The principal effect of tissue damage from varying magnetic and radiofrequency appears to be related to the

a. Physical alteration of the subatomic particles in the nucleus

b. Deposition of heat in the tissues exposed to these fields

c. Chemical alteration of the metabolic compounds of the cells

d. Direct ionization of orbital electrons of the atoms in the cells. The structure of interest extends outside of the imaging volume

During a magnetic resonance imaging procedure, all of the following metallic implants are at risk for being dislodged except: 

a. Intracranial aneurysm clips

b. Prosthetic heart valves

c. Auditory implants

d. Cholecystectomy clips

In order to avoid surface burns of the patient during a magnetic resonance imaging procedure, it is important to: 

a. Place EKG leads as close to the skin as possible

b. Coil all leads into loops and place them under the patient's gown or clothing

c. Place additional insulation around all lead wires

d. Coat all lead wires with a conducting solution of paste

 Earplugs or non-magnetic headphones are commonly used during a magnetic resonance imaging procedure to:

a. Prevent temporary or permanent hearing damage in the patients

b. Protect the external auditory canals of the patients from mechanical injuries

c. Prevent the electrical burns to the tympanic membranes of the patients

d. Reduce the production of eddy currents in the cochlea of the patients

The most common reason for the inability of a patient to successfully complete a magnetic resonance imaging procedure is:

a. Magnectic induced cardiac irregularities

b. Foreign objects in the eye

c. Claustrophobia

d. Intolerance to loud sounds

A rare but potential hazard with superconducting magnetic systems is the release of helium or nitrogen into the imaging room resulting in the:

a. Rapid drop of temperature or hyperthermia of the patient

b. Reduction of oxygen levels of the atmosphere and the asphyxiation of the patient

c. Increased conductivity of the atmosphere and the possibility of electrical shock

d. Increased combustibility of the atmosphere and the possibility of an explosion

In most modern 1-2 tesla units a fringe field level of less than 5 gauss will require a distance of at least:

a. 3-5 feet from the bore of the magnet

b. 10-15 feet from the bore of the magnet

c. 20-25 or more feet from the bore of the magnet

d. 50-75 or more feet from the bore of the magnet

When a magnetic resonance unit has a large fringe field, the movement of large metallic objects such as cars or elevators may:

a. Cause ripples in the magnetic field that can hinder image quality

b. Increase the heating in electrical wires resulting in voltage brownouts

c. Cause alterations in the recording media used to store the images

d. Increase the strength of the magnetic field above its safety limits

Magnetophosphene or the "seeing of stars" is a reversible phenomenon occurring in the eyes caused by an  individual's exposure to strong

1. Static magnetic fields

2. Time-varying magnetic fields

3. Radiofrequencies

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c .3 only

d. 1, 2, & 3

What is the main biologic hazard if a surface coil for magnetic resonance imaging of the knee is inadvertently angled with respect to the circumferential coil?

a. The patient may experience erythema due to the production of ultraviolet radiation by the device

b. The patient may experience skin burns due to the excessive heating of the device

c. The patient may experience frostbite due to the excessive cooling of the coil

d. The patient may experience mechanical trauma due to the movement of the device within the field

In order to reduce the potential for biological effects during magnetic resonance imaging studies, the Food and Drug Administration has limited the maximum strength of the static magnetic field to no more than 2 tesla. This recommendation has been made to reduce the:

a. Potential of high voltage shocks

b. Fringe field limits to less than 100 feet

c. Potential for unwanted biologic effects

d. Potential of radiofrequency interference in adjacent electrical devices

Magneto hemodynamics is best defined as the interactions that can occur:

a. In cells, organelles, and macromolecules exposed to strong magnetic fields

b. In structural components and building materials when exposed to strong magnetic fields

c. Electrical recording systems when exposed to RF fields

d. In electromagnetic radiation when exposed to strong magnetic fields

 One of the concerns during a magnetic resonance imaging study is the failure to provide adequate cooling of the patient during the study. In order to prevent discomfort to the patient from heating caused during the production of radiofrequencies and other ambient conditions, the imaging room should provide for all the following EXCEPT:

a. A high humidity

b. A low humidity

c. A high air flow rate

d. A low room temperature

The greatest mechanical risk associated with the operation of a modern superconducting magnet is the danger associated with the:

a. Induced electrical currents in surface coils due to varying radiofrequencies

b. Rapid cooling of the unit due to venting of supercooled liquid gases

c. Rapid acceleration ferromagnetic projectile

d. Reversal of magnetic polarity and the effects of sudden molecular realignments

A reduction of the blood flow in the vessels due to the presence of electrolytes in a strong static magnetic field is related to the formation of:

a. Ferro polar cells

b. Vasodilation chemicals

c. Coagulation elements

d. Eddy currents

A reduction of the blood flow in the vessels due to the presence of electrolytes in a strong static magnetic field is related to the formation of:

a. Ferro polar cells

b. Vasodilation chemicals

c. Coagulation elements

d. Eddy currents

The greatest concern for a patient with a pacemaker undergoing a magnetic resonance imaging procedure appears to be the potential for the:

a. Physical displacement of the leads

b. Suppression of the pacing activity

c. Damage to the power supply

d. Acceleration of the pacing rate

Research indicates that at usual magnetic resonance imaging levels, the fetus appears to be:

a. Highly sensitive to static magnetism fields

b. Highly sensitive to magnetic resonance radiofrequencies

c. Highly sensitive to time-varying magnetic fields

d. Relatively insensitive to magnetic resonance related stimuli

Which of the following conditions is most often associated with the delayed clearance of gadoteridol

(ProHance) from the body?

a. Renal insufficiency

b. Cardiac insufficiency

c. Gastritis

d. Cholecystitis

The main route by which the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enters the body is through the:

a. Respiratory tract

b. Circulatory system

c. Urinary tract

d. Digestive system

The muscles groups that should be employed for lifting heavy objects are located in the:

1. Arms

2. Legs

3. Back

a. 1 & 2 only

b. 1 & 3 only

c. 2 & 3 only

d. 1, 2, & 3

The two most common methods for the control of the spreading of contagious diseases are:

a. vaccination and inoculation

b. Decompression and contamination

c. Disinfection and isolation

d. Inoculation and asepsis

Hepatitis B virus is frequently transmitted from a patient to a healthcare worker through:

a. The improper handling of urine

b. Direct contact with the patient's skin

c. Droplets caused by sneezing or coughing

d. Accidental needle stick injuries

The common means by which infections are spread is by:

a. Airborne particulates

b. Indirect (fomite) contact

c. Direct(touching) contact

d. Endogenous contact

The failure to keep an IV bottle above the level of the patient during an IV infusion is most likely to result in:

a. Infiltration of the IV solutions into the surround tissues

b. Bacterial contamination of the IV fluids

c. Blood clot formation in the needle or line

d. An increase in the infusion rate of the contrast agent

When a patient is connected to the chest tube drainage equipment, it is important to_______when moving the patient.

