal disease. The serum creatinine level is a laboratory value used to measure renal function and abnormally elevated values are often signs of renal failure. |
|
|
Term
Implied consent occurs during situations in which:
A. the patient does not understand English.
B. the patient is a minor.
C. the patient is unconscious or is physically unable to consent.
D. the patient is visually or hearing impaired. |
|
Definition
C. the patient is unconscious or is physically unable to consent.
Implied consent occurs when a patient is in need of immediate medical services but is unconscious or physically unable to consent to treatment. It is assumed that the patient would consent if able. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an acceptable form of immobilization during a CT examination?
1. Suspended respiration
2. Use of cushioned hook-and-loop (Velcro) strap
3. Use of medical tape
A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
C. 1 and 2 only
Medical tape is potentially damaging to skin and should not be utilized for immobilization. The patient "breath-hold" is an effective method of reducing motion, particularly during CT examinations of the trunk. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following laboratory values is used to measure the coagulation ability of a patient prior to an invasive CT study?
1. PTT
2. Hematocrit
3. PT
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
B. 1 and 3 only
The coagulation capabilities of a patient may be evaluated with the measurement of prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Each of these laboratory values attempts to detect deficiencies in the various clotting factors. Hematocrit is the concentration of red blood cells within the total volume of blood; it may be used to evaluate the hydration status of a patient. |
|
|
Term
The normal pulse rate range in a child is:
A. 30 to 50 beats per minute.
B. 60 to 100 beats per minute.
C. 70 to 120 beats per minute.
D. 110 to 150 beats per minute. |
|
Definition
C. 70 to 120 beats per minute.
The normal range for pulse rate in a child is 70 to 120 beats per minute. This is slightly higher than the range of 60 to 100 beats per minute for an adult. |
|
|
Term
The average range for normal prothrombin (PT) time is approximately:
A. 3 to 5 seconds.
B. 7 to 9 seconds.
C. 12 to 15 seconds.
D. 18 to 23 seconds. |
|
Definition
C. 12 to 15 seconds
Normal prothrombin (PT) times are laboratory-specific and range between approximately 11 and 15 seconds. This test is used to evaluate the coagulation ability of a patient scheduled to undergo an invasive CT procedure. |
|
|
Term
The acronym PTT is used for which of the following laboratory tests?
A. Prothrombin time
B. Passive tachycardia test
C. Partial prothrombin time
D. Partial thromboplastin time |
|
Definition
D. Partial thromboplastin time
The partial thromboplastin time indicates the coagulation time of a patient’s blood. It is often abbreviated as PTT. |
|
|
Term
The normal platelet count range for an adult is:
A. 30,000 to 45,000/μL of blood.
B. 75,000 to 125,000/μL of blood.
C. 140,000 to 440,000/μL of blood.
D. 450,000 to 700,000/μL of blood. |
|
Definition
| C. 140,000 to 440,000/μL of blood. |
|
|
Term
The normal range of respirations for a child is:
A. 5 to 10 breaths per minute.
B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
C. 20 to 30 breaths per minute.
D. 35 to 50 breaths per minute. |
|
Definition
| C. 20 to 30 breaths per minute. |
|
|
Term
A normal range for systolic blood pressure in an adult is:
A. 40 to 60 mm Hg.
B. 60 to 90 mm Hg.
C. 80 to 120 mm Hg.
D. 95 to 140 mm Hg. |
|
Definition
D. 95 to 140 mm Hg.
The normal range for systolic blood pressure in adults is 95 to 140 mm Hg. Systolic pressure is the measurement of blood pressure at its peak during contraction of the heart. |
|
|
Term
The normal range of respirations for an adult is:
A. 5 to 10 breaths per minute.
B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
C. 20 to 30 breaths per minute.
D. 35 to 50 breaths per minute. |
|
Definition
| B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute. |
|
|
Term
The average range for normal adult BUN levels is approximately:
A. 1 to 4 mg/dL.
B. 5 to 20 mg/dL.
C. 23 to 30 mg/dL.
D. 45 to 60 mg/dL. |
|
Definition
B. 5 to 20 mg/dL.
The average range for normal adult blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels is approximately 5 to 20 mg/dL. |
|
|
Term
The portion of the cardiac cycle in which the heart muscle is in relaxation is termed:
A. systole.
B. diastole.
C. fibrillation.
D. interphase. |
|
Definition
B. diastole
Diastole is the period of time when the heart muscle is relaxing. Ventricular diastole is relaxation of the ventricles, whereas atrial diastole is relaxation of the atria. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a normal stage of the cardiac cycle?
