2(2). Normal operation of the NTS system does not commit the propeller to feather. However, a malfunctioning NTS system may completely feather the propeller or cause the engine to:

D.  Stall/flameout

3(3). The hydromechanical fuel control senses ________ and varies fuel flow accordingly.

C.  Inlet temperature, inlet pressure altitude, RPM, and throttle position

4(4). The Temperature Datum Control Valve switches lock a fuel correction only when they are positioned at LOCKED/LKD while the:

D.  Throttle is in the temperature controlling range and the fuel correction light is out

5(5). In most cases degradation of an individual thermocouple assembly would affect each circuit equally.  The indicating signal will be lower (_________ degrees C) than that actual temperature experienced by each thermocouple sensing element.

B. 3.5 to 22

6(6). The engine low oil quantity warning light illuminates when an oil tank quantity level drops to approximately:

B. 4 gallons

7(7). The PROPELLER LOW OIL WARNING light and the PROP LOW OIL QUANTITY light will illuminate when the oil quantity for any propeller drops approximately ________ below normal in the pressurized sump.

B. 2 quarts

8(8). Early stage thermocouple decay may be difficult to identify, due to:

D.  No change in TIT and minimal increase in fuel flow and torque

9(9). During the landing approach, ________before the throttles are retarded should give more equal power distribution on all engines.

B.  Locking the TD valve

10(10). In case of power failure, the cross feed valves:

B.  Hold the last energized position

11(11). The fuel low pressure warning light is turned on when fuel supply pressure at the point where fuel enters the engine pump falls below approximately ________ PSI.

A.  8.5

12(12). When operating with less than 6,000 pounds of total fuel in the main fuel tanks:

A.  Place the crossfeed valve switches to OPEN for tanks containing fuel

B.  Place the BOOST PUMP switches to ON for all tanks containing fuel

C.  Place the CROSSFEED SEPARATION valve switch to open

D.  All the above

13(13). The 28 volt external DC source should have a capacity of ________ amperes.

D.  400

14(14). The battery is disconnected from all DC buses except the _______ when external DC power is being used.

A.  Battery bus

15(15). The engine hydraulic pump pressure warning light will illuminate whenever the pump output pressure drops below approximately 1,000 PSI or:

C.  Engine pump switch is placed in the OFF position

16(16). The ADS control panel ramp and door control switch must be set to OFF, and the ramp manual control knob, above the ramp control panel, must be set at the ________ position before operating the pump switch on the ramp control panel.

D.  6N (neutral)

17(17). Prior to raising the ramp, ensure that:

D.  Locks are retracted and the ramp seal area is clear

18(18). If an individual landing gear position indicator becomes inoperative because of a faulty grounding circuit, the warning horn and warning light will indicate the position of:

B.  The other two gears only.

19(19). After any full anti-skid braking operation above 130,000 pounds (aborted takeoff, engine-out/flaps-up landing, etc.), the approximate ground cooling time is ________ minutes.

D.  65

20(20). Elevator trim tab travel is controlled by limit switches set at ________ degrees nose down and ________ degrees nose up.

A.  6/25

21(21). The landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flap lever is retracted above ________ % or more.

C.  70

22(22). When the flight station air conditioning is on, the bleed air pressure indicator reads ________ than the actual pressure in the cross wing manifold.

C.  6 PSI lower

23(23). Cabin differential pressure will be zero for landing.  If the differential pressure is less than ________ Hg, no discomfort will be experienced if the air conditioning master switch is turned to a nonpressure position.

D.  0.5

24(24). When the leading edge temperature reaches approximately ________ the overheat warning light for that area is energized and the light illuminates.

B.  200 degrees F

25(25). Operation of the NESA anti-icing when outside air temperature is above ________ degrees C will increase the possibility of delamination within the NESA panels.

C.  27

26(26). In any airplane configuration that could limit the normal climb capability of the airplane (such as engine out, ramp door open, etc) or operational situation where an RA maneuver is prohibited, the TCAS should be placed in:

C.  TA ONLY

27(27). It is possible for the (TCAS) system to issue a RA advisory command that would put the airplane outside the performance envelope.

A. True

28(28). Ensure that the secure voice system mode switch is in the ________ position to provide normal operation (plain text) of the UHF radio when secure voice is not to be used.

B.  P

29(29). Ensure all personnel are clear of the area between the cargo and the open ramp/door before placing the airdrop/troop jump computer-manual select switch to the:

B.  AD/TJ CMPTR position

C.  TJ-CMPTR AD-MAN position

D.  Both B and C

30(30). The electrical control system of the ramp and door is inactivated when the:

C.  Anchor line support arms are not in the up position

31(31). The LAPES/CDS switches must remain _________ in the NORMAL/OFF (guarded) position except when required to be in ARM for operational check or mission requirements.

D.  Safetied

32(32). When 100 percent oxygen is being supplied, _________ oxygen is consumed per person as altitude ________.

B.  Less/increases

33(33). The AERP system ________ protect the user against ammonia fumes or carbon monoxide gas and _______ be used without an oxygen source in an oxygen deficient atmosphere.

C.  Will not, shall not

34(34). Do not enter/exit from the ________ side of the nose wheel well due to possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen.

D.  Right

35(35). The high pressure of the Halon fire extinguisher can spread a class ________ fire.

A.  A

36(36). Do not operate ________ lights for prolonged periods while the airplane is on the ground.

C.  Landing

37(37). Never intentionally stare into an strobe/Infrared (IR) light source within a distance of ________ feet.

B.  10

38(38). The CVR is operational anytime the ________ bus is powered by any source other than external power.

B.  Essential AC

39(39). With the escape ladder installed, it is impossible to exit the airplane from the center overhead escape hatch using the ________ side of the ladder.