1.Clamp off the chest tube

2. Raise the bottle above the chest

3. Avoid kinks in the drainage tube

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1,2, & 3

A tracheostomy is a surgical procedure which is performed to:

a. Reduce the pressure which can buildup in the heart

b. Help relieve a severe blockage of the upper respiratory tract

c. Drain off excessive fluids which have collected in the pleura

d. Sample or portion a lesion for laboratory testing

Syncope or fainting is a mild form of neurogenic shock that may occur:

a. After a highly unpleasant or painful event

b. Following a sudden change of posture which increases the blood pressure

c. After the exposure to an air-borne contamination

d. Following exposure to a pathogen

The signs of cardiac arrest will normally include:

1. Apnea

2. Absence of the pulse

3. Falling blood pressure reading

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2, & 3

The human brain can survive without oxygen for about:

a. 2-4 minutes

b. 7-9 minutes

c. 11-14 minutes

d. 15-20 minutes

The cycle of infection can be broken by:

1. Destruction of the infectious organism

2. Removal of the source of infection

3. Preventing the means by which an infection is spread

a. 1 & 2 only

b. 1 & 3 only

c. 2 & 3 only

d. 1, 2, & 3

All of the following are appropriate indications for the ordering of a MR imaging procedure of the head EXCEPT:

a. The evaluation of cerebral infarcts

b. The confirmation of brain death

c. The assessment of metastatic disease

d. The changes associated with multiple sclerosis

During vascular imaging of the head which of the following imaging technique is likely to be most sensitive to for fast flow -related vascular lesions such as small aneurysm partial vascular occlusions?

a. Three-dimensional time of flight

b. Two-dimensional time of flight

c. Three-dimensional phase contrast

d. Multi-dimensional phase contrast

During the acquisition of axial MR images of the cervical spine, a saturation pulse placed anterior to the cervical spine

may help to reduce:

a. Motion artifacts related to swallowing

b. Flow artifacts related to carotid arterial blood flow

c. Flow artifacts related to the movement of the cerebral spinal fluid

d. Motion artifacts to the movement of air through the bronchial tree

During MR imaging of the heart and mediastinum which of the following is normally used to reduce motion artifacts?

a. Flow compensators and multiple saturation pulses

b. Thoracic compression and blood flow suppression devices

c. Phase-encoding and motion suppression programs

d. Respiratory compensation bellows and an EKG gated technique

During MR imaging of the pelvis, all of the following are used to improve the quality of images EXCEPT:

a. The placement of padding posterior to the patients knees

b. Instruction the patient to breath form the chest and upper abdomen

c. The placement of the arms of the patient over the mid-pelvis

d. The use of peripheral gating techniques

A magnetic resonance image of the lumbar spine is obtained in the sagittal plane using a T2 weighted image sequence. Which of the following structures are most likely to produce the highest signal intensity?

a. A desiccated intervertebral disk

b. The body of the vertebra

c. The nucleus pulposus of a normal disk

d. The abdominal aorta or inferior vena cava

Which of the following imaging planes is normally used to demonstrate the relationship of the inferior vena cava to the diaphragm and heart

a. Sagittal image

b. Transverse image

c. Coronal image

d. Oblique image

[image]

This magnetic resonance image is best described as:

a. An axial image of the knee

b. A coronal image of the knee

c A sagittal image of the knee

d. An oblique image of the knee

[image]

The appearance of the knee image is most consistent with an image obtained using a:

a. T1 weighted imaging sequence

b. T2 weighted imaging sequence

c. Proton-density imaging sequence

d. subtraction imaging sequence

[image]

The structure represented by number 10 corresponds to the:

a. Medial condyle of the femur

b. Intercondylar eminence

c. Posterior cruciate ligament

d. Medial meniscus

[image]

The structure represented by number 1 corresponds to the:

a. Lateral intercondylar spine

b. Anterior cruciate ligament

c. Vastus lateralis muscle

d. Lateral meniscus

[image]

The insertion of the posterior cruciate ligament to the distal femur is demonstrated at the arrow labeled:

a. Number 3

b. Number 4

c. Number 6

d. Number 8

Which of the following techniques is often applied during a magnetic resonance imaging procedure of the heart to evaluate flow-related

artifacts in the blood vessels?

a. A subtraction technique

b. A multi-filtered technique

c. A gated technique

d. A rapid acquisition technique

A high intraluminal signal from within the jugular vein or dorsal sinus is most often indicative of a/an:

a. Increase blood flow value

b. Obstruction defect in the vessel

c. Reduction in the luminal thickness of the vessel

d. Varicose vessel

A magnetic resonance image of the thoracic spine is obtained using a T1 weighted imaging sequence. All of the following are normally associated with the production of a low-intensity signal EXCEPT:

a. The cortical bone of the vertebral body

b. The intervertebral disks

c. The cancellous bone of the vertebral body

d. The spinal cord

The use of paramagnetic contrast agents in conjunction with a magnetic resonance imaging study is most beneficial for the enhancement of:

a. The structures of the central nervous system

b. Spinal cord compression resulting from disk abnormalities

c. Abdominal cysts and scars

d. Structural abnormalities of the bone or bone-like tissues

[image]

This magnetic resonance image of the left shoulder is best described as a:

a. T1 weighted image

b. T2 weighted image

c. Fat suppression image

d. Contrast-enhanced image

[image]

This magnetic resonance image of the shoulder was obtained in:

a. A coronal plane

b. An axial plane

c. A sagittal plane

d. Off-axial plane

[image]

The structure represented by number 3 corresponds to the:

a. Trapezius muscle

b. Deltoid muscle

c. Biceps muscle

d. Supraspinatus muscle

[image]

The structure represented by number 4 corresponds to the:

a. Acromion process

b. Glenoid process

c. Coracoid process

d. Lesser tuberosity of the humerus

The optimum visualization of the cervical roots within the intervertebral foramina is best demonstrated in a magnetic resonance image obtained in:

a. Coronal section

b. Angled oblique section

c. Parasagittal sections

d. Transverse sections

The principal advantage of magnetic resonance imaging compared to computed tomography

is in its ability to acquired images:

a. With a greater spatial resolution

b. In a shorter period of time

c. That is free of magnification distortion

d. In virtually any imaging plane

Prior to obtaining a magnetic resonance image in the axial plane of the lumbar spine, a localization scan is obtained in the sagittal plane to help produce image sections that are:

a. Perpendicular to the intravertebral foramina

b. Parallel to the vertebral bodies

c. Perpendicular to the intervertebral disks

d. Parallel to the spinal nerves

The longitudinal extent of a lesion or pathological process can be best evaluated on

magnetic resonance images obtained in the:

