Term
Why have heart disease rates dropped in the US in the last 50 years |
|
Definition
better drugs (antihypertensives) and less smoking |
|
|
Term
What are the top 4 causes of cancer deaths in males and females? |
|
Definition
Female: lung, breast, colon, pancreatic
Males: lung, prostate, colon, pancreatic |
|
|
Term
How does cancer actually kill a person? |
|
Definition
Anatomical: tumor obstructs a pivotal body part and you die of that (ex: cervical cancer obstructs ureters, die of renal failure)
Tumor mass: If the tumor gets big enough, it will take up too many of the body's nutrients
Infection: bone marrow (anemia, WBC decereases) die of sepsis |
|
|
Term
Smaller cancer masses are much more sensitive to ___- |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
TNM
Tumor size: <2.5cm = T1, >5cm = T3
Nodes: 0= no nodal involvement
Metastases: 0 = not present, 1 = present |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Stage 1 - T1, N0, M0
80-90% 5 year survival
Stage IV - survival rates very slim
|
|
|
Term
5 things that affect cancer prognosis |
|
Definition
Staging
Overall health of Pt
Type of cancer
Presence/Type of receptor (some receptors can be blocked)
Availability of care |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Anatomical: Breast, liver, pancreas
Pathological:
Derived from squamous cells: carcinoma
Glandular tissue: adenocarcinoma
Mesodermal tissue (bone, muscle, connective tissue): sarcoma
Hematologic: leukemia, lymphoma, etc
Germ cell cancers: different names |
|
|
Term
What's the difference between cancer cells and normal cells? |
|
Definition
1. Neoplastic cell growth is poorly controlled
2. High nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio in neoplasia
3. cancer cells divide more often
4. cancer cells lose ability to fxn properly - mitosis occurs throughout cells, not just in basal layer
5. immortality - do not undergo apoptosis, telomeres are indestructable |
|
|
Term
____ tumors are disorganized tissue in which mitosis occurs throughout the tissue and you can't tell where the tumor started or where it's going. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
taken from a tumor - have been dividing continuously for 60 Years |
|
|
Term
What does each do to your Cancer risk?
1st degree relative:
Lifetime risk for breast cancer? |
|
Definition
1st degree relative doubles your risk
lifetime risk: 1/8 |
|
|
Term
What is a proto-oncogene? |
|
Definition
it is a normal gene that helps cells grow... such as in chidlren or in adult bone marrow/skin cells
if it is mutated, it becomes an oncogene |
|
|
Term
What is a tumor-suppresor gene? |
|
Definition
Normal genes that repair DNA errors
Loss of tumor suppressor genes in a cell increases the risk of malignant transformation
Each cell has two copies of the TSG called BRCA-I and BRCA-II, having only one copy of this increases chance of cancer.
|
|
|
Term
Cancer in younger-than-normal poeple or cancer in multiple members of a family suggests what? |
|
Definition
loss of tumor suppressor genes (BRCA I & II) |
|
|
Term
What is the nuisance hypothesis? |
|
Definition
must have oncogenes AND loss of tumor suppressor genes for cancer to happen |
|
|
Term
____ - cells that are no longer "normal" but have not yet become cancerous.
These types of cells are the basis of what test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does cancer risk increase with age?
What is the exception to this rule? |
|
Definition
1. As we age, repair capacity decreases
2. accumulation of errors
Exception: germ cell tumors tend to show up in kids |
|
|
Term
What is adjunctive therapy? |
|
Definition
that in addition to primary cancer treatment (surgery & radiation)
Adjuncts: chemo, hormonal treatment (for receptor-pos tumors), monoclonal antibody drugs that targets HCR2) |
|
|
Term
What is the significance of estrogen replacement therapy? |
|
Definition
It is given to women to prevent/treat osteoporosis, however estrogen feeds breast cancer.