40(40). In emergencies, MIL-L-7808 and MIL-L-23699 may be mixed.  The amount of emergency oil added should not exceed ________ tank capacity.

C.  One-half

41(41). During the BEFORE EXTERIOR INSPECTION and before any electrical power is applied to the airplane, the engineer will:

A.  Ensure that all locking pins are removed from doors and hatches

B.  Check the form 781 

C.  Ensure that all aircraft switches and circuit breakers are in their normal shutdown position

D.  All of the above

42(42). While accomplishing the POWER ON INSPECTION, if a light in the overheat test panel fails to illuminate during testing, bleed air systems:

B.  Should not be pressurized until proper inspection and repairs have been made

43(43). During the POWER ON INSPECTION, movement of the flaps is essential at this time to enable detection of ________ or malfunctions during the walk-around inspection.

C.  Hydraulic leaks

44(44). Do not ________ or open the ground test valve if ramp hydraulic actuators are preloaded or cargo loading operations are in progress.

D.  Deplete hydraulic pressure

45(45). Depletion of the emergency brake hydraulic system pressure with the brake select switch in normal is an indication of a(n) ________ failure.

C.  Emergency brake selector valve

46(46). During EXTERIOR INSPECTION, if not previously checked by maintenance, a work stand/ladder will be required to check:

A.  Engine inlets

B.  Exhaust areas

C.  External tank caps

D.  All of the above

47(47). Quick Don oxygen mask system is the _______ use equipment unless dictated otherwise.

C.  Primary

48(48). After moving the condition lever to ground stop, do not move the lever from this position until ________.

D.  Engine rotation has stopped

49(49). During low air density conditions (high temperature above approximately 28 degrees C/high altitude), if the engine accelerates smoothly with no indication of stall and TIT limits are not exceeded, time to stabilize on speed is ________ seconds.

A.  70

50(50). The throttles must not be moved out of the ________ detent during engine starting.

A.  GROUND IDLE

51(51). During engine start, a positive indication of hydraulic pressure must be observed by:

A.  The time the engine is on speed

52(52). You must have positive oil pressure on the engine and reduction gear by _________ percent rpm, or immediately discontinue the start.

B.  35

53(53). A positive hydraulic pressure indication must be noted by the time the engine is on speed.  Normal operating pressure should be indicated within ________ after on speed.

A.  30 seconds

54(54). If start TIT is less than _________degrees C, record in AFTO Form 781.  Maintenance action is required prior to flight.

C.  720

55(55). If auxiliary feather motor operation is not indicated for a propeller:

C.  The malfunction will be corrected prior to flight

56(56). When down-shifting from normal to low-speed ground idle, the engineer will monitor the engine instruments and be prepared to shut down the engine by placing the condition lever to GROUND STOP if the temperature exceeds ________ degrees C or a stall occurs.

C.  850

57(57). If a stop, sudden or severe braking application has occurred during turns: 

B.  Record in Form 781A

58(58). The use of brakes during reverse taxiing should be ________ to prevent the airplane from setting on the tail.

B.  Avoided

59(59). Do not hold the ice detector TEST switch in the No. 2 or No. 3 position longer than five seconds.  The test cycle may be repeated once, but then wait ________ minutes for the ice detector to cool before performing this test again.

A.  Five

60(60). With engines running, never operate the propeller anti-icing or de-icing system for more than ________ cycles while the airplane is on the ground.

D.  Two

61(61). If the BLADE DE-ICING ammeter falls below________, do not fly into icing conditions.

C.  65 amperes

62(62). Observe engine torque and TIT when placing each ________ switch in the ON position when accomplishing the Before Takeoff checklist.

A.  ENGINE INLET AIR DUCT ANTI-ICING

63(63). Main tank boost pump switches ________ be turned off in-flight unless directed by a specific procedure in the flight manual.

D.  Will not

64(64). Above crossover, if the engine instruments are not similar in ________, with throttles aligned, a propulsion system malfunction may exist.

D.  Fuel flow, TIT, or torque

65(65). If indicated torque exceeds 19,600 inch pounds:

C. An entry in the FORM 781A is required noting the highest torque value observed and

     describing the runway and/or flight conditions

66(66). Never place the throttles in the TAKEOFF position without monitoring the ________, since it is possible to exceed the maximum allowable torque.

B.  Torque meters

67(67). The minimum flap retraction speed for a maximum effort takeoff is:

C.  Obstacle clearance speed plus 10 knots

68(68). For GCAS ESCAPE MANEUVERS; Crewmembers will back up the pilot who is performing the escape maneuver.  The __________ and ____________ the airplane will confirm escape maneuver is being properly flown.

D.  Flight Engineer, Pilot monitoring

69(69). The PF will advise the engineer of the landing field conditions:

C.  when initiating the Descent Checklist

70(70). New TOLD will be required any time gross weight changes 5,000 pounds or more, outside temperature changes ________ degrees C or more, or pressure altitude changes 1,000 feet or more.

D.  5

71(71). Higher than normal ________ system pressure may be encountered in-flight.

B.  Emergency brake

72(72). At high airspeeds, abrupt movement of the throttles into the ground range could result in:

A.  Pitchlock

73(73). The two common types of wind shear phenomena found on final approach are:

A.  Decreasing headwind, increasing headwind

74(74). During landing, at the first indication of directional control difficulties during reversing, immediately:

B.  Return all throttles to GROUND IDLE

75(75). The nose gear must be on the ground prior to _________.

B.  Reversing

76(76). When moving the flaps at low airspeed, an asymmetrical flap may go undetected until near or above ___________.