1. Axial plane

2. Sagittal

3. Coronal plane

a. 1 & 2 only

b. 1 & 3 only

c. 2 & 3 only

d. 1, 2, & 3

The use of magnetic resonance imaging of the hip has proved beneficial for the early detection of an evaluation of:

1. Osteonecrosis

2. Arthritis

3. Joint effusion

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2, & 3

The most common indication of intracranial pathology on magnetic resonance images of the brain obtained in the axial plane is most often a

a. Loss of left-to-right symmetry

b. Loss of echogenicity

c. Uniform gain of signal strength

d. Loss of homogeneity of the gray matter

This magnetic resonance image is best describe as a:

a. Coronal image of the elbow

b. Sagittal image of the knee*

c. Axial images of the hip

d. Off-axial image of the knee

[image]

This magnetic resonance image is best describe as

a:

a. Coronal image of the elbow

b. Sagittal image of the knee

c. Axial images of the hip

d. Off-axial image of the knee

[image]

This magnetic resonance image was most likely acquired using the following imaging parameters:

a. Repetition time of 200 milliseconds and an echo time of 20 milliseconds

b. Repetition time of 400 milliseconds and an echo time of 40 milliseconds

c. Repetition time of 3100 milliseconds and an echo time of 15 milliseconds

d. Repetition time of 4000 milliseconds and an echo time of 50 milliseconds

[image]

On the magnetic resonance image the structure labeled number 1 corresponds to the:

a. Tendon of the quadriceps muscle

b. Anterior cruciate ligament

c. Infrapatellar fat pad

d. Tendon of the semimembranosus muscle

[image]

On the magnetic resonance image the posterior cruciate ligament is labeled:

a. Number 2

b. Number 4

c. Number 5

d. Number 9

Most paramagnetic contrast agents containing gadolinium are associated with:

a. A decrease in the T1 relaxation time of the target tissue

b. An increase in the proton density of surrounding tissues

c. An increase in the T2 relaxation time of the target tissues

d. Little of or change in the factors that affect the intensity of the target tissues

Magnetic resonance imaging of the upper abdomen for the biliary and alimentary tract often provides little additional diagnostic information because of the:

a. A smaller field of view

b. Motion that is present in the region

c. High interference noise produced in the region

d. Chemical shift artifacts formed in the region

Magnetic resonance imaging of the upper abdomen for the biliary and alimentary tract often provides little additional diagnostic information because of the:

a. A smaller field of view

b. Motion that is present in the region

c. High interference noise produced in the region

d. Chemical shift artifacts formed in the region

In a T1 weighted imaging sequence, the high contrast seen on magnetic resonance images of the kidney and urinary bladder are related to:

1. Characteristic of the external tissue layers

2. Presence of urine within the organs

3. The surrounding layer of fat

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 & 3

In a T1 weighted imaging sequence, the high contrast seen on magnetic resonance images of the kidney and urinary bladder are related to:

1. Characteristic of the external tissue layers

2. Presence of urine within the organs

3. The surrounding layer of fat

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 & 3

[image]

The image plane which is best suited for the evaluation of the spinal cord and associated soft tissue structures is the:

a. True axial plane

b. Tilted axial plane

c. Coronal plane

d. Sagittal plane

A magnetic resonance imaging study is to be obtained of the brain. The use of thin continuous section is most often requested for patients with:

a. A sudden loss of memory

b. a sudden loss of visual acuity

c. A suspected acoustic neuroma

d. A suspected gliomas

The dark region appearing on magnetic resonance images made at the level of the great vessels and their entry points with the heart are most often caused by:

a. Flow void artifacts

b. Rephrasing effects

c. Moire effects

d. Parallel ring effects

The structures which are well visualized on magnetic resonance images of the retroperitoneum include:

1. abdominal aorta

2. Inferior vena cava

3. Adrenal glands

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 & 3

During a magnetic resonance imaging of the knee with the patient supine, the anterior cruciate ligament can be placed parallel to the sagittal plane by employing a:

a. 10-15 degree internal rotation

b. 10-15 degree external rotation

c. 25-30 degree internal rotation

d. 45-50 degree external rotation

[image]

This magnetic resonance image is best described as:

a. An axial image of the brain

b. A coronal image of the brain

c. A sagittal image of the brain

d. An oblique image of the brain

[image]

This magnetic resonance image of the brain was obtained using:

a. T1 weighted imaging sequence

b. Magnetic resonance angiographic technique

c. Spectrographic imaging sequence

d. T2 weighted imaging sequence

The pituitary gland is represented by number:

a. 2

b. 4

c. 7

d. 9

[image]

The pituitary gland is represented by number:

a. 2

b. 4

c. 7

d. 9

The structure represented by number 9 corresponds to the:

a. Corpus callosum

b. Lateral ventricle

c. Cerebellum

d. Pons

The majority of the paramagnetic contrast agents used in magnetic resonance imaging are cleared from the body by a process termed:

a. Tubular reabsorption

b. Microvilli absorption

c. Glomerular filtration

d. Interstitial filtration

The natural contrast demonstrated on all magnetic resonance images of the pelvis is in large

part due to the:

a. Perivisceral fat of the bowel and pelvic organs

b. Tissues characteristics of intrapelvic lesions

c. High fluid content of the pelvic structures

d. Cancellous and cortical bone

During magnetic resonance imaging of the orbit, optimum images are obtained when the:

a. Eye continuously remains in motion

b. The eye is focused on a single direction

c. Eyes are rotated in a circular pattern

d. Eyelid are opened and closed

During magnetic resonance imaging of the orbit, optimum images are obtained when the:

a. Eye continuously remains in motion

b. The eye is focused on a single direction

c. Eyes are rotated in a circular pattern

d. Eyelid are opened and closed

Magnetic resonance imaging is performed using a focus or surface coils. These are most

often used to enhance the spatial resolution of the image acquired using short TR/TE spin

echo sequences for all the following EXCEPT:

a. Thorax

b. Shoulder

c. Knee

d. Pelvis

Improved visualized of the pre-epiglottic space and anterior commissure on a magnetic resonance image of the brain is obtained in the:

a. Coronal plane

b. Axial plane

c. sagittal plane

d. Off-axial plane

[image]