Solution? give estrogen that only stimulates bone receptors and blocks breast receptors |
|
|
Term
2 examples of hormone modulation for cancer treatment |
|
Definition
estrogen receptor blockers
aromatase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
How are chemo drugs administered? |
|
Definition
chemo drugs damage all the body's cells so they must be administered in a cyclic fashion so as to kill the tumor cells but not cause organ damage
1. pt gets hammered wtih drugs over a day or two
2. wait a few weeks for normal body cells to repair
3. do it again in a few weeks to knock tumor cells down a few notches
due to several times until tumor cells are gone |
|
|
Term
A woman is scheduled for major colon surgery... how do we reduce her chances of post op infection? |
|
Definition
1. prophylactic antibiotics for the most likely infections - staph, strep from skin, gram neg organisms from colon (e. coli, C diff)
2. Clean out colon as much as possible before surgery to reduce bacterial load
3. prep skin as much as possible before surgery to get bacteria off |
|
|
Term
____: malignant tumor that tends to invade healthy tissue and spread to new sites
___: abnormal swelling within the body
___: abnormal growth that tends to spread
___: uncontrolled cell proliferation including benign and malignant tumors ("new growth") |
|
Definition
cancer
tumor
malignant
neoplasia |
|
|
Term
DNA insults that can result in cancer |
|
Definition
copy errors
electromagnetic damage (UV, xrays, gamma rays)
cosmic rays
Chemicals (free radicals) |
|
|
Term
___ is a protoonco gene with a gain of function mutation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____: genes that regulate the cell cycle by inhibiting growth via cell to cell contact
___: genes that repair DNA damage and maintain genmoe integrity |
|
Definition
gatekeeper genes
caretaker genes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
something about being a tumor suppressor gene
"guardian angel gene" |
|
|
Term
Both alleles of tumor suppresor genes must be inactivated (loss of function mutation) to permit neoplasia
somatic mutations can cause loss of function
Individuals who inherit one non-functional allele are at risk for neoplasia
What hypothesis is this? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the single insult concept of neoplasia? |
|
Definition
any cell can undergo malignant transformation
Toxins of some kind triggers the transformation (ionizing radiation, certain chemicals, perhaps viruses)
Transformation usually occurs relatively quickly (weeks to months) |
|
|
Term
Multi-step theory of neoplasia |
|
Definition
genetic background is important in determining susceptivility
several mutations must occur in one cell before transformation occurs (oncogene is activated and tumor suppressor gene is inactivate)
normal immune surveillance fails
usually requires long periods of time to occur |
|
|
Term
Stem Cell Paradigm of neoplasia |
|
Definition
cancer require multistep transformation of stem cells
most tumor cells can proliferatue only briefly (only malignant step cells are immortal and drive tumor growth)
if we can learn to control stem cells we may be able to control cancer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
most cancer cells display self MHC molecules
T lymphs that are more effective against cancer cells would likely cause autoimmune disase and affect reporduction |
|
|
Term
What 3 cancers (caused by viruses) have an increased risk in AIDS pt? |
|
Definition
Kaposi's sarcoma (herpes virus 8)
cervical cancer (HPV)
lymphoma (epstein barr virus) |
|
|
Term
cancer derived from undetermined cellular origin is called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of neoplastic cells
___ = many or varying shapes ____ nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio ___ mitosis ___ of differentiation and function ___ of cell-cell cohesion ____ of apoptosis |
|
Definition
pleomorphic
large
frequent
loss
loss
loss |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 pillars of cancer treatment? |
|
Definition
surgery
chemo
radiation
immunotherapy |
|
|
Term
Are malignant cells or normal cells better able to repair intracellular damage? |
|
Definition
normal - which is why chemo works. cancer cells die, normal cells are injured but can be repaired |
|
|
Term
Why are big tumors less sensitive to drugs and radiaiton? |
|
Definition
they have necrotic centers with poor vascular perfusion and thus low O2 and Low metabolism |
|
|
Term
Where is BRCA 1 located?
Wher is BRCA 2 located? |
|
Definition
chromosome 17
Chromosome 13 |
|
|
Term
Why is it that you lose hair and are more prone to illness when you're on chemo? |
|
Definition
chemo targets rapidly dividing cells - like neoplasia, but also bone marrow & hair follicles (and embryonic/fetal cells and GI endothelium)
Bone marrow suppression results in:
Anemia (fatigue, less O2 transport)
neutropenia (infections)
thrombocytopenia (hemorrhage) |
|
|
Term
Why is it important to prevent severe bone marrow depression? |
|
Definition
it improves pt well being
improves pt functioning
***increases tolerance to additional chemo.. which leads to improved outcome *** |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Human Epidermal growth factor Receptor
Represents a proto-oncogene that is + in about 1/3 of breast cancer
Mutation results in amplification of growth factor
HER-2 positivity lowers prognosis
Now trying anti-HER-2 treatment |
|
|
Term
Eukaryotes v. prokaryotes |
|
Definition
Eukaryotes - have nucleus - protozoa and fungi
Prokaryotes - gram neg (red) - gram pos (blue)
Have cell wall
anaerobic or aerobic
cocci or bacilli(rods)
Other prokaryotes: Mycoplasma - have no cell wall, Chlamydia - intracellular reproduction, rickettsia - typhus, rocky mtn spotted fever
Non-living pathogens - viruses, prions |
|
|
Term
Gram classification and shape of each?
1. strep, staph, enterococcus
2. clostridium (anything that starts with C.), anthrax, cornybacteria (diphtheria),
3. neisseria
4. e. coli, coliform, proteus mirabilis, salmonella, kelbsiella, enterobacter aerogenes |
|
Definition
gram + cocci
Gram + rods/bacilli
Gram - cocci
Gram - rods/bacilli |
|
|
Term
Bacteriostatic vs. bacteriocidal |
|
Definition
Bacteriostatic - slows microbial growth until host immune system can gain the upper hand - for routine infections
bacteriocidal - in compromised pts, employs agents designed to kill a significant # of microbes - for very serious infections |
|
|
Term
4 basic points on bacteria that antibiotics target and ex of antibiotics that target each |
|
Definition
1. Inhibit folate production - sulfa drugs, trimethoprim, bactrim
2. Inhibit cell wall symthesis (B-lactams - PENICILLIN, caphalosporins, vancomycin, bacitracin)
3. Inhibit protein synthesis - 50S or 30S inhibitors - TETRACYCLINES, aminoglycosides, marcolides (Erythromycin)
4. inhibit nucleic acid - fluoroquinolones
|
|
|
Term
2 most common fluoroquinolones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Psuedomembraneous colitis? |
|
Definition
explosive bloody diarrhea which can be life threatening
C. DIFF
seen after antibiotics due to overgrowth of C.Diff
Therapy - hydration and vancomycin or metronidazole |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Acyclovir (Zovirax) and Valacyclovir (Valtrex) |
|
|
Term
Flu vaccines and flu antivirals |
|
Definition
vaccines: amantadine (symmetrel) and Rimantadine (Flumadine) -- against Influenza A
Drugs: Neuraminidase inhbiitors - slow virus growth - zanamivir (relenza) & oseltamivir (tamiflu) |
|
|
Term
What are anti-HIV drugs and how do they work? |
|
Definition
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase (NRTIs) or protease inhibitors
Extend latent phase of HIV by keeping CD4 up and viral load down |
|
|
Term
4 types of fugal infections |
|
Definition
superificial (athlete's foot)
pulmonary infections (pneumonia)
CNS (meningitis, encephalitis)
systemic |
|
|
Term
What kind of pathogen are these?
