Term
4 types of agency relationships with clients |
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Definition
Seller's Broker Buyer's Broker Dual Agent Facilitator |
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Term
The Agency Relationship in Real Estate Transactions form is given when? |
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Definition
At first substantive contact |
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Term
Agency disclosure must be presented in what form? Agency disclosure is not a? |
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Definition
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Term
6 stipulations of fiduciary duties to clients |
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Definition
OLD CAR Obedience Loyalty Disclosure Confidentiality Accounting Reasonable care and skill |
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Term
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Definition
Broker represents both parties to the same transaction |
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Term
Dual agency is created by? It must be in what form? |
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Definition
Agreement of broker and client in the Representation Agreement ; Writing |
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Term
A Dual Agent must keep what terms confidential unless given written permission? A Dual Agent must not? |
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Definition
PTM Price, Terms, Motivation Advocate for one party over another |
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Term
What is a Facilitator? What are the responsibilities of a Facilitator? |
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Definition
A broker or salesperson that provides services without taking on fiduciary duties (besides confidentiality); Perform services but not represent either party |
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Term
Is a written Facilitator agreement required? |
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Definition
No, but it is recommended |
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Term
If a Facilitator shows property listed by the Facilitator's broker, the Facilitator is now considered the |
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Definition
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Term
If a Facilitator accepts a showing to a buyer who is represented by the Facilitator's broker, the Facilitator is now considered the |
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Definition
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Term
Agency representation trumps |
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Definition
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Term
All agency agreements must be in? And signed by whom? |
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Definition
Writing ; Signed by the client and the broker/salesperson |
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Term
An agency agreement must include? |
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Definition
A definite expiration date, Legal description of the property, List price and any other terms required by seller, Amount of compensation and how it is computed, Negotiable commission clause must be in 10-point boldface type and placed immediately before provision of broker compensation |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What is an override or broker protection clause? When must a protective list be given to the seller? |
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Definition
Entitles broker to commission if prospect buys after listing expires ; Within 72 hours |
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Term
What is the maximum amount of time an override (broker protection) clause can have effect? Can it terminate earlier? |
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Definition
6 months residential, 2 years reside ; Yes, if seller lists with another broker |
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Term
A BPO is not and should state that it is not a/an? |
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Definition
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Term
Real Estate License Law and Administration is regulated by? Who regulates Licensees? |
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Definition
Chapter 82 of the Minnesota Statutes ; The Department of Commerce |
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Term
What disciplinary actions can the Commissioner of Commerce take? |
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Definition
Deny, suspend, or revoke license, or fine or censure licensee |
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Term
Who must hold a real estate license? |
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Definition
Anyone, who for another and for a fee, lists, sells, exchanges, manages, buys, or rents real estate ; Any person who buys or sells in 5 or more transactions in 1 year period without licensee representation |
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Term
What are the exceptions to who must hold a real estate license? |
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Definition
An attorney, court appointed persons (trustees not exempt if receiving a fee), employees of a residential building owner (applies to leasing not renting), sale of mobile homes not attached to land |
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Term
Commercial loan brokers must be licensed as? |
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Definition
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Term
Special standards of conduct for commercial loan brokers |
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Definition
Fees received prior to loan funding must be deposited in escrow account within 48 hours after receipt; Client has 3 business days to cancel most loans |
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Term
A limited brokers license allows? |
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Definition
A person to buy or sell an unlimited number of properties, but not employ salespeople or represent others in a transaction |
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Term
How many transactions can a person be involved in per year without holding a license? What's the exemption? |
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Definition
4 or fewer ; 25 or fewer per year if transactions purpose are the resale of newly constructed residential or commercial buildings |
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Term
What may be issued upon the death or incapacity of a principal broker? By whom?Who is it issued to and what is it's effect? |
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Definition
A temporary 45 day brokers license ; the Commissioner of Commerce ; A qualified salesperson, allows time to find another principal broker or for a qualified salesperson within the brokerage to take the broker class and exam |
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Term
What must a qualified salesperson be if issued a temporary 45 day brokers license in a corporation/partnership/LLC? |