D.  Takeoff speed

77(77). If a go-around is accomplished, retracting flaps from 100 to 50 percent will:

D.  Increase stall speed

78(78). The flight engineer should monitor engine instruments during shutdown for:

B.  Zero fuel flow and TIT and RPM decrease

79(79). If NTS advisory lights do not illuminate when shutting down engines from low-speed ground idle:

B.  A recheck of the NTS system must be made before the next flight

80(80). Regardless of specific emergency encountered:

A.  Maintain airplane control

B.  Analyze the situation

C.  Take coordinated corrective action

D.  All the above

81(81). When pulling the condition lever to FEATHER, pull it all the way to the detent to assure that the propeller is fully feathered when the engine fuel is shut off.  If the lever is left at a mid-position, and NTS is inoperative, a(n)  

C.  Engine decoupling is possible

82(82). In the event of a throttle control cable failure, ________ attempt to move the condition lever due to the possibility of cable fouling.

C.  DO NOT

83(83). If on cross feed during ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE,  ________ before shutting off the fuel boost pump and closing the cross feed valve for the affected engine.

C.  Ensure source of fuel to operate engines

84(84). If cabin pressure increases at an excessive rate and cannot be reduced by normal means then:

A.    Immediately shut off engine bleed air, one at a time, until the rate of pressure increase is at a safe value

B.    Control pressure by using engine bleed air as necessary to vary the amount of conditioned air

supplied for pressurization                             

C.If necessary for further control when descending, one of the air conditioning systems can be shut down to expedite depressurization of the airplane 

D.  All the above

85(85). If either the left or right wheel well overheat light illuminates after takeoff and the condition persists after isolation procedures have been accomplished, it may be indicative of:

B.  Overheated brakes

86(86). The correct procedure for high TIT on the ground is:

C.  Move affected throttle toward GROUND IDLE, and place the affected engine TD switch toNULL. If condition persist place condition lever to GROUND STOP

87(87). If a tailpipe fire occurs in-flight, follow the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE. If the fire persists:

C.  The airplane should be accelerated as rapidly as possible, not exceeding maximum airspeed

88(88). If a turbine overheat occurs in-flight:

A.    Retard the throttle toward FLIGHT IDLE.  If the condition persists, proceed with the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE

89(89). During GROUND EVACUATION; if pyrotechnics are loaded on the airplane, evacuate a minimum of ______ feet from the airplane.

D.  600

90(90). Do not exceed ________ KIAS with the ramp (or ramp and cargo door) open regardless of whether the paratroop doors are open or closed or the position of the air deflectors.

C.  150

91(91). Maximum airspeed with the paratroop doors open and locked is:

A.  250 KIAS

92(92). If parking brake handle does not properly retract and requires additional force to fully seat:

D.  Document in Form 781

93(93). If aborting for a propeller malfunction or any other malfunction which could result in asymmetric power causing directional control problems when the throttles are placed in the ground range, shut down the affected engine while throttle is in:

A.  FLIGHT IDLE

94(94). For malfunctions which result in asymmetric thrust, the airplane will attempt to ________ the malfunctioning power plant during airplane acceleration.

B.  Turn toward

95(95). For a takeoff continued after engine failure, flap retraction should be accomplished in ______ percent increments with airspeed increasing approximately ________ knots between retraction increments.

C.  10, 5

96(96). In all combinations of two engine failures, monitor ________ to keep it within the range of available output.

D.  Generator loading

97(97). Two-engine operation above ________ pounds gross weight or at high density altitude is marginal.

C.  120,000

98(98). If a propeller malfunction occurs after refusal speed and there is no indication of fire, it is recommended that the engine be allowed to run until at least ________ is reached.

B.  Two-engine inoperative air minimum control speed

99(99). During pitchlocked propeller operation, the engine should be shutdown when:

A.  Reaching 150 KTAS

B.  96% RPM cannot be maintained with the throttles

C.  Reaching a suitable landing area

D.  All of the above

100(100). If a propeller fails to feather in flight, it is critical to restore oil to the ________ of the windmilling propeller as soon as possible.

C.  Reduction gearbox

101(101). For PROPELLER BRAKE FAILURE; if the propeller does counter-rotate, and the procedures are ineffective:

B.  Land as soon as practical

102(102). If throttle control cable failure is suspected, do not move the throttle prior to engine shutdown. To do so could cause:

D.  The propeller to go into reverse pitch or to full power

103(103). Any time an IGNITION CONTROL circuit breaker is pulled on an inboard engine, the ________ for that engine is inoperative.

D.  Ice detection system

104(104). A sheared shaft on the speed sensitive control with the throttle above 65 degrees travel may be indicated by:

A.  Momentary illumination of the SECONDARY FUEL PUMP PRESSURE light

B.  ELECTRONIC FUEL CORRECTION light

C.  TIT will not exceed start limiting temperature of 830 degrees C

D.  All the above

105(105). In case of loss of oil pressure:

B.  Shut down the engine by using ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE

106(106). Following a negative G condition, closely monitor gearbox and engine oil pressure for ________.

D.  Two minutes

107(107). A negative G condition may allow air to enter the engine oil supply line resulting in a loss of oil pressure approximately ________ later due to oil pump cavitation.

C.  30 to 90 seconds

108(108). If a Tachometer Generator Failure occurs on the engine selected as the master engine, first:

B.  Place the synchrophaser master switch to OFF/other master

109(109). When operating in tank-to-engine position with an inoperative fuel boost pump, avoid:

C.  Rapid acceleration or nose low attitudes

110(110). Do not select ________ unless the crossfeed system is pressurized by operating fuel boost pumps in other tanks.