candida albicans histoplasma capsulatum coccidioides immitis blastomyces dermatidis cryptococcus neoformans pneumocitis jyroveccii |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is significant about pneumocitis jyrovecii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of microbe?
entemoeba histolytica
giardia lambia
toxoplasmosis gondii [cats transmit to prgnant women or immunocompromised (AIDS-defining)]
trichomonas vaginalis
plasmodium (malaria) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kind of drug?
metronidazole
chloroquine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what medication would you give?
protozoal infection anaerobic bacterial vaginosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
"special" bacteria - give ex of each:
anaerobes small bacteria without a cell wall obligate intracellular bacteria |
|
Definition
anaerobes - clostridia
no cell wall: mycoplasma
obligate intracellular: ricketsia, chlamydia |
|
|
Term
How does a gram stain work? |
|
Definition
Application of crystal violet
Application of iodine (blue - gram pos)
Alcohol wash
Application of safranin (red - gram neg) |
|
|
Term
What type of bacteria are these (gram and shape)
Staph aureus Strep pyogenes strep pneumoniae enterococcus faecalis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of bacteria are these (gram and shape)
bacillus anthracis corynebacterium diphtheriae clostridium species |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of bacteria are these (gram and shape)
neisseria gonorrhoeae neisseria meningitidis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of bacteria are these (gram and shape)
escherichia coli (E. coli) enterobacter aerogenes proteus mirabilis salmonella enterica (salmonella typhi) klebsiella species |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease does this cause?
strep pneumonia, mycoplasma and viruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease does this cause?
N. menigitidis, strep pneumoniae, viruses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease does this cause?
gram neg enteric bacteria (esp E. coli) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease does this cause?
staph aureaus, strep pyogenes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acid-fast bacillis cause what disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease?
caused by mycobacterium initially either pulmonary or GI in late stages can infect and affect every organ system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ are the simplest known infectious agent
what disease do they cause |
|
Definition
prion
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE) - creutzgeldt-Jakob disease or Bovine spongiform encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
The Viral Essence:
Genome protected by a ___ coat Usually have ___ on the coat Must harness intracellular machinery of the host cell to: Replicate the ___ Produce the protein coat units Assemble new ____ Achieve __ from host cell |
|
Definition
protein
receptors
replicate the genome
assemble new viral particles
achieve release |
|
|
Term
3 RNA-based and DNA-based viruses |
|
Definition
RNA:
influenze, HIV, polio
DNA:
Herpes, hep B, adenovirus |
|
|
Term
____: a substance made by a bacteria, fungus, or mycobacteria that kills or inhibits growth of other microorganisms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match each person with what they did:
A. Pasteur B. Lister C. Pasteur and Joubert D. Koch E. Fleming F. Domagk G. Florey & Chain
1. Arsenic is "magic bullet" for syphilis 2. clinical trial with penicillin in UK 3. aerobic microorganisms inhibit anthrax 4. microorganisms cause fermentation 5. antisepsis 6. penicillium mold inhibits staph aureus 7. clinical trials with sulfaniliamides |
|
Definition
A - 4
B - 5
C - 3
D - 1
E - 6
F - 7
G - 2 |
|
|
Term
Cell wall inhibiting drugs are usually bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Folate and protein synthesis inhibiting drugs are usually bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Topical agents, IBS, UTIs can be treated by what antibiotic group? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
General penicillin uses and weaknesses |
|
Definition
gram pos organisms
gram neg cocci (neisseria)
Treponema pallidum (syphilis)
weaknesses: staph aureus, gram neg rods/bacilli
|
|
|
Term
Indications for extended spectrum penicillin use
Common side effects |
|
Definition
otitis, UTI, dental prophylaxis
side effects: rash (esp ampicillin) |
|
|
Term
What are these penicillins used for?
carbenicillin (Geocillin) Mezocillin (mezlin) Piperacillin (pipracil) Ticarcillin (ticar) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
General penicillin side effects |
|
Definition
Hypersensitivity (5% incidence) - rash, angioedema, anaphylaxis
Diarrhea
Nephritis |
|
|
Term
1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th generation cephalosporin |
|
Definition
cefazolin (ancef, kefzol)
cefoxitin (mefoxin)
ceftriaxone (rocephin)
cefepime (maxipine) |
|
|
Term
What do you use to treat c. diff? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 Protein synthesis inhibitors |
|
Definition
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides
macrolides |
|
|
Term
What antibiotic?
Broad spectrum bacteriostatic agents that are more effective against gram positive than gram negative.
Esp useful for chlamydia, mycoplasma pneumoniae, acne vulgaris, some protozoa |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
All tetracyclines end in "cycline" |
|
|
Term
Tetracycline:
Oral absorption is reduced by what?