This magnetic resonance image of the brain was obtained in a/an:

a. Coronal plane

b. Axial plane

c. Sagittal plane

d. Off-axial plane

[image]

This magnetic resonance of the brain image was most likely acquired using the following imaging parameters:

a. Repetition time 600 milliseconds and an echo time 30 milliseconds

b. Repetition time 1000 milliseconds and an echo time 40 milliseconds

c. Repetition time 800 milliseconds and an echo time 15 milliseconds

d. Repetition time 2000 milliseconds and an echo time of 800 milliseconds

[image]

The choroid plexus which is responsible for the production of cerebrospinal fluid is labeled:

a. Number 1

b. Number 4

c. Number 6

d. Number 8

[image]

The structure represented by number 3 corresponds to the:

a. Medulla oblongata

b. Thalamus

c. Corpus callosum

d. Pons

Magnetic resonance images of the brain are to be obtained using a series of coronal sections. Which of the following planes transects the paracentral lobule, cingulate gyrus, posterior lateral ventricle, and temporal lobe?

a. Mid-thalamic plane

b. Mid-frontal plane

c. Orbital plane

d. The plane of the pineal body

The normal imaging planes obtained during a magnetic resonance image of the knee to

evaluate the soft tissues damage will normally include:

1. Sagittal planes

2. Axial planes

3. Coronal planes

a. 1 & 2 only

b. 1 & 3 only

c. 2 & 3 only

d. 1,2 & 3

During a magnetic resonance imaging study of the brain, particular attention to the anterolateral surface of the frontal lobe should be made in a patient experiencing:

a. An intermittent loss in their hearing

b. A loss of equilibrium

c. A disturbance in their speech

d. A disturbance in their vision

The low-intensity signal from the cerebral spinal fluids within the ventricles of the brain is normally the results  of:

a. An inversion recovery artifacts

b. A flow void artifacts

c. A paramagnetic artifacts

d. A recoil echo artifacts

During a magnetic resonance imaging procedure the use of a whole volume quadrative(saddle) coil has shown to be beneficial for the improved visualization of the structure in the:

a. Upper abdominal cavity

b. Shoulder and the knee

c. The lower abdominal cavity and pelvis

d. The cervical region of the spine

This magnetic resonance of the lumbar spine was acquired in the:

a. Axial plane

b. Sagittal plane

c. Coronal plane

d. Off-axial plane

[image]

This magnetic resonance image was obtained using a 1-tesla unit. This image was most likely acquired using the following parameters:

a. A repetition time of 2000 milliseconds and an echo time of 20 milliseconds

b. A repetition time of 2000 milliseconds and an echo time of 40 milliseconds

c. A repetition time of 1500 milliseconds and an echo time of 80 milliseconds

d. A repetition time of 500 milliseconds and an echo time of 20 milliseconds 

[image]

The structure represented by number 3 corresponds to the:

a. Vertebral foramen

b. Spinalis muscle

c. Conus medullaris

d. Vertebral body

[image]

The intervertebral disk corresponds to:

a. Number 1

b. Number 2

c. Number 3

d. Number 5

a. Number 1

During a magnetic resonance imaging study of the thoracic or lumbar spine, a field of view better approximating the region of interest can be accomplished by the placement of the planar

surface coil:

a. With its long axis parallel to the spine

b. With its long axis perpendicular to the spine

c. With its long axis oblique to the spine

d. With its long axis tangent to the spine

Prior to a magnetic resonance imaging study of the female pelvis, the administration of 

glucagon can be useful to:

a. Reduce the superimposition of overlaying structures

b. Reduce the production of flow void artifacts

c. Eliminate residual fluid from the urinary bladder

d. Reduce peristalsis in the bowel

During MR imaging of the head what structure is likely to demonstrate using a series

of coronal slices that extend from the anterior to posterior clinoid process:

a. The pituitary gland

b. The Circle of Willis

c. The internal auditory canals 

d. Ocular mass lesion

MR imaging of the tissues of the neck should be obtained for all of the following EXCEPT:

a. The staging of laryngeal carcinomas

b. The assessment salivary gland neoplasms

c. Assessment od paraphryngeal masses

d. The evalation of brain stem tumors

During MR imaging of the cervical spine, the administration of a paramagnetic contrast agent

is likely to enhance all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Postsurgical scar tissue

b. Recurrent disk disease

c. Metastatic lesion

d. Multiple sclerosis plaques

The lower signal intensity associated with long echo time (TE) is likely to result in all the following EXCEPT:

a. A higher spatial resolution

b. A higher amount of image graininess

c. A lower signal intensity

d. A lower signal-to-noise ratio

The introduction of paramagnetic substances such as gadolinium on MR images of the brain are often used to enhance:

a. Active hemorrhages

b. Meningiomas

c. Subdural hematomas

d. Hydrocephalus

In addition to its effects on the contrast of the image, the repetition time (TR) during MR imaging, is most closely related to a/an:

a. Increase in the thickness of the slice

b. Modification to the orientation of the images plane

c. Reduction in the acquisition time

d. Increase in the field of view

The minimum echo time(TE) used for most modern MR imaging studies is in the range of:

a. 3-5 milliseconds

b. 5-15 milliseconds

c. 30-40 milliseconds

d. 50-70 milliseconds

A 90° radiofrequency (RF) pulse derives its names from the:

a. The direction of the emission pulse relative to the main magnet

b. Number of degrees of the field

c. Frequency of the pulse that is required to tilt a given hydrogen atom

d. Degree of tilting the pulse causes in the precessing protons

Each slice of the MR image consists of a series of volume elements called:

a. Voxels

b. Pixels

c. Matrices

d. Vectors

Which of the following tissues is most often associated with a high signal intensity and a shortened T1 relaxation time during both T1 and T2 MR images?

a. Cortical bone

b. The spinal cord

c. Fat or cholesterol

d. Cerebral fluid

A kinematic(cine)MR study in which multiple MR images are obtained and displayed in rapid

succession is most often used to:

a. Provided a 3-Dimensional image of the abdomen

b. Resemble the phases of respiration

c. Demonstrate the speed of blood flow

d. Resemble the motion of a joint

The intensity value of a pixel in an MR image display is dependent upon the:

a. Signal intensity from the entire voxel

b. Signal intensity from filtered voxels

c. Signal intensity from multiple voxels

d. The thickness of the tissue volume

Which of the following is the most likely value for a long echo time?

a. 10 milliseconds

b. 500 milliseconds

c. 100 milliseconds

d. 30 milliseconds

Which of the following is an MR imaging technique that can be used to determine the relative quantity of a chemical substance in a given volume of tissue?

a. Magnetic resonance spectrography

b. Magnetic resonance subtraction

c. Phase-contrast magnetic resonance

d. Temporal flow magnetic resonance

Which of the following represents the correct sequence for an end spin echo pulse sequence?