A.  Crossfeed

111(111). After confirmed fuel pump failure, fuel boost pump circuit breakers may be reset and the pump operated only:

B.  To prevent fuel starvation when a landing cannot be accomplished within the range of  

     available fuel

112(112). Malfunctioning fuel quantity indicators may be removed or changed in-flight provided they are switched:

B.  Fuel quantity indicators will not be removed or changed in-flight

113(113). Prior to performing any procedure which involves removing all AC power:

C.  Configure the fuel system for tank to engine operation

114(114). Failure of the reverse current relay connecting the essential and isolated DC bus will be indicated by:

D.  Illumination of the ISOL DC ON BATT/BAT DSCH light and/or a battery voltmeterindication of 24 volts or less

115(115). Because of the important part electrical controls play in the operation of this airplane, electrical power should be shut off until the pilot is certain that it is, or will be a contributing factor to smoke or fire, and that loss of electrical controls will be a greater hazard than the smoke or fire.

B.  False

116(116). If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete the FUSELAGE FIRE/SMOKE AND FUME ELEMINATION procedure should:

C.  Not be turned on or off until the fumes are eliminated

117(117). Smoke developed in the cargo compartment ________ move forward into the flight station.  The hatch ________ be opened to effectively eliminate smoke and fumes during all elimination emergencies.

B.  Will/must

118(118). If an in-flight door warning occurs and it cannot be determined what caused the door light to illuminate, the flight ________ at the discretion of the pilot (below the point where the light illuminates and with all personnel secured with safety belts).

B.  May be continued with partial pressurization

119(119). If the inner and outer panes of a flight deck windshield should crack in-flight, reduce the cabin pressure to ___________.

D.  10 inches or less

120(120). In the event that utility or boost hydraulic pressure in excess of 3,450 psi is indicated:

B.  Do not turn off the individual hydraulic pump switches

121(121). If elevator control should fail (hydraulic assistance is lost), achieve approximately level flight and ________ KIAS and land with 50% flaps recommended.

C.  170

122(122). If movement of the flaps, after an outboard flap failure, must be attempted, return them in increments of ________ toward the position last selected before failure.  During flap movement, check aileron control ________.

D.  10 percent/constantly

123(123). Protection against asymmetrical operation is provided only during ________ hydraulic flap operation.

A.  Normal

124(124).  ________ take-off with a known or suspected landing gear malfunction.

B.  Do not attempt a

125(125). If the landing gear selector valve DOWN button requires holding to lower the gear, hydraulic pressure will not be available for:

B.  Nose wheel steering

126(126). For Manual Gear Extension, make sure the ratchet on the hand crank is set for ______ rotation before placing it on the emergency extension stub shaft.

A.  Down

127(127). The order of preference of bailout exits are:

A.  Cargo door and ramp, paratroop doors and forward crew door

128(128). Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at airspeeds above ________ knots, with the landing gear extended, or without a helmet.

A.  150

129(129). When landing with two engines inoperative, a go-around is not recommended:

B.  After the flaps are lowered

130(130). When Ditching, the severity of fuselage structural damage or failure depends on sea conditions and aircraft ___________ upon touchdown.

D.  Speed/descent rate

131(131). If a decision is made by the pilot to ditch the airplane then a minimum of ________ pounds of fuel should remain at time of descent from altitude.

C.  2,000

132(132). Negative thrust from propeller(s) retarded to the FLIGHT IDLE position will produce _____ drag than a feathered or windmilling propeller and _________ air minimum control speeds for the condition.

C.  More, increase

133(133). If NTS is not indicated during an airstart, interruption of the start cycle after light off by an attempt to feather before the engine has reached a stabilized speed may result in:

C.  Decoupling and severe over speed

134(134). Ensure INU power switch has been off for more than ________ seconds before turning SCNS power switch OFF.

B.  10

135(135). When oil temperature exceeds ________ degrees C. for any time duration, an entry will be made in the Form 781 to include duration and temperature.

D.  100

136(136). Normal limits for AC voltage:

D.  110 to 125 Volts

137(137). Power section oil pressure up to ________ PSI is allowable during start and warm-up.

D.  100

138(138). Normal limit for the cabin differential gage:

C.  - 1.2 to 15.8 In. Hg

139(139). The external fuel tank fuel boost pump pressure limits are ________ PSI.

B.  28 to 40

140(140). The normal limits on the DC voltmeter are ________ volts.

D.  25-30

141(141). In case of emergency, oxygen usage may be continued until:

D.  System is empty

142(142). The maximum nose wheel turn limit for an airplane that exceeds 155,000 LBS gross weight is ________ degrees.

A.  20

143(143). During propeller reversing check, if symmetrical torque differences are ________ inch pounds or more, record in AFTO Form 781.

C.  1,000

144(144). With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is ________ G in unsymmetrical maneuvers.

B.  1.5

145(145). Secondary fuel management will shorten the service life of the wings and should be avoided unless necessary for mission accomplishment.  This becomes more critical when:

A.  Operating near the gross weight limit for an applicable maneuver

B.  When carrying more than approximately 10,000 lbs of cargo

C.  Operating near the gross weight for an applicable speed

D.  All of the above

146(146). Maximum effort operations with airplane configuration (fuel, cargo, etc.) that necessitate 300 FPM rate-of-sink should be restricted to wartime operation only. To perform during peacetime will require ________ approval.

D.  Major Air Command

147(147). Under stable conditions, allowable oil pressure fluctuation is _________ psi (_________ psi excursion) for the power section.

B.  +/- 10 psi/20 psi

148(148). Normal speed ground idle RPM limits are ________ percent.

D.  94-102

149(149). Reduction gearbox oil pressure is allowed to go below ________ PSIG when RPM is below 100 percent if 150 PSIG can be maintained at 100 percent RPM with oil temperature normal.