Has ___ action, which is very useful in treating acne vulgaris |
|
Definition
food dairy antacids
anti-inflammatory action |
|
|
Term
Contraindications for tetracycline |
|
Definition
pregnancy and children (8-14)
dental enamel dysplasia and discoloration
growth inhibation & bone deformity
photosensitivity |
|
|
Term
Aminoglycosides are widely used in gram ___ infections. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ drugs are poorly absorbed from the GI tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Common ____:
Streptomycin Amikacin (Amikin) Gentamicin (Garamycin) Tobramycin (Nebcin) Neomycin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some side effects of aminoglycosides |
|
Definition
all are potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic
toxicity increased by loop diuretics |
|
|
Term
3 inhibitors of folate synthesis |
|
Definition
sulfaonamides
trimethoprim
co-trimoxazole (septra, bactrim) |
|
|
Term
Examples of cell wall synthesis inhibitors |
|
Definition
B-Lactams - penicillins, cephalosporins
also, vancomycin |
|
|
Term
2 extended spectrum penicillins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1 beta-lactamase inhibitor |
|
Definition
augmentin (amoxicillin + clavulanic acid) |
|
|
Term
3 inhibitors of protein synthesis |
|
Definition
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides
macrolides |
|
|
Term
What protein synthesis inhibitor is safe in pregnancy and peds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug group inhibits nucleic acid |
|
Definition
fluroquinolones
AKA DNA gyrase inhibitors |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
isoniazid
Rifampin
Ethambutol |
|
|
Term
These drugs are anti-what disease?
ganciclovir cidofovir |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
protease inhibitors |
|
|
Term
____ is used to treat both amebic colitis (dysentery) and trichomonas vaginalis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ are immune-cell produced cytokines which are anti-viral and anti-neoplastic bc they activate key immune system components such as macrophages, NK cells, and antigen presention cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does it mean that HIV is a retrovirus? |
|
Definition
It converts from RNA to DNA and back via a unique reverse transcriptase enzyme |
|
|
Term
What is the "new strategy" for treating HIV |
|
Definition
prevent HIV DNA from inserting in host DNA via "integrase inhibitors" - Raltegravir
Used in pts with multi-drug resistant HIV
|
|
|
Term
When should you initiate therapy for HIV? |
|
Definition
CD4 counts less than 200-350 cells/cubic mL
HIV RNA levels > 100,000 copies/mL
Diagnosis of AIDS established |
|
|
Term
What is the most common causative agent for malaria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2 general causes of anemia |
|
Definition
1. RBC production problems
- nutritional deficiency
- loss of stimulation (erythropoietin)
- toxiciity
- neoplasia
Accelerated loss of RBC (often due to low iron in women)
- shortened life span (normal is 100-120 days)
- bleeding |
|
|
Term
___ anemia is idiopathic
How is it treated? |
|
Definition
aplastic
due to loss of hematopoietic stem cells (apoptosis)
Immunosuppresion, bone marrow transplant if that doesn't wrk |
|
|
Term
How can cancer result in anemia?
What is a more liekly result? |
|
Definition
it's possible for enough bone marrow to be occupied by cancer to get anemia
more likely: myeloproliferative disorder |
|
|
Term
5 myeloproliferative disorders |
|
Definition
leukemias
lymphoma
multiple myeloma
polyctythemia
thrombocythemia |
|
|
Term
4 basic kinds of leukemia |
|
Definition
acute myeloid
chronic myeloid
acute lymphoid
chronic lymphoid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hodgkin's - most common
- young adults
Non-Hodgkins |
|
|
Term
____ is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by malignant plasma cells
___ is a myeloproliferative disorder that causes RBCs to reporduce too quickly, resulting in Hgb around 18-20 and causing clotting problems
___ is a myeloproliferative disorder involving too many megakaryocytes, which results in too many platelets (~1M) and thus clotting problems |
|
Definition
multiple myeloma
polycythemia
thrombocythemia |
|
|
Term
How does HgB transport O2 |
|
Definition
in high partial pressure environments such as lthe lungs, Hgb lets go of O2
In low partial pressure environments such as the periphery, Hgb tends to hold on to O2 |
|
|
Term
Sickle Cell Anemia
____ mutation of HgbA to ____
Homozygous = ? Heterozygous = ?
Result of a ___ mutation
Cells get stuck in capillaries and then destroyed in spleen. |
|
Definition
autosomal recessive - HgbA - HgbS
Homozygous = sickle cell diesaese (1/400 blacks in US)
heterozygous = asymptomatic (8% of blacks)
Missense mutation |
|
|
Term
Thalassemia:
Genetic defects in ___ biosynthesis
____ transmission
HOmozygous = significant disease called ___, that can only be treated with blood transfuiosn
Heterozygous = mild anemia or asymptomatic, called ____ |
|
Definition
globin
autosomal recessive
B-thalassemia major
B-thalassemia minor |
|
|
Term
Dissolved blood components |
|
Definition
nutrients (glucose, vitamins, minerals)
electrolytes
hormones
proteins (albumen, coagulation proteins, carrier proteins)
drugs |
|
|
Term
suspended blood components |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
adult: 2 alpha chains + 2 beta chains
Fetal: 2 alpha chains + 2 gamma chains
All have 1 oxygen-carrying heme group per chain |
|
|
Term
Myeloid progenitor cells make what 4 cells |
|
Definition
erythrocytes
megakaryocytes (platelets)
Granulocytes
monocytes |
|
|
Term
lymphoid progenitor cells make what 4 cells |
|
Definition
NK cells
dendritic cells
T lymphs
B lymphs |
|
|
Term
3 granulocytes, 3 agranulocytes |
|
Definition
granulocytes: basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils
agranulocytes: macrophages (monocyts), T & B lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
___ are brand new "speckled" rbcs (have residual RNA). account for 1-2% of all RBCs. Give an idea as to bone marrow status |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Low reticulocyte count + significant anemia implies what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2 iron deficiency anemias |
|
Definition
microcytic and hypochromic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
B-12 and folate deficiency cause ____ anemia |
|
Definition
megaloblastic
Large RBCs, hypersegmented neutrophils, ineffective erythropoiesis (impaired DNA synthesis) |
|
|
Term
___ is necessary in gastric parietal cells for B12 absorption |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pernicious anemia:
auto-antibodies for ____
____ anemia Progressive ____ deterioration
Anemia is a result of folate deficiency... why? What would folate supplements do?