1. Signal measurement

2. 180-degree pulse

3. 90-degree pulse

a. 123

b. 213

c. 321

d. 132

During an MR imaging procedure, a high contrast low grain image is normally associated with all following EXCEPT:

a. A lower signal-to-noise ratio and lower field strength

b. Lower field strength and longer bandwidth

c. A lower radiofrequency pulses

d. Higher field strength and shorter bandwidth

The slowing in the velocity of the arterial blood flow during the production of flow sensition images during MR angiography is most often accomplished by:

a. Gating of the pulses to the diastolic phase

b. Reduction of the cardiac flow rate

c. Slowing the contraction rate of the heart

d. The administration of beta-blocking drugs

The principal reason that the T2 signal must be detected a short time after the 90-degree pulse is turned off is:

1. Noise levels tend to increase with time

2. Signal intensity decreases with time

3. Transverse magnetization increases within 80 milliseconds of the pulse

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 1,2&3

When the protons densities of tissue are nearly equal, the highest intensity signals are normally

detected from the substances with:

a. Short T1 times

b. Long T1 times

c. Greatest tissue movement

d. Shortest T2 times

All of the following images or equipment controls must be available to the operator of an MR imaging

unit EXCEPT:

a. The slice thickness

b. The imaging plane orientation

c. The size of the image matrix

d. The main magnet power control

The changes in the signal intensity due to different locations of the echos from moving tissue is termed the:

a. Gating time effect

b. Doppler effect

c. Time-of-flight effect

d. Spin echo effect

The signal intensity of the T2 curve is most closely related to the energy exchange between protons called transverse relaxation and is most dependent upon the:

a. Electron density of the matter

b. Chemical environment of the tissue

c. Nuclear stability of the tissue

d. Physical density of the tissue

Which of the following flip angles is associated with the release of the least amount of transverse magnetization?

a. 180 degrees

b. 90 degrees

c. 60 degrees

d. 30 degrees

During a spin echo pulse sequence, a 180° pulse that is applied a short time after the 90° pulse will serve to:

a. Compensate for non-uniformities in the protons release of transverse magnetism

b. Reverse the spin of the nuclear protons and release longitudinal magnetism

c. Initiate protons to come into phase and release longitudinal magnetism

d. Enable protons to regain their phase and recover transverse magnetization

d. Enable protons to regain their phase and recover transverse magnetization

After the raw data has been manipulated to form the computer-constructed images this information is most often stored on:

a. Magnetic tapes or optical disks

b. Integrated circuits chips

c. Liquid crystal storage systems

d. Luminescent crystals

The principal advantage of an MR angiography compared to radiographic angiography techniques

is that the:

a. MR imaging techniques are less expensive

b. MR imaging techniques have a higher spatial resolution

c. MR imaging techniques provide for an improved vessel selectivity

d. MR imaging techniques are non-invasive

d. MR imaging techniques are non-invasive

A decrease in the spatial resolution of the MR image due to increase in the field of view(FOV) is most often 

associated with:

a. An increase in the size of the pixels

b. A decrease in the signal-to-noise ratio

c. An increase in the size of the matrix

d. A decrease in the size of the monitor

The process by which a staggered pulse sequence is employed to shorten the imaging time of a given region is called:

a. Flip angle imaging

b. Multislice imaging

c. Gradient echo imaging

d. Gated imaging

A 180°-190° inversion recovery pulse pair is most often employed for the production of a/an:

a. Multi-slice decay signal

b. Reynold's decay signal

c. Free induction decay signal

d. Inter-pulse decay signal

The bandwidth of the radiofrequency (RF) pulse for a given field strength of an MR image is most closely related to the:

a. Length of the image acquisition

b. Strength of the field

c. Repetition time of the sequence

d. Thickness of the slice

In a spin echo technique, the time between the initial 90° pulse and terminal 180° pulse is called:

a. Echo time (TE)

b. Inversion time (TI)

c. Repetition time (TR)

d. Spin time (TS) 

During MR angiography, the suppression of static (non-moving) tissues is most often accomplished by the use of:

a. Subtraction techniques

b. Registration averaging

c. Gradient reversal techniques

d. Flow compensation

[image]

Which of the following images of the spine was acquired using a longer echo time (TE)

a. Image 1

b. Image 2

[image]

The image represented by number 2 can best be described as a:

a. T1 weighted image

b. Proton density

c. T2 weighted image

d. Spectrographic image

Time-of-flight effects are primarily dependent upon:

a. Metabolism of glucose by liver

b. Absorption of fluids by the villi

c. Peristalsis of the GI tract organs

d. Movement of the blood within the vessel

The contrast produced during a heavy T! weighted sequence using a short echo time (TE) and short

repetition time (TR) is inversely related to the:

a. TE/T1 ratio

b. T2/TR ratio

c. TR/T1 ratio

d. T2/TE ratio

How many 180° RF pulses are used during each TR period in a signal-slice GRASE sequence which collects 4 spin echoes each surrounded by 8 gradient echoes:

a. 4

b. 8

c. 16

d. 32

Using a spin-echo pulse sequence which generates two echoes, imagine a hypothetical tissue in which the protons never experience spin-spin interactions. How does the signal from the first echo compare to the signal from the second echo?

a. Its frequency is higher

b. Its frequency is lower

c. It is the same size

d. It is smaller in size

[image]

In the image, which arrow is pointing at the ulna:

a. a

b. b

c. c

d. d

Which of these flow effects cause an increase in signal intensity?