1. Atrial systole
2. Ventricular systole
3. Atrial fibrillation
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
A. 1 and 2 only
Atrial systole and ventricular systole are normal stages of the cardiac cycle in which the atria and ventricles contract, respectively. Atrial fibrillation is a cardiac arrhythmia that results in an irregular heartbeat. |
|
|
Term
The assessment of D dimer concentration is used to diagnose which of the following pathologic conditions?
1. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
2. Pulmonary embolism
3. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
B. 2 and 3 only
As measured on a laboratory blood test, D dimer concentration is used to diagnose thrombosis, including pulmonary emboli. |
|
|
Term
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is a laboratory assessment test utilized to measure:
A. blood coagulation.
B. respiratory function.
C. cardiac function.
D. renal function. |
|
Definition
D. renal function
GFR is an approximation of creatinine clearance and provides an assessment of renal function. |
|
|
Term
Creatinine clearance, or the rate at which creatinine is filtered from the bloodstream, may be used to approximate:
A. BUN.
B. INR.
C. PTT.
D. GFR. |
|
Definition
D. GFR.
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can be approximated using the rate that creatinine is cleared from the bloodstream by the renal system. This information aides in assessment of the patient’s renal system. |
|
|
Term
The general practices necessary to obtain a sufficient medical history prior to a CT procedure include:
1. Asking open-ended questions
2. Encouraging the patient to provide maximum information
3. Repeating and summarizing the information to assure accuracy
A. 1 only.
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. 2 and 3 only.
D. 1, 2, and 3. |
|
Definition
D. 1, 2, and 3
All three practices should be employed during the taking of a detailed and accurate medical history. In addition, any required follow-up questions should be focused to acquire the most appropriate information possible. |
|
|
Term
The device employed to monitor blood oxygen level is called a:
A. sphygmomanometer.
B. pulse oximeter.
C. stethoscope.
D. electrocardiograph (ECG). |
|
Definition
B. pulse oximeter
A pulse oximeter is an electronic device used to measure pulse and respiratory status. Placed on a patient’s finger, toe, or ear lobe, the pulse oximeter measures blood oxygen levels, which are normally between 95% and 100%. |
|
|
Term
As related to the cardiac cycle, the term __________ refers to the contraction of heart muscle.
A. diastole
B. equilibrium
C. systole
D. a-fib |
|
Definition
C. systole
The term systole refers to the contraction of heart muscle. It can be divided between atrial systole and ventricular systole. |
|
|
Term
Used to evaluate the heart rhythm, __________ refers to the graphic representation of the heart’s electrical activity.
A. electroplethysmography
B. sphygmomanometry
C. electromyelography
D. electrocardiography |
|
Definition
D. electrocardiography
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is a graphic representation of the electrical activity of the heart. It is used particularly during cardiac CT procedures to evaluate the heart rhythm and cycle. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following corresponds to the period of the cardiac cycle known as ventricular systole?
A. Relaxation of the left and right atria
B. Contraction of the left and right atria
C. Relaxation of the left and right ventricles
D. Contraction of the left and right ventricles |
|
Definition
| D. Contraction of the left and right ventriclesVentricular systole describes the period of the cardiac cycle when the left and right ventricles are contracting. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following corresponds to the period of the cardiac cycle known as atrial systole?
A. Relaxation of the left and right atria
B. Contraction of the left and right atria
C. Relaxation of the left and right ventricles
D. Contraction of the left and right ventricles |
|
Definition
B. B. Contraction of the left and right atria
Contraction of the left and right atria
Atrial systole describes the period of the cardiac cycle when the left and right atria are contracting. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following refers to the period of the cardiac cycle known as complete cardiac diastole?
1. Contraction of the left and right ventricles
2. Relaxation of the heart muscle
3. The QRS complex of the electrocardiogram (ECG)
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
B. 2 only
Complete cardiac diastole corresponds to the period of relaxation of the heart muscle. It consists of ventricular and atrial diastole and is indicated by the T wave of an electrocardiogram (ECG). |
|
|
Term
Which of the following refers to the period of the cardiac cycle known as complete cardiac diastole?