How is it diagnosed? |
|
Definition
intrinsic factor (B12 absorber)
megaloblastic anemia
neurologic
B12 is cofactor in activation of folate
Folate supplements can correct the anemia but not repair neurologic damage
Diagnosed with Schilling test: give pt oral radiolabeled B12 & measure excretion.. then give oral intrinsic factor. if absorption increases = pernicious anemia |
|
|
Term
What does this suggest:
rapid onset of fatigue, bleeding, infection pancytopenia high WBC count |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What diagnosis?
Mean age of diagnosis = 55
Fatigue, night sweats, low grade fever
WBC > 150,000; Philadelphia chromosome
Prognosis much better recently: >80% survive 6 yrs or more |
|
Definition
chronic myelogenous leukemia |
|
|
Term
What diagnosis? Two age peaks: 20’s and >50 Derived from B cells
Usually presents with painless lump (lymph node) Fevers, weight loss also common
Good prognosis for stages I & II (radiation & chemo)
Moderate prognosis for stages III & IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A ___ cause of hemolysis has to do with a defect in RBC shape, size and function |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is hemosiderosis and in what disease is it often found? |
|
Definition
iron overload - B-Thalassemia major |
|
|
Term
___ is the most common enzyme deficiency in the world. Heterozygotes have ___ protection.
Homozygotes are at risk for hemolysis, triggered by diseases, foods, and drugs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ hemolysis:
antibody mediated (immunohemolytic anemia, lupus, blood group incompatibility)
microangiopathic hemolysis
hypersplenism
infections/toxins/etc
trauma |
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Definition
extracorpuscular hemolysis |
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Term
Consequences of hemolysis
Elevated ___, resulting in jaundice
Gallstones
Depleted ___ and ___ stores |
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Definition
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Term
___ is increased RBC production, and thus rsults in increased Hgb and Hct
Can be a chronic myeloproliferative disorder ___ Vera
Or due to env issues such as ____ or ___ |
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Definition
Polycythemia
altitude inadaptation, sports doping |
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Term
____:
Mean age at diagnosis: 50-60 yrs
Elevated platelet counts (may be >2 million/ml)
Main risk is thrombosis
Good long term prognosis Unless acute leukemia occurs (1-5% risk) |
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Definition
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Term
2 hormones released by hypothalamus (besides various releasing and inhibiting factors)
6 hormones released by anterior pituitary |
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Definition
Hypothalamus: vasopressin, oxytocin
Anterior pituitary: ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, Prolactin, Growth hormone |
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Term
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Definition
produce thyroid hormone from follicular cells
T3 - triodothyronine - main fxnal hormone
T4 - thyroxine - converted to T3 in tissues
Receptors throughout body - energy utilization, protein sythesis, sensitivity to other hormones
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Term
___ is a spirochete-shaped bacterium |
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Definition
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Term
3 types of goiter:
___ - related to dietary availablity of iodine, usually results in hypothyroidism
___ - seen in hyperthyroidism
___ |
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Definition
endemic
toxic nodular goiter
advanced cancer |
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Term
Not enough thyroxine causes which thyroid problem??
Hyper or Hypo? |
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Definition
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Term
4 types of thyroid cancer |
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Definition
Papillary - most common and most beingn
Follicular - benign
Medullary - benign
Anaplastic - most lethal and rare |
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Term
3 treatments for thyroid cancer |
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Definition
surgical excision (thyroidectomy)
radioactive iodine
lifelong thyroid hormone replacement |
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Term
2 main types of hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)
What would lab tests show for:
TSH T4 Autoimmune disorder test?
Symptoms? |
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Definition
grave's disease
toxic nodular goiter
TSH - low
T4 - high
autoimmune - sometimes pos
Symptoms: restlessness, anxiety, insomnia, tremor, weight loss, heat intolerance |
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Term
Severe ___ is AKA a "thyroid storm" or "thyroid crisis". It is a life-threatening condition.