C.  150

150(150). If start TIT is between 720-750 degrees C:

A.  Record in Form 781and perform a temperature controlling check IAW section 1B

151(151). If the feather override button fails to pop out within 6 seconds after the propeller is feathered: 

B.  Pull it out manually to shut off the pump. Maintenance action is required prior to flight

152(152). Allowable propeller fluctuations are:

B.  Plus/minus 0.5% either side of a stable RPM for a total of 1%

153(153). Raising of the flaps is permissible during stall recovery to decrease drag and assist in the recovery.

B.  False

154(154). Fin stall can occur at all speeds between stall speed and approximately ________ KIAS in all flap configurations with power________.

D.  170/ON

155(155). The recommended airspeed for penetration into thunderstorms is:

C.  65 knots above power-off stall speed not to exceed 180 KIAS

156(156). Cold weather procedures are generally considered to be applicable when the temperature is ________ and below.

B.  32 degrees F

C.  0 degrees C

D.  Both B and C

157(157). Starts in cold weather conditions may result in start TIT less than normal starting limits.  If all engine starts are similar in TIT:

A.  Consider this a normal start, no further action is required

158(158). ________ should be on during takeoff and climb if temperature is 32 degrees F or lower and any visible moisture is present.

D.  B and C.

159(159). In accordance with desert procedures; when propeller reversing is used during landing, start moving the throttles from MAXIMUM REVERSE to GROUND IDLE at approximately ________ KIAS and have the throttles at GROUND IDLE by the time 40 KIAS is reached.

A.  60

160(160). Takeoff run is ________ and rate of climb decreased in high temperatures.

C.  Considerably increased

161(161). In accordance with hot weather procedures, during descent (for landing) below ________ feet, manually open the oil cooler flaps and place the switches to the FIXED position.

            C.  15,000

162(162). As soon as the airplane is parked during hot weather, chock wheels and ________ in order to avoid possible damage to brake components from excessive heat generated while taxiing.

B.  Release brakes

163(163). Take-Off factor combines the parameters of:

B.  Torque, field pressure altitude, runway temperature, TIT, and engine efficiency

164(164). When the crosswind component and_____________ fall within the caution area, the take-off or touchdown speed should be increased until the recommended area is reached or until the aircraft speed has been increased by 10 knots.

B.  Normal take-off or touchdown speed

165(165). For Refusal Speed, in the event of an engine failure, the options available are based on ________.

A.  Vmcg, Vr, and Vcef

166(166). When corrected refusal speed exceeds take-off speed, use _________.

D.  Take-off speed for refusal speed

167(167). When computing climb-out performance, a headwind ________used for obstacle clearance, but the tailwind component ________ used to determine an effective obstacle distance.

C.  is not / is

168(168). The RCR factor ________ affect the 4-engine climbout, but ________ affect the 3-engine climbout.

A.  does not / does

169(169). For normal take-off, rotation speed is _________ than take-off speed to be used.

C.  5 KIAS less

170(170). If headwinds of more than 70 knots are encountered, increasing the cruise TAS by _________ knots for every _________ knots above 70 knots headwind will result in operating the airplane near the maximum nautical miles per pound of fuel.

A.  4/10

171(171). ________ is operation at the speed which results in the minimum fuel flow for the given configuration, altitude, temperature, and gross weight.

C.  Maximum endurance

172(172). When landing with one or two engines inoperative, it is recommended that the in-flight ________ be compared to the ________ and the higher speed be used for approach.

B.  Minimum control speed/recommended approach speed

173(173). Take-off and immediate landing data for the departure airfield will be completed prior to ________.  The destination landing data will be computed prior to the completion of ________.

D.  Take-off/DESCENT checklist

174(174). Temperature and pressure altitude should be obtained from __________.

A.  ATIS

  B.  Tower

                 C.  Weather briefing

                  D.  All of the above

175(175). Which of the following information is obtained from the FLIP?

C.  Runway heading, obstacle height and distance, climb gradients, and slope

176(176). When completing the AIRCAT Flight Data Worksheet, initial takeoff time is when aircraft:

C.  Begins to move forward on takeoff roll

177(177). When throttles are placed in ground range, record landing as a(n) ________ regardless of indicated airspeed on the AIRCAT Flight Data Worksheet.

D.  Stop-and-Go (SG)

178(178). If, at any time during a flight segment, threat avoidance maneuvers are initiated, ________ in the segment TA column of that flight segment on the AIRCAT Flight Data Worksheet.

B.  Indicate the quantity

179(179). When completing the AIRCAT Flight Data Worksheet, if ________ of the flight segment was flown using secondary fuel management place a checkmark in the SFM column.

A.  More than 50%

180(180). When completing the AIRCAT Flight Data Worksheet, if any portion of a flight segment was flown ________or less over salt water place a checkmark in the Salt Water Environment (SWE) column.

A.  3,000 feet

181(181). When completing the AIRCAT Flight Data Worksheet, if more than ________ pounds of fuel are dumped during the flight segment, place a checkmark in the EFD column and record the weight of the fuel dumped in either the Wing Weight or Fuselage Weight column of the Fuel Transfer (AR/TK) block, as appropriate.

B.  1,000

182(182). Unless otherwise directed, waiver authority for the contents of AFI 11-2C-130V3 is the __________ with mission execution authority.

C.  MAJCOM/A3/DO

183(183). Pilots __________ fly touch-and-go landings with passengers on board.

B.  shall not

184(184). __________ is the period of time starting at mission report time and ending immediately after the aircrew completes the final engine shutdown of the day.

A.  Flight Duty Period

185(185). Complete all mission-related events (i.e., FCF/ACF checks, transition events, or tactical events) during the first _____ hours of the FDP.