1. Relaxation of the left and right ventricles
2. Relaxation of the left and right atria
3. The T wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG)
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Complete cardiac diastole corresponds to the period of relaxation of the heart muscle. It consists of ventricular and atrial diastole and is indicated by the T wave of an electrocardiogram (ECG). |
|
|
Term
Cardiac CT images are typically acquired during which phase of the heart’s cycle?
A. Systolic phase
B. Equilibrium phase
C. Diastolic phase
D. Ejection phase |
|
Definition
C. Diastolic phase
The heart is optimally imaged with the least artifact from motion during its period of relaxation, otherwise known as the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following laboratory values may be used to assess the renal function of a patient prior to the IV administration of iodinated contrast media?
1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
2. Creatinine
3. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
D. 1, 2, and 3
BUN and creatinine are routinely used to assess renal function. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is a more accurate measure, calculated using the patient’s measured serum creatinine level and taking into account the patient’s age, sex, and race. |
|
|
Term
The normal range of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) for women is:
A. 50 ± 14 mL/min/m2.
B. 60 ± 10 mL/min/m2.
C. 70 ± 14 mL/min/m2.
D. 80 ± 10 mL/min/m2. |
|
Definition
| B. 60 ± 10 mL/min/m2Normal range of GFR is 60 ± 10 mL/min/m2 for women and 70 ± 14 mL/min/m2 for men. |
|
|
Term
The normal range for the International Normalized Ratio (INR) for prothrombin time (PT) results is:
A. 0.2 to 0.5.
B. 0.8 to 1.2.
C. 2.2 to 3.5.
D. 6.1 to 8.6. |
|
Definition
B. 0.8 to 1.2.
The INR compares a patient’s PT with a control sample for a more accurate result. The normal range for INR is 0.8 to 1.2. |
|
|
Term
A patient with an elevated level of D dimer in the bloodstream may be at increased risk for which of the following?
A. Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN)
B. Allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Type 2 diabetes |
|
Definition
C. Pulmonary embolism
D dimer testing is utilized for the diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism. Although nonspecific, the presence of elevated amounts of D dimer in the bloodstream may indicate recently degraded blood clots. |
|
|
Term
The medication known as Coumadin, or its generic name warfarin, is often used to treat:
A. type 2 diabetes.
B. high cholesterol.
C. reactions to iodinated contrast agents.
D. blood clots. |
|
Definition
D. blood clots.
Coumadin, the proprietary name for the generic drug warfarin, is an anticoagulant. It is used to prevent the formation of blood clots in veins and arteries and may reduce the incidence of heart attack and stroke. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true regarding patients receiving metformin therapy for type 2 diabetes and IV contrast-enhanced CT examinations?
1. Metformin therapy is a direct contraindication to administration of IV contrast agents.
2. The patient should not take metformin for up to 2 days following administration of an IV contrast agent.
3. After administration of an IV contrast agent, the patient may need renal function testing before resuming metformin therapy.
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
C. 2 and 3 only
Metformin, also known by its most common proprietary name, Glucophage, is a drug used to treat type 2 diabetes. Patients are typically instructed not to take metformin for up to 2 days after a contrast-enhanced CT examination. The patient should refer to the referring physician for instructions before resuming metformin treatment because a blood test to check renal function may be needed first. |
|
|
Term
The lumens of needles used for the injection of contrast media vary in diameter. The unit used to describe this diameter is called:
A. length.
B. cubic centimeter (cc).
C. gauge.
D. psi. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Advantages of automatic power injectors in comparison with the manual bolus method of intravenous contrast administration include:
1. Increased tissue enhancement because of faster injection times
2. Uniform administration of contrast agent over the entire length of the study
3. Decreased incidence of adverse reaction to contrast agent
A. 1 only.
B. 3 only.
C. 1 and 2 only.
D. 2 and 3 only. |
|
Definition
C. 1 and 2 only
Adjustable-flow-rate automatic injectors improve overall enhancement levels and offer consistency both throughout an examination and between individual patients. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following drug administration routes provides the most rapid absorption and action within the body?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous |
|
Definition
D. Intravenous
The intravenous (IV) method of drug administration allows for direct entry of the drug into the bloodstream, which results in the immediate effect of the drug on the patient. |
|
|
Term
Where should the tourniquet be positioned during preparation of a patient for intravenous contrast administration?