___ is associated wtih high glucose intake or heavy exercise. It's seen in 15% of asian or native american men with new diagnosed hyperthyroidism |
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Definition
severe hyperthyroidism
hypokalemic periodic paralysis |
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Term
most common type of hyperthyroidism
results from auto-antibodies that bind to and activate TSH receptors, resulting in overproduction of T3/T4, genetic susceptibility
MUCH more common in men or women?
unique symptom? distinguishes it from toxic nodular goiter |
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Definition
grave's disease
much more common in women
exophthalmos |
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Term
Autonomic NS:
___ division is "rest and digest". Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
___ division is "fight or flight" Alpha and beta adrenergic receptors to raise BP and increase HR and dilate smooth muscle. |
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Definition
parasympathetic
sympathetic |
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Term
In hyperthyroid pts, which division of the autonomic NS is overactive?
Because of this, what are some ways to control hyperthyroid symtpoms |
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Definition
sympathetic
beta blockers - propranolol
stop t3/t4 production - thioamide drugs, prevent t3/4 release - potassium iodide
cure: thyroid excision or ablation |
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Term
The chosen "cure" for hyperthyroidism is ablation of the thyroid via radioactive iodine. How do we know it has worked? |
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Definition
monitor TSH levels, which are initially zero in hyperthyroid pt
As T4 falls, TSH rises
When TSH rises above normal - begin thyroid hormone replacement therapy wiht thyroxine |
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Term
2 general causes of hypothyroidism
Lab test for hypo T4 levels TSH levels
Symptoms |
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Definition
primary - due to failure of thyroid gland itself, has nothing to do with TSH. Accounts for 99% of cases
Secondary - due to failure of pituitary to release normal amounts of TSH. very rare.
T4 low
TSH very high
poor memory
inability to concentrate
weight gain
cold intolerance
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Term
____: fairly common autoimmune disorder where the thyroid is infiltrated with T and B cells
___: hypothyroidism induced by amioderone (cardiac arrhythmia) or lithium carbonate (bipolar/manic depressive) |
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Definition
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
drug-induced hypothyroidism |
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Term
How to treat hypothyroidism |
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Definition
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Term
____:
TSH level slightly or modestly elevated, T4 and T3 levles normal, causes increased/inappropriate prolactin secretion
What causes this? |
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Definition
compensated primary hypothyroidism
caused by failure of negative feedback loop from thyroid to pituitary |
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Term
What disease?
excess cortisol by adrenal gland
Causes: 1. iatrogenic (pharmacologic) - prednisone 2. Secondary adrenal hyperplasia - ACTH secreting tumor of pituitary or ACTH-secretign small cell cancer 3. Primary adrenal hyperplasia |
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Definition
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Term
What actually causes Cushing's DISEASE? |
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Definition
ACTH secreting tumor of pituitary |
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Term
Adrenal gland:
___: part of sympathetic NS. secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine
___: secretes steroids (androgens, mineralcorticoids, CORTISOL) |
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Definition
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Term
What does cortisol do to the body? |
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Definition
increase gastric acid and pepsin production
increase bone loss
muscle weakness
mental status change - makes you feel good
anti-nausea
resistance to stress
raise bp
lowers lymphocyte/monocyte levels
weight gain
impaired healing
bone loss
edema
peptic ulcers
euphoria
hallucinations
fatigue
muscle weakness
elevated glucose levels
cataracts |
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Term
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Definition
central obesity
moon facies |
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Term
Pt has HTN, striae, obesity, elevated cortisol levels, loss of diurnal pattern, elevated ACTH
What disease? |
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Definition
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Term
___ hormone:
increases osteoclastic activity in bone (eats away bone)
increases CALCIUM reabsorption in kidneys
stimulates ynthesis of active forms of vit D |
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Definition
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Term
Low ___ levels cause:
tetany carpopedal spasms tingling of lips and hands anxiety, personality changes osteoporosis
High levels of ____ cause: fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, nausea - acute bone pain, urinary tones, psychosis, pancreatitis - chronic |
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Definition
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Term
Hypoparathryodisms:
____: possible complication of thyroidectomy
___: due to inability of kidney to respond to PTH. may be due to genetic defect in PTH receptor
___: rare, presents in childhood, autoimmune thyroid and adrenal disease often present. |
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Definition
iatrogenic
pseudo-hyperparathyroidism
autoimmune hypoparathyroidism |
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Term
Lab tests for hypoparathyroidism:
Ca levels? Phosphorous levels? PTH levels?
Treatment for hypoparathyroidism? |
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Definition
low
high
low
treatment: replacement with vit d analogs to absorb Ca in gut |
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Term
Types of hyperparathyroidism
___: uncommon, usually appears after age 50. more common in females. due to PTH SECRETING PARATHYROID ADENOMA. occassionally due to hyperplasia or carcinoma
___: seen frequently with chronic renal disease. main problem is low vit d production. falling Ca levels stimulate parathyroids to secrete PTH. |
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Definition
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Term
Lab tests for primary hyperparathyroidism:
ca levles? PTH? phosphorous?
secondary:
PTH? Ca? Phosphorous? BUN? creatinine? |
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Definition
high
high
low
high
variable
variable
high
high |
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Term
most common cause of hyperparathyroidism?