1. Entry phenomenon

2. Even echo rephasing

3. Diastolic pseudogating

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2, and 3

d

All of these flow effects exhibit increased signal intensity 

What is another name for thermal relaxation?

a. Spin-lattice relaxation

b. Spin-spin relaxation

c. Spin density relaxation

d. None of the above

a

T1 relaxation hastens with Brownian motion therefore thermal relaxation is sometimes used to describe spin-lattice relaxation

What is the scan time of a dual contrast spin echo pulse sequence with a TR of 2500 msec, 150 phase steps in the matrix and 1 signal averages:

a. 3.65 minutes

b. 4,27 minutes

c. 6.25 minutes

d. Not enough information is given

The advantages of rapid scanning techniques include all the following except:

a. Improved patient comfort

b. The possibility of producing subtracted images

c. Reduction of patient motion

d. The possibility of dynamic imaging

Which image weighting is likely to occur from the use of a 2000 millisecond (long) repetition time (TR) and a minimal (20 millisecond) echo time (TE)?

a. Spin-lattice relaxation (T1)

b. Spin-spin relaxation (T2)

c. Proton density

d. Reverse spin density

Which of the following statements is true of three-dimensional Fourier transform (3-DFT) image acquisition compared to a two-dimensional Fourier transform?

a. Data is acquired from the entire imaging volume

b. The pulse repetition time is lengthened

c. A narrow-banded excitation pulse is employed

d. Image resolution is substantially improved

which of the following is the example of an inversion recovery (IR) spin echo sequence?

a. 90°pulse - 180°pulse - 180°pulse

b. 90°pulse - 90°pulse - 90°pulse

c. 180°pulse - 90°pulse - 180°pulse

d. 180°pulse - 90°pulse - 90°pulse

Calculate the total scan time for an image obtained using a repetition time (TR) of 1000 milliseconds, 128 lines and 3 excitations.

a. 6.4 minutes

b. 4.2 minutes

c. 2.1 minutes

d. 1 minutes

a. 6.4 minutes

The first step in the production of MR angiographic image is a projection image which can be obtained from a:

a. Single thin slices 2-DFT image

b. Single thick 3-DFT

c. Background suppressed (subtraction) image

d. Flow-sensitive (gated) image

The human eye is most likely to detect a substantial loss of contrast on MR images obtained at:

a. High signal-to-noise levels and higher field strengths

b. High signal-to-noise levels and shorter radiofrequency bandwidth

c. Shorter radiofrequency bandwidth and lower field strengths

d. Lower signal-to-noise levels and higher radiofrequency bandwidth

Flow sensitization in MR angiography can be improved by all the following EXCEPT:

a. Gating techniques

b. Pulse averaging

c. Phase shifting

d. Time of flight techniques

A heavily weighted spin-spin relation or T2 image can be obtained by which of the following repetition and echo time combinations?

a. 2000 millisecond TR and a 20 millisecond TE

b. 300 millisecond TR and a 20 millisecond TE

c. 2000 millisecond TR and a 70 millisecond TE

d. 800 millisecond TR an a 40 millisecond TE

The signal-to-noise ratio in a given pixel is proportional to all the following EXCEPT:

a. Volume of the voxels used in the image display

b. Square root of the number of excitations

c. Square root of the number of radiofrequency pulse

d. Square root of the number of phase encoding projections

A shortening of the echo sampling time and an increase in the T1 weighting is associated with

a. An increased image contrast

b. An increased image noise

c. An increased spatial resolution

d. An increased field of view

A large volume excitation pulse in conjunction with a shortened repetition pulse is most commonly

used in the acquisition of:

a. Any image plane

b. Large field of view images

c. Multiple slice reconstruction

d. Multi-planer images

The excitation of tissues outside the slice of tissue can result in crosstalk and the perception that the thickness of the slice has been increased. This effect is most easily avoided by the use of:

a. Magnetic collimators

b. Separations of gaps between the slices

c. Surfaces coils

d. Reductions in the thickness of the slices

The T2 is defined as the time it takes to decrease the transverse magnetism to:

a. 17% of its original value

b. 37% of its original value

c. 63% of its original value

d. 79% of its original value

During an inversion recovery sequence the signal intensity is most closely related to the:

a. T1 relaxation

b. T2 relaxation

c. Proton density

d. Spin density

In order to provide reduced motion in cardiac studies, the images are gated to each heartbeat.

The trigger is normally the:

a. End of the respiratory cycle

b. Systolic pulse of the brachial artery

c. R wave of the EKG

d. Middle of the QRS complex

What is the maximum number of slices permitted for a spin echo sequence with a repetition time of 500 milliseconds and an echo time of 50 milliseconds? Assuming a 10 millisecond constant.

a. 6

b. 12

c. 16

d. 20

Pertaining to the information in question 126, what slice thickness should be selected if the entire organ of interest measures 23 centimeters?

a. 1 centimeter slices

b. 1.5 centimeter slices

c. 2 centimeter slices

d. 4 centimeter slices

The main advantage of an MR imaging compared to either conventional radiography or computed

tomography is a/an:

a. Higher spatial resolution

b. Improve low contrast resolution

c. Reduced image magnification

d. Reduced patient motion

All of the following image parameters will have an effect on the spatial resolution of an MR image EXCEPT:

a. The size of the image matrix

b. The field of view

c. The gradient field strength

d. The time of flight

During MR imaging a repetition of the imaging sequence and/or the averaging of the signals are most often used to:

a. Increase the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)

b. Improve spatial resolution

c. Decrease the signal intensity

d. Suppress background signal

Which of the following statements is true concerning the effects of echo time (TE) between tissues possessing T2 and short T2 values?

a. T2 contrast is maximized at a short echo time (TE)

b. The signal-to-noise ratio is highest with a long time (TE)

c. T2 contrast is maximized at a long echo time (TE)

d. T2 has little effect on the appearance of different tissues

A decrease in the bandwidth of the radiofrequency (RF) pulse during the acquisition of an MR image is likely to result in:

a. An increase in the signal-to-noise ratio

b. An increase in the field of view

c. An increase in the images acquisition time 

d. A reduction in the number of image artifacts

During an MR imaging procedure, when the strength of the gradient field is low, an artifact between fat and water may occur.  This is referred to as:

a. An intensity coefficient artifact

b. A chemical shift artifact

c. A hydrodynamic artifact

d. A signal averaging artifact

All of the following are classified as interpulse delay times of a spin echo sequence EXCEPT:

a. Subversion time (TS)

b. Repetition time (TR)

c. Inversion time (TI)

d. Echo time (TE)

What is the minimum repetition time(TR) that would be required for a gated cardiac magnetic imaging procedure for a patient that has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute?

a. 50 milliseconds 

b. 250 milliseconds

c. 500 milliseconds

d. 1000 milliseconds

The recommended dosage of gadoteridol or gadopentetate dimeglumine injections is:

a. .1 mmol/kg (.2 ml/kg)

b. .5 mmol/kg (1 ml/kg)

c. 1 mmol/kg (2 ml/kg)

d. 3 mmol/kg (6 ml/kg)

MR imaging for the central nervous system is normally superior to computed tomographic images for the diagnosis of:

a. Neoplastic lesions

b. Arteriovenous malformations

c. Inflammatory conditions

d. Acute hemorrhage

Calculate the pixel size for a 10-centimeter field of view and a 256x256 image matrix

a. 6.5 millimeters

b. 13 millimeters

c. 25.6 millimeters

d. 39 millimeters

All magnetic fields are to some extent non-uniform. Which of the following devices can be used to increase this uniformity?