C.  12

186(186). SQ/CCs shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties:            

A.  When the flight will exceed maximum flying time limitations of AFI 11-202V3.

B.  Within 12 hours of consuming alcoholic beverages or under the influence of alcohol.

C.  When using nasal sprays to treat symptoms of head congestion existing before flight.

D.  All of the above.

187(187). The ___________ is the final authority in determining the overall suitability of an aircraft for the mission.

A.  PIC

188(188). The PIC who accepted an aircraft with degraded equipment/systems is not committed to subsequent operations with the same degraded equipment.

A.  True

189(189). Do not connect unauthorized equipment (laptop computers, video equipment, food preparation equipment, radios/tape players, CD players, etc.) to:

A.  the aircraft intercom/PA

B.  radio systems

C.  electrical system

D.  all of the above

190(190). Any crewmember seeing a deviation of _____ feet altitude or _____ knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF.

C.  200/10

191(191). Limit conversation to that essential for crew coordination and mission accomplishment during taxi, takeoff, approach, landing and any flight below __________.

B.  10,000 feet MSL

192(192). In terminal areas, __________ (if able) will monitor the command radio unless directed otherwise.

C.  all crewmembers

193(193). For peace-time do not use runways less than __________ feet.

A.  3,000

194(194). Minimum runway length for normal take-off is __________.

C.  Critical Field Length

195(195). All tactical/max effort operations must fall in the ___________ area of charts unless otherwise approved by OG/CC.

B.  recommended

196(196). Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions.  With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____ feet.

C.  25/10

197(197). Only __________ crews shall perform high-speed taxi checks.

C.  FCF

198(198). __________ detecting the illumination of the radar altimeter Low Altitude Warning Light will immediately notify the pilot flying the aircraft.

C.  Any crewmember

199(199). Pilots will normally use __________ for takeoffs provided refusal speed (Vr) is equal to or greater than takeoff speed.

B.  reduced power

200(200). It is recommended that primary crewmembers wear Nomex gloves during:

A.  engine start

B.  takeoff

C.  landing

D.  all of the above

201(201). Crewmembers will carry __________ on all flights

B.  two identification tags

202(202). Each crewmember must carry an operable flashlight for night flights.

A.  True

203(203). Any crewmember that experiences NVG problems will:

B.  inform the rest of the crew

204(204). When any doubt exists about which screen height to use, plan to cross the DER at _____ minimum unless you can ascertain a different screen height requirement from an appropriate authority.

C.  35

205(205). Aircraft must be able to meet the published climb gradient for the departure runway with all engines operating.  If no minimum climb gradient is published, _____ ft/nm will be used.

B.  200

206(206). Takeoff GW must not exceed that which would, in the event of an engine failure, lower the rate of climb to less than a 2.5 percent climb gradient (______-feet perNM) unless departing from an airfield with an approved SDP.

C.  152

207(207). Flight into areas of forecast or reported __________ is prohibited.

D.  severe turbulence

208(208). Do not takeoff under conditions of freezing rain.

A.  True

209(209). Do not fly directly above (within _____ feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds.

C.  2000

210(210). Aircraft damage may occur _____ or more from any thunderstorms.

C.  20 NMs

211(211). Maintain at least _____ separation from heavy rain showers.

A.  5 NMs

212(212). The aircraft dash one preflight inspection will remain valid until either:

A.  aircraft ground time exceeds 12 hours

B.  aircraft ground time exceeds 72 hours provided the aircraft is sealed, not flown, and documented

                entry control is maintained.

C.  another maintenance dash six preflight is performed

D.  all of the above

213(213). Under no circumstance will any crewmember act as the towing supervisor.

A.  True

214(214). The C-130 is a category C aircraft.  If approach speeds exceed _____ knots, the minimums for category D will be used.

C.  140

215(215). If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, pull the ___________ power circuit breaker.

B.  CVR

216(216). The maximum number of persons on the flight deck will be the minimum commensurate with the mission requirements.  At no time should this exceed _____ (unless otherwise specified in a MAJCOM supplement).

B.  7

217(217). Security force support terminates:

A.  Only after the aircraft doors are closed and the aircraft taxis

218(218). If departure is not possible, the aircrew must secure the aircraft to the best of their ability.  In no case, will the entire crew leave the aircraft unattended.  Crew rest will be subordinate to aircraft security when the airframe may be at risk.

A.  True

219(219). Crews are facing a hijacking threat will notify ground agencies by __________.

A.  Transmit an in-the-clear notification of hijacking to ATC

B.  Set transponder to code 7500

C.  Transmit a radio message to include the phrase (call sign) transponder seven five zero zero

D.  All of the above

220(220). When required to transfer a loaded weapon to another crew member, __________.

C.  place the weapon on a flat surface

221(221). This form is used to report damage to the aircraft, or injury to the crew or passengers.

B.  AMC IMT 97, AMC In-Flight Emergency and Unusual Occurrence Worksheet

222(222). This is the primary method of payment of aviation fuel and ancillary ground services at commercial airports (and some military installations) worldwide.

D.  Multi Service Corporation (MSC) AIR card

223(223). Minimum runway length for 50% flap flight idle touch-and-go landing is _____ feet. Minimum runway length for all other touch-and-go landings is _____ feet.

C.  5,000/6,000

224(224). Touch and go landings are authorized when the crosswind component corrected for RCR is within the ___________ zone for the landing crosswind chart.

B.  Recommended

225(225). Current and qualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures in weather down to ______.

B.  300/1

226(226). Do not conduct simulated aircraft systems emergency procedures training during any tactical training (operating in low level environment or during tactical approaches).

A.  True

227(227). Maximum gross weight for a no flap landing is _____ lbs.

B.  120,000

228(228). When performing a Stop-and-Go landing, runway remaining for takeoff must be greater than or equal to __________.