most common cause of hypoparathyroidism? |
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Definition
hyper: chronic renal disease
hypo: iatrogenic |
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Term
DM:
characterized by chronic ____, caused by: Relative or absolute deficiency in ___ OR a deficiency of ___ action ("___ resistance) |
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Definition
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Term
Where is insulin produced? |
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Definition
pancreas - Beta cells in islets of langerhans |
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Term
Exocrin v. endocrine fxn of pancreas |
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Definition
exocrine - secrete digestive enzymes
endocrine - islets of langerhans secrete insulin, glucagon, others |
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Term
INsulin actions:
Inhibits catabolic actions; inhibits ___ breakdown
Promostes anabolic actions: promotes ___ production from glucose
Muscle: promotes __ synthesis, glucose transport, glycogen storage
Adipose tissue: increased ___ storage |
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Definition
glycogen
glycogen
protein
triglyceride |
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Term
Type I DM:
___ disorder
Rapid loss of __ cells, so insulin production very rapidly decreases
May be triggered by virus or toxin
Treatment: prevent loss of still viable __ cells |
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Definition
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Term
Type II DM:
___ predisposition
Obesity |
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Definition
|
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Term
3 P's of DM
(DM symptoms)
Lethal complications |
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Definition
polydipsia
polyuria
polyphagia
Also: weight loss, fatigue
Complications: ketoacidosis, cardiovascular dx, renal dx, retinopathy/blindness, neuropathy |
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Term
What condition?
accumulation of acids breakdown of fats/triglycerides significant hyperglycemia falling arterial pH tachycardia, dehydration, SOB, lethargy
Death within hours |
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Definition
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Term
Insulin and ___ have antagonistic effects o blood glucose levels |
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Definition
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Term
Group of drugs that sitmulate islet cells to secrete insulin in type II DM
Drugs that reduce insulin resistance in Type II DM
Drugs that provide exogenous insulin
Drugs that reduce glucagon secretion |
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Definition
sulfonylurias
metformin (glucophage) and Glitazones
NPH, glargine
GLP-1 substances |
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|
Term
|
Definition
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Term
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Definition
weight in kg divided by square of height in meters
weight in lbs x 700 divided by square of heigh in inches |
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Term
___ Adipose tissue:
cushion/protection energy storage endocrine fxn - leptin, aromatase
___ adipose: thermogenesis mostly seen in newborns
Morbidly obese have entirely which type? |
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Definition
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Term
___ is an enzyme that converts androgens into estrogens. it's found in fat cells.
obese menopausal woman may have more estrogen bc of this = ?
obese men = ? |
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Definition
aromatase
women: fewer hot flashes. greater risk for breast/uterine cancer
men: gynecomastia, prostate problems |
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Term
____: peptide that acts on CNS to regulate eating behavior, energy balance, and reproduction
high levels of this may cause ___ by activating NK cells and T lymphs |
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Definition
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Term
____: atherosclerotic plaques in arteries that interfere with blood flow in legs
___: consist of coronary artery disease, valvular disease, hypertensive haert disease, cardiomyopathy |
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Definition
Peripheral vascular disaese
heart disease |
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Term
"Hydraulic equation":
BP = CO x PVR
so raising either or both raises BP and lowering either or both lowers BP |
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Definition
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Term
Peripheral resistance is mainly determined by what parameter? |
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Definition
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Term
To decrease BP, you need to decrease CO and/or PVR:
How would you reduce CO?
How owuld you reduce PVR? |
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Definition
Reduce HR
Reduce contractility
Reduce venous return
Reduce PVR via vasodilation
Both of these can be reduced by reducing sympathetic activity |
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Term
Basis of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system:
Increase renin = increase angiotensin = increased aldosterone = ___ peripheral resistance = ___ BP |
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Definition
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Term
Angiotensin II:
Binds to its receptors and causes:
vaso____ incrased/decreased sympathetic acitivity release of ___ |
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Definition
constriction
increased
aldosterone |
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Term
___ is most common ause of cardio disease |
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Definition
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Term
____: macromolecules of lipids and proteins. designed to transport lipids.
___: fatty acid + glycerol
___: precursor for steroid hormone, endogenous from liver, exogenous from diet |
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Definition
lipoprotein
lipid
cholesterol |
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Term
LDL and HDL
which is good and which is bad?
Main goal of lipid therapy? |
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Definition
LDL bad
HDL good
Main goal: lower ldl, raise HDL |
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Term
Main lipid-lowering agent |
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Definition
Statins - HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors |
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Term
By definition, HTN is a bp of >_/_ |
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Definition
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Term
HTN:
___: most common. Body thinks "set point" for BP should be higher (150/100 instead of 120/80)
___: due to rare tumor of adrenal medulla or sympathetic ganglia taht secretes high levels of norepinephrine ( causes vasoconstriction). Cuases PERIODIC symptoms. |
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Definition
essential
pheochromocytoma |
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Term
If pt has occasional high BP along wtih severe headache, diaphoresis (sweat), palpitations, tremor, and axiety.. think what diseas |
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Definition
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Term
Main symptoms of essential HTN |
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Definition
none!