A. Directly over the injection site
B. Proximal to the injection site
C. Distal to the injection site
D. Below the injection site |
|
Definition
B. Proximal to the injection site
Prior to the intravenous injection of contrast media, a tourniquet is placed proximal to the injection site. The tourniquet helps distend the vein, making needle insertion easier. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements concerning site preparation with an antiseptic for an invasive procedure is true?
A. Dab the area with antiseptic-moistened paper towel.
B. Paint the area with antiseptic in a linear motion.
C. Paint the area with antiseptic in a circular motion, beginning at the center and working outward.
D. Paint the area with antiseptic in a circular motion, beginning at the outer margins and working inward. |
|
Definition
C. Paint the area with antiseptic in a circular motion, beginning at the center and working outward.
Antiseptic solution is often applied to the patient’s skin prior to an invasive procedure such as a CT-guided needle biopsy. The antiseptic should be applied in a circular motion beginning at the center and working outward. This method ensures that the center location for the procedure has been thoroughly cleansed. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following places the listed butterfly needles in decreasing order in terms of bore dimension?
A. 19 gauge, 21 gauge, 23 gauge
B. 21 gauge, 23 gauge, 19 gauge
C. 23 gauge, 21 gauge, 19 gauge
D. 23 gauge, 19 gauge, 21 gauge |
|
Definition
A. 19 gauge, 21 gauge, 23 gauge
The gauge of a needle signifies its bore dimension or lumen size. The gauge of a needle increases as its lumen size decreases. Therefore, a 19-gauge needle has a larger lumen than a 23-gauge needle. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following vessels would not be used as a site for the injection of iodinated contrast material?
A. Cephalic vein
B. Brachial artery
C. Antecubital vein
D. Basilic vein |
|
Definition
B. Brachial artery
Common sites for intravenous contrast injection include the antecubital, basilic, cephalic, and accessory cephalic veins. Intra-arterial injections of contrast material are not routinely performed for CT examinations. The only exceptions occur during hepatic CT portography, in which contrast agent may be administered through a catheter placed in the hepatic, superior mesenteric, or splenic artery. |
|
|
Term
Infiltration of contrast agent outside of the blood vessel into the surrounding soft tissue is called:
A. backflow.
B. extravasation.
C. subluxation.
D. enhancement. |
|
Definition
B. extravasation
Extravasation, or infiltration of contrast agent into the surrounding tissue, is extremely painful and a potentially serious consequence of improper administration of IV contrast media. |
|
|
Term
The IV administration of iodinated contrast media requires strict adherence to:
A. contact isolation and sterile technique.
B. enteric precautions and aseptic technique.
C. contact isolation and aseptic technique.
D. standard precautions and aseptic technique. |
|
Definition
D. standard precautions and aseptic technique.
Standard precautions refers to the principle that all blood, body fluids, and secretions may contain transmissible infectious disease. The practice of standard precautions applies to all patients receiving care, regardless of medical history. The techniques and procedures constituting standard precautions are hand washing and the wearing of gloves, masks, goggles, gowns, etc. Similar in purpose, aseptic technique refers to the specific procedures that a practitioner employs to reduce the risk of infection during the IV administration of contrast agent. Examples are through hand washing between patients, wearing gloves, and cleansing the IV site with alcohol. |
|
|
Term
Parenteral contrast administration refers to which of the following?
A. Oral administration
B. Rectal administration
C. Intravenous administration
D. Nasogastric administration |
|
Definition
C. Intravenous administration
The injection of a medication or contrast agent directly into the bloodstream is a type of parenteral administration. Other parenteral routes include intramuscular, subcutaneous, intradermal, and intrathecal. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following terms describes a condition in which cerebral ischemia is caused by systemic hypotension?
A. Vasovagal reaction
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Hydrocephalus |
|
Definition
A. Vasovagal reaction
The term vasovagal pertains to systemic hypotension often leading to cerebral ischemia. |
|
|
Term
Examples of mild adverse reactions to iodinated intravenous contrast media are:
1. Nausea
2. Dyspnea
3. Warm, flushed sensation
A. 1 only.
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. 1 and 3 only.