a. Shim coils

b. Whole volume coils

c. Surface coils

d. Quadrature coils

In the vast majority of modern MR imaging units, the main magnetic field is provided by:

a. Resistive magnets

b. Permanent magnets

c. Superconducting magnets

d. Electrothermal magnets

The spinning of the proton in the hydrogen nucleus is the most closely related to the:

a. Generation of radiofrequencies (RF) pulses by the atom

b. Generation of time-varying magnetism in the atom

c. Generation of magnetism or magnetic moments by the atom

d. Generation of electromagnetic disturbances in the atom

c. Generation of magnetism or magnetic moments by the atom

During an MR imaging procedure, in order for the tissues to be magnetized in the longitudinal direction, the main magnetic field should be aligned with the:

a. Long axis of the patient (Z-axis)

b. Transverse axis of the patient (X-axis)

c. Axial axis of the patient (Y-axis)

d. Oblique place of the patient (O-axis)

The basic principles of MR were in large part due to research performed by:

a. Faraday and Ohms

b. Edison an Oersted

c. Crick and Watson

d. Bloch and Purcell

The magnetic component of the radiofrequency coils, which provide the means for inducing the magnetic resonance in the tissue, must be capable of producing:

a. A single range of frequencies

b. A narrow range of frequencies

c. A broad range of frequencies

d. Only Lamor frequencies

In a uniform magnetic field the shortening of the echo time (TE) is most commonly associated with production of a:

a. Gyro-magnetic artifact

b. Field-induction decay artifact

c. Precession delay artifact

d. Cross-talk artifact

Which of the following devices is associated with a reduction in the field of view and an improved signal-to-noise ratio during MR imaging?

a. The application of surface coils

b. The use of ferromagnetic shielding coils

c. The application of Lamor frequency enhancers

d. The application of internal magnetic implants

The precession frequency(wobble) of a given atom is related to all the following EXCEPT:

a. The temperature of the atom

b. The number of nuclear protons

c. The strength of the magnetic field

d. The chemical bonding of the atoms

The type of magnetism produced when the net magnetism of the field is modified by a radiofrequency (RF) pulse is termed:

a. Gradient magnetism

b. Transverse magnetism

c. Longitudinal magnetism

d. Alternating magnetism

In a spin echo imaging sequence, the slice selection gradient in a conventional two-dimensional Fourier transform imaging sequence is applied between the:

a. 180°radiofrequency pulses and the 90° radiofrequency pulses

b. 60° radiofrequency pulses and the 90° radiofrequency pulses

c. 90° radiofrequency pulses and the 180°radiofrequency pulses

d. 270°radiofrequency pulses and the 90°radiofrequency pulses

Quadrature coils which are specifically designed to produce a circular polarization of radio waves are commonly employed during an MR imaging  procedure to do all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Decrease the heating in the tissues

b. Focus the radio waves into a thin plane

c. Improve the radiofrequency homogeneity

d. Improve the signal-to-noise ratio

During an MR imaging procedure an axial gradient will tend to:

a. Increase the resonant frequency of the photons nearest the head of the patient

b. Increase the resonant frequency of the photons at the lateral regions of the field

c. Equalize the resonant frequency of the photons at the head and feet of the patient

d. Equalize the resonant frequency of the photons at the front and back of the patient

The movement of a nucleus about its axis in a fashion similar to a spinning top in a strong external magnetic field is termed:

a. Relaxation

b. Parallelism

c. Precession

d. Synchronism

The Larmor equation w=g B_o is used in the determination of the:

a. Direction of the phase pulse

b. T1 relaxation time

c. Transverse relaxation time

d. Precession frequency

During an MR imaging the net magnetic vector is derived from:

a. The K shell electron location in the hydrogen atoms

b. Approximately half of the protons located in the hydrogen atoms

c. A small percentage of the protons located in the hydrogen atoms

d. All the protons located in the hydrogen atoms

An image, that has an area of geometric distortion due to non-uniformities of the magnetic field, is often caused by:

a. Misaligned surface coils

b. Ferromagnetic objects in the field

c. Non-magnetic objects in the field

d. Magnetic anisotropy

During a magnetic resonance imaging procedure the high magnetic field strength is found within the:

a. Main magnetic coils

b. Shim coils

c. Gradient coils

d. Surface coils

Which of the following pathologic conditions is most likely to produce partial volume averaging artifacts on

magnetic resonance image obtained of a coronal image of the spine?

a. Calcified intervertebral disks

b. Rotary or lateral scoliosis

c. Kyphosis or lordosis

d. Spondylolisthesis

The precession frequency for a hydrogen proton (nucleus) in a two-tesla field is about:

a. 84 MHz

b. 63 MHz

c. 42 MHz

d. 21 MHz

During a magnetic resonance imaging procedure, the application of radio waves at the Larmor frequency will result in a processing proton that has an increased amount of:

a. Coherent magnetic and decreased amount of random magnetism

b. Axial magnetism and decreased amount of transverse magnetism

c. Longitudinal magnetism and decreased amount of axial magnetism

d. Transverse magnetism and decreased amount of longitudinal magnetism

During MR imaging the average time it takes for the surrounding molecules to reorient themselves to the 

horizontal magnetic field during spin-lattice relaxation (T1) is strongly dependent upon the:

a. Atomic number of the tissue

b. Size of the molecules in the tissues

c. Electron density of the tissue

d. Binding energy of the atoms in the tissues

Which of the following compounds is normally associated with the shortest T2?

a. Pure liquids

b. Impure solids

c. Pure solids

d. Impure liquids

During an MR imaging study, though the receive only coils do provide for improved uniformity, they will require:

a. Multiple radiofrequencies during transmission to record all signals

b. Radiofrequency filtration circuits to produce uniform signal pulses

c. Decoupling during the transmission of a radiofrequency pulse to avoid damages to coil

d. A reduction in the acquisition rate

The main disadvantage of a superconducting type magnetic resonance unit is its need for:

a. Periodic cryogen replenishment

b. Daily realignment of the phase generator

c. A high-quality external power supply

d. Weekly transformer realignments

During an MR imaging procedure, electronic reorientation of the radio frequency (RF) pulses is most closely related to:

a. The thickness of the tissue section

b. The plane of the tissue that is imaged

c. The direction of the static field

d. The time of the image acquisition

Most patient prior to their placement is a strong magnetic field have a net magnetism of zero because:

a. The body contains few hydrogen nuclei

b. The movements of the tissues cancel the net magnetism

c. Hydrogen nuclei are randomly oriented within the tissues

d. Nuclear spins are apparent only in a strong magnetic field

In MR imaging the terms anti-parallel (spin-up) and anti-parallel (spin down) refer to the:

a. Alignment of the hydrogen nuclei with the external magnetic field

b. Process by which chemical changes effect magnetic changes

c. Random orientation of the tissues within a magnetic field

d. Resonant frequency of the hydrogen nucleus

Which of the following will increase the signal of the spin echo during an MR imaging procedure?