must be diagnosed via several BP tests |
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Term
HTN treatment:
Reduce ___ via beta blockers Reduce ___ via alpha blockers or directly diating vasculature |
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Definition
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Term
Antihypertensive Drugs:
___: reduce blood volume. Include loop diuretics and thiazides
___: beta blockers, alpha antagonists, mixed andrenergic antagonists
___: calcium channel blockers
___: ACE inhibitors, Angiotensin II receptor antagonists |
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Definition
diuretics
sympatholytic drugs
vasodilators
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone inhibitors |
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Term
HTN treatment problems
Low or high ___ due to diuretics and ACE/aldosterone inhibitors, respectivley
Dry cough due to ____
Orthostatic hypotension
Malaise/fatigue due to ___ |
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Definition
K+
ACe inhibitors
Beta blockers |
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Term
When is HTN an emergency? |
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Definition
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Term
___ is reduced/absent blood flow... o2 supply is not sufficient for demand
Typically due to _____ |
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Definition
ischemia
vessel stenosis or occlusion |
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Term
types of ischemia:
___: acute chest pain - substernal, epigastric, radiates down arm or into jaw. OR presents as no symptoms
___: anginal pain, axiety, sense of dread, dyspnea
___: low CO (as in CHF), dyspnea, orthopnea, edema, usually no pain |
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Definition
acute ischemia
subacute intermittent ischemia
chronic ischemia |
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Term
Acute coronary syndromes:
STEMI NSTEMI UA |
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Definition
STEMI = acute MI with ST segment elevation
NSTEMI = acute MIwithout ST elevation
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Term
Acute MI:
Myocardial tissue death due to abrupt reduction in ___. __ is almost always present
Initial event is usually ____ |
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Definition
coronary blood flow
atherosclerosis
plaque rupture |
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Term
When is a person at most risk for AMI? |
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Definition
early morning - BP is at diurnal peak
increased viscosity due to overniight fast
cortisol at secretion peak
plus morning exercise = bad news |
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Term
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Definition
likely to have atypical presentation
gastric symptoms |
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Term
AMI treatment
____: cardiac catheterizaiton ____: break up clot |
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Definition
PCI (percutaneous coronary intervention)
thrombolytic therapy
both reperfuse tissues wtih O2 |
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Term
3 types of angina pectoris:
___: most common, recurring episodes of chest pain, often with predictable stressors. brought on by exertion, releived by rest. Cause by what two things?
___: occurs at rest or with minimal activity
___: AKA Prinzmetals - extreme fatigue with minimal exertion |
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Definition
stable angina - unmet O2 demand to myocardium or coronary atherosclerosis
unstable angina
variant |
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Term
Diagnosis:
2-20 min of substernal pain (possibly with radiation) that feels like pressure (elephant on chest)
Inditiated by exercise, eating, emotions, cold weather |
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Definition
anginal episode
If it lasts longer than 20 min, it's likely an MI |
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Term
NItrates (immediate relief via vasodilation), beta blockers, ca channel blockers to treat ____ |
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Definition
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Term
____: cardiac fxn insufficient to meet metabolic and blood flow requirements, even at resting levels
Usually caused by ___ or ___ disease
Symptoms: dysonea, orthopnea (graded by how many pillows pt needs to sleep), edema, cardiomegaly, reduced ejection fraction (below 50%), pulmonary edema |
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Definition
CHF
ischemic or HTN disease - more people survive MI's than before but then they end up with CHF |
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Term
Vicious cycle of CHF
Chronic ___ damages myocardium
___ occurs which results in progressive cardiac enlargement
Overstretching of myocardium reduces ventricular fxn with leads to more -___ |
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Definition
ischemia
remodeling
ischemia |
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Term
CHF treatment:
Reduce cardiac workload by limiting ___, losing weight, and controlling ___
Reduce blood volume by restricting ___ intake and giving diuretics.
Give drugs such as ___ or ____ |
|
Definition
activity
HTN
Sodium
ACE inhibitor or ARB or Beta blockers (if no pulm edema) |
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Term
____ = "heart muscle disease" - CHF that is NOT due to ischemic heart disease
occurs in young, previously healthy individuals Can be due to medication toxicity most cases are idiopathic following precipitating event such as pregnancy, viral infection. Spontaneous remission common |
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Definition
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Term
___:
1% of newborns have it multifactorial inheritance - increased chance of having a child with it with increased # of family members with it
____ - lead to myocardial stress, damage, and ultimately CHF due to stenosis or regurgitation
___ - can allow signficiant amt of blood to bypass lungs and thus blood is underoxygenated = cyanosis, stunting of growth, SOB |
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Definition
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Term
Congenital heart defects:
___ - congenital condition in which foramen ovale doesn't close properly. usually asymptomatic
___ - common congenital valvular disease. can lead to right sided heart failure
___ = blue baby syndrome. 4 abnormalities: overriding aorta, pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy
___: high BP in arms, low BP in legs |
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Definition
atrial septal defect
pulmonary stenosis
tetrology of fallot
coarctation of aorta |
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Term
___ - blood clot in an intact vessel
___ - thrombus that dislodges and travels to distant site where it occludes an arterial vessel
___ - venous thrombs that embolizes to a pulmonary vein |
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Definition
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Term
Virchow's triad - risk factors for PE |
|
Definition
venous stasis
hypercoagulable state
vascular injury
Also - surgical procedures such as abdominal or pelvic but especially JOINT REPLACEMENTS |
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Term
Cardiac arrhthmias:
___: bradycardia and tachycardia
___: premature systole, atrial and ventriclar (PAC and PVC) ?
___: wolfe-parkinson-white, AV nodal reentry |
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Definition
rate abnormalities
ectopic depolarizaitons
deviant pathways (reentry) |
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Term
Anti-arrhythmic drugs
Class I: __ blockers
Class II: ___ blockers
Class III: ___ blockes
Clas IV: ___ blockers |
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Definition
Na channel
Beta
K+ channel
Ca 2+ channel |
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Term
Most common chronic arrhythmia
serious risk from this problem? |
|
Definition
atrial fibrillation - creates irregularly irregular pulse
clots in atria can travel to brain and cause stroke in A fib pts |
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