A.  CFL

229(229). Actual engine shutdown and airstart of a single engine for training may be conducted under direct IP supervision at no lower than __________ in daylight VMC.

C.  2,500 feet AGL

230(230). If a training aircraft is not capable of departure within four hours after scheduled departure time, cancel the training mission.  The unit CC/DO may grant exceptions.  Provide a planned minimum of __________ for aircraft preflight duties before the end of the 4-hours.

D.  1 ½-hours

231(231). With actual or suspected vapor contamination, the aircraft must be purged for __________ using Smoke and Fume Elimination procedures to eliminate the vapor hazard.

B.  Two hours

232(232). When it is suspected or known that an aerospace vehicle or piece of equipment has been contaminated with a radiological, biological or chemical contaminant, a _________ will be entered and an annotation will be made in historical records for the lifecycle of the equipment.

C.  Red X

233(233). If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance personnel are not available to clear it, the flight engineer may obtain authorization to clear the Red X from the ___________ in accordance with TO 00-20-1.

D.  Home station MXG/CC or designated representative

235(235). During concurrent ground operations, simultaneous fuel and oxygen servicing is authorized.

B.  False

236(236). In addition to the procedures in __________ and ___________, the flight engineer will assist the pilot in maintaining the AFTO Form 781.

B.  T.O. 00-20-1/AFI 11-401

237(237). When conducting flaps up landings for training compute and post VMCA speeds for both configurations; flaps 50% and flaps up (normal boost), i.e. 105/122.

A.  True

238(238). Minimum TOLD requirements for a termination landing are:  Air Minimum Control Speeds, Obstacle Clearance Speed, 3 Engine Climb Speed, 100 & 50% Flap Landing Speeds and Distances, 0% Landing Approach Speed (Night or IMC), and __________.

D.  3 Eng FTPNM

239(239). The AF IMT 4108 will be completed whenever the navigator completes the __________.

C.  AF IMT 4116, C-130 Flight Plan and Record

240(240). Authority to use the Hostile Environment Kit and Repair Procedures is granted by Operations Group Commanders/Deputy Group Commanders for Operations; this authority is documented on the:

A.  FRAG

C.  Air Tasking Order

D.  Both A and C

241(241). For Day VMC En-Route, fly no lower than ___________ modified contour altitude above terrain using visual references and radar altimeter.

A.  300 feet AGL

242(242). For Night VMC En-Route, fly no lower than an indicated altitude of _____-feet above the highest obstruction to flight (man-made obstacle, terrain feature, or spot elevation), or _____-feet plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within _____ of route centerline to include the aircraft turn radius over each turnpoint.

C.  500/400/5 NMs

243(243). If either the pilot's NVGs, SCNS, pressure altimeter, GPS, or aircraft radar fail, climb to ESA until resolving the problem.  In addition, climb to ESA to resolve any T.O. 1C-130(x)/(x)-1 section III procedures, commensurate with the tactical situation.

B.  False

244(244). Plan MSA at an indicated altitude of _____-feet above the highest obstruction to flight (man-made obstacle, terrain feature, or spot elevation), or _____-feet plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is highest, within _____ of route centerline to include the aircraft turn radius.

C.  500/400/5 NMs

245(245). To compute ESA, add _____ feet (_____ feet in mountainous terrain) to the elevation of the highest obstruction to flight within _____ NM either side of the planned route.  An ESA will be computed for the route and conspicuously annotated on the chart.

B.  1000/2000/22

246(246). Airdrops will not be conducted below the following attitudes:

A.  Day VMC Drop Altitude

B.  Night VMC Drop Altitude

C.  IMC Drop Altitude

D.  All of the above

247(247). Low Altitude Arrival maneuvers may be flown on continuation training and operational missions with passengers aboard.  In all cases plan to roll out on final at __________ speed no lower than _____ ft _____.

B.  approach/300/AGL

248(248). ERO’s will not be conducted simultaneously through the __________ door and ________ door.

B.  crew entrance door/any other airplane

249(249). During ERO procedures, use __________ and __________ to enhance safety at night as the situation dictates.

D.  leading edge/taxi lights

250(250). Personnel on-load and off-load through the crew entrance door, station a crewmember (normally the load master) on interphone with cord held taut at approximately ______-feet at an angle of _____-degrees from the aircraft axis.

A.  20/45

251(251). Combat Off-load Procedures, a taxiway or ramp at least ______ feet long is required, however, _____ feet is desired to provide a margin of safety.

B.  500/1000

252(252). NVG Airland. The PIC must ensure TOLD reflects the possibility for a landing at the end of the zone (subtract landing/safety zone distances from __________ to ensure adequate runway exists for __________).

A.  runway available/rollout

253(253). NVG Airland.  Coordinated actions during the final segment of an NVG __________ and _________ are critical.

C.  approach/landing

254(254). NVG Airland.  For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed _____ degrees and the aircraft will not descend below _____ AGL until intercepting a normal glide path approaching the final approach course and in a safe position to land.

D.  45/500

255(255). NVG Airland.  IMC Approaches.  The transfer of aircraft control for the landing will be no lower than _____.

A.  300 AGL

256(256). Formations.  At no time will aircraft be operated within _____ feet of another aircraft.

B.  500

257(257). When flying at night (with or without NVGs) potential for spatial disorientation increases with:

A.  Rapid changes in airspeed

B.  Bank angles

C.  Changing "G" loads

D.  All of the above

258(258). Do not perform touch-and-go landings during formation recoveries unless:

D.  Never

259(259). Analyze pre-drop gross weight to determine if obstructions can be cleared with __________.

A.  one engine inoperative

260(260). Element leads will not exceed _____ degrees of bank.

D.  20

261(261). No Drop Decisions.  After the __________ advisory any crew member observing a condition that could jeopardize a safe drop will transmit a no drop call on interphone.