D. 2 and 3 only. |
|
Definition
C. 1 and 3 only
Examples of mild adverse reactions to iodinated contrast material are nausea, mild urticaria, and a warm flushed sensation. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a moderate reaction. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a correct difference between ionic and nonionic iodinated contrast media?
A. Nonionic contrast media have a higher osmolality than ionic media.
B. Ionic contrast media contain iodine, whereas nonionic media do not.
C. Nonionic contrast media have a lower osmolality than ionic media.
D. Ionic contrast media are associated with a lower incidence of adverse reaction than nonionic media. |
|
Definition
C. Nonionic contrast media have a lower osmolality than ionic media.
Nonionic iodinated contrast media have a lower osmolality and are associated with a lower incidence of adverse reaction than ionic contrast media. Both types of materials contain iodine in varying concentrations. |
|
|
Term
Contrast materials that dissociate into charged particles when placed into solution are termed:
A. positive.
B. nonionic.
C. ionic.
D. negative. |
|
Definition
C. Ionic
Ionic contrast materials are salts that separate into independent charged particles when placed in aqueous solutions. The charged particles are typically termed anions and cations. |
|
|
Term
A patient has a severe vagal reaction to iodinated contrast material that includes bradycardia. Initial treatment may consist of:
A. atropine.
B. diazepam.
C. Zantac.
D. Proventil. |
|
Definition
A. atropine
Patients suffering from vagal reactions to iodinated contrast agents present with hypotension and bradycardia. Treatment includes increasing blood pressure with IV fluids and intravenous administration of atropine to block vagal stimulation of the heart. |
|
|
Term
The term used to describe the ability of a fluid to flow is:
A. density.
B. viscosity.
C. osmolality.
D. specific gravity. |
|
Definition
B. viscosity
The viscosity of a fluid is a measure of the fluid’s ability to flow. A fluid with a high viscosity is relatively thick and flows slowly. The viscosity of a solution may be varied with changes in temperature. |
|
|
Term
Iodine is commonly used in radiopaque contrast media because of its:
A. radiolucency.
B. viscosity.
C. osmolality.
D. high atomic number. |
|
Definition
D. high atomic number.
Iodine’s high atomic number causes it to attenuate a large portion of the primary beam. Introducing iodine into tissue changes the subject contrast of the enhanced anatomic area. |
|
|
Term
A high-osmolar contrast material has an average osmolality of:
A. 100 to 300 mOsm/kg water.
B. 600 to 850 mOsm/kg water.
C. 1000 to 2400 mOsm/kg water.
D. 4000 to 7000 mOsm/kg water. |
|
Definition
C. 1000 to 2400 mOsm/kg water.
The osmolality of a contrast material is a measure of the number of particles per kg of water. Osmolality is a factor in determining the potential for adverse reactions to iodinated contrast material. Ionic contrast media, which dissolve into a large number of anions and cations in solution, have an average osmolality between 1000 and 2400 mOsm/kg. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient having difficulty swallowing?
A. Dyslexia
B. Dyspnea
C. Dysphagia
D. Dysphasia |
|
Definition
C. Dysphagia
The term for difficulty in swallowing is dysphagia. The prefix dys- denotes difficulty or painful, and the suffix -phagia refers to eating or swallowing. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following symptoms indicate(s) a vagal reaction to an iodinated intravenous contrast agent?
1. Bradycardia
2. Systolic pressure below 80 mm Hg
3. Diastolic pressure above 90 mm Hg
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only |
|
Definition
C. 1 and 2 only
A vagal reaction to iodinated intravenous contrast must be recognized early so that proper initial treatment is provided. A combination of bradycardia (heart rate below 50 beats per minute) and hypotension (systolic pressure below 80 mm Hg) indicates a vagal reaction. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an advantage of nonionic contrast media over ionic media?