a. The ionization of the hydrogen atom

b. A higher hydrogen or proton density

c. A higher atomic number of the atom

d. The chemical bonding of a compound

During an MR imaging procedure water and other pure liquids are most often associated with a:

a. Short T1 and a short T2

b. Short T1 and a long T2

c. Long T1 and a short T2

d. Long T1 and a Long T2

The loss of the established transverse magnetism when a radiofrequency is turned off is normally measured as an increase in the:

a. Precession frequency

b. External field gradient

c. Longitudinal magnetism

d. Synchronization energy

In a time versus longitudinal magnification plot, the magnetization will increase to a maximum value after the switching off of the radiofrequency pulse. This curve is referred to as the:

a. Spin echo curve

b. Spin-lattice relaxation curve

c. Spin-spin relaxation

d. Spin proton density curve

The signal in an MR imaging system is derived from the moving magnetic fields of precessing protons in phase with each other and the:

a. Electric current generated in the antenna

b. Magnetic disruption of the gradient field

c. Electromagnetic pulse generated in the antenna

d. Secondary magnetism generated in the main magnetic field

The frequency of the MR signal will normally be:

a. Higher than the precession frequency of the hydrogen atom

b. Lower than the precession frequency of the hydrogen atom

c. The same as the precession frequency of the hydrogen atom

d. The same as the precession frequency of the oxygen atom

The ideal surface (local) coil used for an MR imaging procedure should have all the following properties EXCEPT:

a. The surface coil should be about the same size as the structure of interest

b. The surface coil should generate radio waves which are perpendicular to the static field

c. The surface coil should be placed as close to the structure of interest as possible

d. The surface coil should extend beyond the bore of the magnet

The gradient coils which surround the inside bore the main magnet provide magnetic fields which acts:

a. To align the main static magnetic field to the radiofrequency pulses

b. To obtain positional information required for the acquisition of the image

c. As the receiving antenna for the radiofrequency (RF) pulses

d. To redirect the radiofrequency (RF) pulses to the desired anatomic region

The time it takes following the radiofrequency pulse to reduce transverse magnetization in a tissue is known as the:

a. T1 echo-spin redistribution curve

b. T1 echo-echo relaxation curve

c. T2 or spin-echo redistribution curve

d. T2 or spin-spin relaxation curve

The principal effect of a radio frequency pulse on the nuclear photons of the hydrogen atom is the:

a. Cancellation of the net magnetic moments

b. Cessation of the precession frequency

c. Synchronization or phasing of their magnetic vectors

d. Induction of a new electrical field

Spin-lattice relaxation (T1) or the time takes to reorientate to the longitudinal magnetic field, is shortest for:

a. Proteins

b. Deoxyribonucleic acid

c. Albumin

d. Lipids

The frequency of the waves emitted by a tissue following its exposure to a static magnetic field and a radiofrequency pulse in an MR imaging procedure is termed:

a. Resonant magnetic decay

b. Free induction decay

c. Frequency echo decay

d. Lattice gradient decay

Which of the following tissues is most likely to be associated with a short T1?

a. Cardiac muscle

b. Cortical bone

c. Yellow bone marrow

d. Whole blood

Aliasing or the superimposition of reconstruction tissues over the original image is most often seen when:

a. A surface coil is misaligned to the static magnetic field

b. The bandwidth of radiofrequency pulses exceeds recommended limits

c. The concentration of a paramagnetic agent in the target organ is excessively high

d. The structure of interest extends outside of the imaging volume

Which of the following would be a valid reason for using STEAM?

a. Localizing cancers and metastasis in the brain

b. Measuring choline concentration in a small volume

c. Monitoring the effects of ischemia and stroke

d. Tracing out white matter tracts along all three dimensions

How does gadolinium increase contrast in tissues?

a. It decreases the T1 times of tissues

b. It enhances the effects of magnetic inhomogeneities

c. It increases the T2 times of tissues

d. It reduces the proton density of the tissues

What describes the relationship between the strength of the magnetic field, the gyromagnetic ratio, and the precessional frequency?

a. Faraday’s Law

b. Ohm’s Law

c. Quantum Theory

d. The Larmor equation

If the flow velocity is much lower than the VENC set for a PC-MRA, what will happen to the image?

a. The image will demonstrate very slow flows to be stationary

b. The image will have a decreased field-of-view

c. The center of the vessel and the sides of the vessel will have signals of opposite intensities

d. The image will be normal

If the receive bandwidth is increased by a factor of 4, what will happen to the SNR?

a. It decreases by a factor of 4

b. It decreases by a factor of 2

c. It increases by a factor of 2

d. It increases by a factor of 4

Which of the following does NOT involve any post-processing techniques?

a. ADC map

b. Dixon technique

c. FIESTA

d. Maximum intensity projection

K-space is considered to have conjugate symmetry.  This means that a signal which is collected in the top left corner of k-space has a corresponding signal in the __________ of k-space:

a. Bottom left corner

b. Bottom right corner

c. Center

d. Top right corner

What is another name for inversion time?

a. Flip time

b. Relaxation time

c. Saturation time

d. Tau

Which of the following uses a variable flip angle, a spoiler, and a rewinder to create an echo?

a. Single spin echo pulse sequence

b. Dual spin echo pulse sequence

c. Fast spin echo pulse sequence

d. Gradient echo pulse sequence

If two types of tissues are represented within one voxel, their signals are averaged together. What term is used to describe this phenomenon?

a. Chemical pre-saturation

b. Fractional averaging

c. Partial voluming

d. Volume imaging

If a voxel has dimensions of 2x2x2 mm, it is considered to be ________:

a. Rectangular

b. Square

c. Isotropic

d. Anisotropic

Which term describes the maximum strength of a gradient and affects quality of resolution?

a. Rise time

b. Gradient amplitude

c. Bandwidth

d. Duty cycle

Which of the following improves the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) in an RF receiver coil?

a. Using more coils

b. Using larger coils

c. Increasing the distance between the patient and the coil

d. Using less conductive loops of wire for the coil

If only 75% of K space is filled due to fractional averaging, what is the effect on scan time?

a. It is 25% of its original length

b. It is 75% of its original length

c. It is 125% of its original length

d. It is 175% of its original length