C.  one minute

262(262). CDS Airdrops.  It is not recommended to drop CDS at gross weights less than _____ pounds.

B.  104,000

263(263). Towed Parachutist.  The PIC should consider density altitude, aircraft weight, position in formation, or other factors deemed important in determining what flap setting between _____ and _____ percent should be used.

C.  50/100

264(264). Fuel Consumption.  Increased fuel consumption in the low-level environment reduces range. For power settings at or near maximum continuous power, low-level fuel consumption can be as high as ______ pounds per hour.  See TO 1C-130(X)/(X)-1-1 for specific fuel consumption.

C.  7,000

265(265). Degraded Performance.  The flight engineer should annotate three- and two-engine for the route, __________ and __________ speeds for common gross weights.

D.  stall/best climb angle

266(266). The C-130 performance manual stipulates that all Max-Effort TOLD calculations are based on a "__________" runway.

A.  hard surfaced, paved

267(268). __________ noting illumination of the "LOW" altitude light on the radar altimeter shall notify the pilot flying; a correction to the altitude should be made immediately.

D.  Any crewmember

268(269). The pilot, copilot, navigator, and engineer must cross-check __________ altimeters against desired altitude for all low-level operations or the __________ altimeter when a specified altitude is flown.

A.  radar/pressure

269(270). NVG Airland Final Approach.  Prior to landing, the __________ may confirm the runway is clear and re-check the landing configuration ("RUNWAY CLEAR, CONFIGURATION CHECKED").

270(271). There is an approximate _____ to _____ knot airspeed difference between aircraft with the standard pitot system and the Rosemount system (Rosemount indicates the _____ airspeed).

D.  5/10/higher

271(272). Crew Coordination.  Crews __________ skip checklists in order to minimize ground times.  The combat offload can be extremely valuable if performed correctly, if not it can be dangerous and time consuming.

B.  must not

272(274). Dust and Sand Contamination.  Cycle the wing, empennage, and engine anti-icing systems __________ to prevent dust and sand contamination of the ant-icing valves.

C.  after takeoff

273(275). Minimum taxi interval is _____ aircraft length with four engines operating and _____ aircraft lengths with two engines operating.

A.  one/two

274(276). It is recommended that any TIT between 1,049°C and 1,083°C inclusive be limited to____________.

B.  5 minutes

275(277). ___________ power is the power resulting when operating the engine at 1,010°C TIT (or 19,600 inch-pounds of torque, whichever occurs first), and may be safely used for continuous operating conditions.

B.  Maximum continuous

276(278). The APU, located forward in the left wheel well, supplies air for ground operation of the air conditioning systems, for engine starting, and provides shaft power to drive a ___________ generator.

A.   40-KVA AC

277(279). During the starting cycle, when the oil pressure in the APU oil system reaches approximately ______, the fuel and ignition circuits are energized through a switch actuated by oil pressure.

B.  4 PSI

278(280). The APU uses a two-stage, _____________ compressor.

C.  centrifugal-type

279(281). The operation of the APU is ______-controlled to maintain a nearly constant speed of approximately ___ percent RPM under varying load conditions.

D.  governor/100

280(282). When the APU control switch is placed to RUN or START, power is supplied to open the APU inlet door. The inlet door is powered through contacts of the auxiliary touchdown relay. The door opens approximately __ degrees on the ground and __ degrees in flight.

A.  35/15

281(283). The APU fire handle on the overhead control panel provides for emergency shut-down of the APU. This handle, when pulled, energizes the ______-operated fuel shutoff valve ______, and energizes the APU door closed after APU speed has decreased to approximately 18 percent RPM.

B.  motor/closed

282(284). Fuel for the APU is routed directly from the No. ___ fuel tank surge box.

B.  2

283(285). The dump mast shutoff valves prevent fuel from coming out the dump mast during ground defueling operation. On H1 aircraft, the valves are actuated by _____________, to close on the ground and open in flight.

C.  the touchdown switch

284(286). (On airplanes with GCU's) The generator switches are __________ _____________ rotary switches.

C.  two-position (OFF/RESET, ON)

285(287). During APU starting, the ______ powers the APU starter and control circuits through the APU CONTROL circuit breaker on the pilot's side circuit breaker panel.

B.  Battery

286(288). As the landing gear reaches full up, the hydraulic motor stalls and the gear is held up by ___________.

287(289). Airplanes prior to AF85-0035 are equipped with a ______ PSI brake system.

B.  2030

288(290). On airplanes modified with airplane armor, the pilot's feet rest _____ than normal on the rudder pedals and may cause inadvertent braking action during rudder pedal movement.

B.  higher

289(291). The standard sea level airflow from each regulator is 70 pounds per minute and at 35000 feet the airflow is:

D.  33 pounds per minute

290(292). Airflow Diverter Valve has 4 positions; MIN, NORMAL, INTMED, and MAX.  With the diverter valve set to INTMED the diverter valve is partially open, ____ percent to the cargo compartment, ___ percent to flight station.

C.  20, 80

291(293). To prevent rapid loss of cabin pressure in the event of failure in the air re-circulating duct system, a ______ ______ is installed in the cargo compartment air conditioning and pressurization system.

C.  check valve

292(294). Depletion of the emergency brake hydraulic system pressure with the brake select switch in normal is an indication of an emergency brake selector valve failure. Under these conditions, ___________may not be available, regardless of the anti-skid test.

A.  anti-skid protection

293(295). Closing the left wing bleed air valves and the bleed air divider valve isolates the bleed air from the jet pump control in the _______ _______ and from the safety valve.  Automatic pressurization will be inoperative and emergency depressurization will be slower than normal.

C.  outflow valve