A. Lower cost
B. Decreased nephrotoxicity
C. Decreased enhancement
D. Reduced incidence of adverse reaction |
|
Definition
C. Decreased enhancement
Nonionic contrast material is associated with a lower incidence of adverse reactions than to ionic media. Nonionic media are also higher in cost but unfortunately offer no reduction in renal toxicity. |
|
|
Term
The maximum dose of intravenous iodinated contrast for a child should not exceed:
A. 1 mg/kg body weight.
B. 3 mg/kg body weight.
C. 5 mg/kg body weight.
D. 10 mg/kg body weight. |
|
Definition
B. 3 mg/kg body weight
The maximum dose of intravenous iodinated contrast agent should not exceed 3 mg/kg of body weight during pediatric CT examinations. Contrast loads in excess of this limit have been reported to cause acute osmolar poisoning in children. |
|
|
Term
Examples of moderate adverse reactions to iodinated intravenous contrast media are:
1. Shock
2. Faintness
3. Severe vomiting
A. 1 only.
B. 1 and 3 only.
C. 2 and 3 only.
D. 1, 2, and 3. |
|
Definition
C. 2 and 3 only
Examples of moderate or intermediate reactions to iodinated intravenous contrast agents are severe vomiting, dyspnea, faintness, chest pain, and seizures. Shock is an example of a severe reaction. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following medical terms is commonly used in place of the word vomit?
A. Emesis
B. Volute
C. Fomite
D. Purulent |
|
Definition
A. Emesis
The term emesis is commonly used in place of vomit. An emesis basin is one that is curved to fit against a patient’s neck to collect vomitus. |
|
|
Term
An intrathecal injection of iodinated contrast material may be performed for which of the following CT examinations?
A. Brain
B. Pituitary
C. Lumbar spine
D. High-resolution chest |
|
Definition
C. Lumbar spine
Intrathecal injections of iodinated contrast material are commonly used in CT myelography of the lumbar spine. This type of injection introduces the contrast agent directly into the subarachnoid space. |
|
|
Term
Severe reactions to intravenous iodinated contrast material occur in approximately __________ of all patients.
A. less than 1%
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 10% |
|
Definition
A. less than 1%
Severe reactions to intravenous iodinated contrast media occur in less than 1% of all patients. Examples of severe reactions are shock, myocardial infarction, and death. |
|
|
Term
A patient demonstrates diffuse urticaria shortly after the intravenous administration of iodinated contrast media. Correct treatment would include:
A. administration of an adrenergic drug.
B. administration of IV fluids.
C. oxygen at 3 to 4 L/min.
D. administration of an antihistamine drug. |
|
Definition
D. administration of an antihistamine drug.
Administration of an antihistamine drug is the usual treatment for the development of urticaria (hives) following the injection of iodinated contrast media. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is/are included in the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?
1. Hypertension
2. Oliguria
3. Pallor
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
C. 2 and 3 only
Hypovolemic shock is caused by an insufficient volume of circulating blood. The common signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock are pallor (absence of color in the skin), hypotension, tachycardia, and oliguria (decreased urine production). |
|
|
Term
Parenteral routes of medication administration include which of the following?
1. Subcutaneous
2. Intradermal
3. Transdermal
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Definition
B. 1 and 2 only
Parenteral routes of medication administration include intramuscular, intravenous, intradermal, and subcutaneous. |
|
|
Term
The viscosity of a contrast material may be decreased through:
A. increases in pressure.
B. decreases in temperature.
C. decreases in volume.
D. increases in temperature. |
|
Definition
D. increases in temperature
The viscosity of a contrast material can be reduced by heating it to body temperature (98.6°F/37°C). The decrease in viscosity allows for easier administration of the contrast agent. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following terms may be used to indicate a feeling of faintness?
A. Lethargy
B. Synergy
C. Anosmia
D. Syncope |
|
Definition
D. Syncope
A faint or lightheaded feeling is commonly referred to as syncope. |
|
|
Term
Because of its excessive density, barium sulfate may be used in CT only in suspensions with concentrations of:
A. 1% to 3% barium sulfate.
B. 5% to 7% barium sulfate.
C. 10% to 13% barium sulfate.
D. 25% to 30% barium sulfate. |
|
Definition
A. 1% to 3% barium sulfate.
Barium sulfate is normally too dense to be useful in CT imaging. Even when diluted with water, barium’s high attenuation characteristics can cause streaking artifacts on the CT image. Some commercially available CT oral contrast media preparations do contain barium sulfate in 1% to 3% suspensions. The suspension contains additives that are designed to prevent settling of the barium sulfate, which could cause inhomogeneous opacification of the gastrointestinal system. |
|
|
Term
The propensity of a contrast agent to cause fluid to move from the extravascular space to the intravascular space is called:
A. toxicity.
B. solubility.
C. concentration.
D. osmolality. |
|
Definition
D. osmolality.
An important characteristic of iodinated radiopaque contrast media, osmolality describes the propensity of the agent to cause fluid from outside the blood vessel (extravascular space) to move into the bloodstream (intravascular space). |
|
|
Term
The best method of reducing the risk of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN) is:
A. premedication with corticosteroids.
B. adequate patient hydration.
C. reduction of the contrast injection rate.
D. utilization of a biphasic injection technique. |
|
Definition
B. adequate patient hydration.
Adequate hydration of the patient is the best method of CIN prevention. In the well-hydrated patient with normal renal function, the risk for development of CIN is extremely low. |
|
|
Term
Prior to resuming normal breastfeeding, it is recommended that a patient who has undergone IV administration of an iodinated contrast agent should pump and discard breast milk for a period of:
A. 1 to 2 hours.
B. 12 to 24 hours.
C. 1 to 2 days.
D. 5 to 7 days. |
|
Definition
B. 12 to 24 hours
12 to 24 hours is the recommended period to pump and discard breast milk before resuming normal breastfeeding. Because the plasma half-life of iodinated contrast material is approximately 2 hours, the level in breast milk after 24 hours is essentially negligible. |
|
|
Term
The plasma half-life of intravenously administered iodinated contrast material is approximately:
A. 30 minutes.
B. 60 minutes.
C. 2 hours.
D. 12 hours. |
|
Definition
C. 2 hours
After approximately 2 hours, the percentage of iodinated contrast material in blood plasma is reduced to half of the administered volume. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a category of isolation technique?
A. Enteric precautions
B. Gram-negative isolation
C. Contact isolation
D. Strict isolation |
|
Definition
B. Gram-negative isolation
The categories of isolation technique are drainage-secretion precautions, enteric precautions, acid-fast bacillus isolation, respiratory isolation; contact isolation, and strict isolation. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the correct order for the stages of infection?
A. Incubation, prodromal, active, convalescence
B. Convalescence, active, prodromal, incubation
C. Prodromal, incubation, convalescence, active
D. Incubation, convalescence, prodromal, active |
|
Definition
A. Incubation, prodromal, active, convalescence
The course of an infection can be divided into four stages. The incubation stage begins when a pathogenic organism enters the host. The prodromal stage is characterized by the appearance of early signs and symptoms of the disease process. The active or full stage consists of the maximum appearance of the signs and symptoms of the disease. During the last stage, convalescence, the symptoms begin to diminish and may eventually completely subside. |
|
|
Term
Infection may occur indirectly through contact with contaminated objects known as:
A. vectors.
B. fomites.
C. vehicles.
D. hosts. |
|
Definition
B. fomites
Fomites are objects that have been contaminated by an infectious organism or microbe. The spread of the infection may occur when someone comes in contact with the fomite. This is an indirect means of infection transmission. |
|
|
Term
Prior to and after contact with each patient, a proper hand washing technique requires that the technologist use warm soap and water with a circular rubbing motion for at least:
A. 10 seconds.
B. 30 seconds.
C. 2 minutes.
D. 5 minutes. |
|
Definition
B. 30 seconds
Proper hand washing technique requires a minimum of 30 seconds. The technologist should use warm soap and water with a firm circular motion. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following types of isolation precautions is used to protect immunosuppressed patients from possible infection?
A. Enteric precautions
B. Strict isolation
C. Contact isolation
D. Drainage-secretion precautions |
|
Definition
B. Strict isolation
Strict isolation is used with patients at risk of infection because of immunosuppression or some other form of debilitative disease. This type of precaution technique was previously referred to as "protective" or "reverse" isolation. |
|
|
Term
The addition of __________ makes an autoclave more efficient at sterilization than an oven.
A. antiseptic solution
B. moisture
C. extreme pressure
D. ultraviolet light |
|
Definition
B. moisture
An autoclave is a mechanical device used for sterilization. It involves the use of heat and steam under pressure to eliminate microbes. An oven uses only high heat and is not as efficient as an autoclave. |
|
|
Term
A suction unit used on a patient with a chest tube should always remain:
A. below the patient.
B. level with the patient.
C. above the patient.
D. at the head of the patient’s bed. |
|
Definition
A. below the patient.
In order for a suction unit to properly drain a chest tube, it must always remain below the level of the patient. |
|
|