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Definition
An officer of the company |
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Term
When to MN Real Estate Licenses expire? When is the timely renewal deadline? Who renews a licensees license? |
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Definition
June 30 at the end of each 24 month period ; June 15 ; The primary broker |
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Term
What is the general time frame window that a licensee must communicate issues to the Commissioner of Commerce? |
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Definition
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Term
What must be communicated to the Commissioner of Commerce within 10 days? |
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Definition
Name or address change of licensee, Suspension or revocation of ANY occupational license in ANY state, Civil judgments involving fraud misrepresentation or conversion of funds, Gross misdemeanor charges involving fraud misrepresentation or conversion or funds, or any criminal felony offense ; Closure of a brokerage trust account |
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Term
What are the responsibilities of a primary broker? |
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Definition
Provide adequate supervision of salespeople and employees in all offices of brokerage, Deliver documents to all parties upon signing or as soon as available, Retain copies of all transaction related documents for 6 years |
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Term
What may a primary broker be charged with for a salesperson's/employee's violation of license law? |
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Definition
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Term
How must a primary broker set up the account for the deposit of trust funds? What type of funds are to be deposited in a primary brokers trust fund? |
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Definition
Account must be an interest-bearing demand account (checking or savings) and pay the highest current passbook savings account rate of interest ; Earnest money, rent for clients, damage deposits, any funds received on behalf of any person |
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Term
When must earnest money be deposited by? |
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Definition
The third business day after receipt, unless agreed upon by both parties |
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Term
What are the stipulations for accepting a nondepositable item for earnest money? |
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Definition
Must obtain seller's approval ; Seller and buyer must agree on nondepositable item ; Receipt must be given to offeror of the item ; Escrow agent must have written authorization from offoer to hold item and authorization must be signed by agent |
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Term
A broker's prohibited actions involving a trust account include? |
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Definition
Commingling (except to maintain accounts and banking fees), depositing commissions/management fees ; Issuing an non-sufficient funds (NSF) check from account ; converting funds for personal use |
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Term
How may a salesperson receive payment from a client? |
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Definition
Through the brokerage for commissions, by a client for activities that do not require a license (direct reimbursement) |
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Term
Can a salesperson receive a commission check from a client? |
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Definition
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Term
Prohibited actions for a licensee include |
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Definition
Making false claims to the Commissioner, disclosing terms of offers with non-represented parties, encourage breach of listing, discourage the use of an attorney, act as a dual agent without proper disclosure and consent, discriminate, violate antitrust laws, accept undisclosed kickbacks, commingle or convert funds, misrepresent through statements or omission |
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Term
Mandatory actions for a licensee include |
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Definition
Disclose license status to appropriate parties, Deposit appropriate funds into a trust account, Disclose licensee's current or future financial interest before negotiations, Disclose material facts |
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Term
A seller can defer disclosure of property to who? |
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Definition
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Term
A material fact is one that |
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Definition
Could adversely and significantly affect an ordinary purchaser's use and enjoyment of the property, or it's intended use |
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Term
Stigmatized property issues that are not material fact and do not need to be disclosed are |
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Definition
Past occupant had HIV or AIDS ; property was the site of a suicide, accidental or natural death ; property has perceived paranormal activity ; property is located in a neighborhood with any adult home, community-based residential facility, or nursing home |
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Term
There is no duty to disclose information regarding a sex offender if |
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Definition
Licensee or seller provides written notice of how buyer/renter can obtain this information from the MN Dept of Corrections |
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Term
How long is a seller liable for after closing for failing to disclose known material fact about a property? What kind of action can the buyer bring against the seller? |
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Definition
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Term
What must be disclosed in all advertisements for listed property? |
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Definition
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Term
How long does a claimant have to apply for recovery funds from the Real Estate Education, Research, and Recovery Fund (REERRF) |
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Definition
1 year from final judgement against licensee |
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Term
The Dept of (BLANK) is the division of the government that oversees and regulates the real estate industry in MN |
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Definition
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Term
A real estate broker or salesperson providing services without taking on fiduciary duties is acting as a/an (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
An individual may become involved in no more than (BLANK) in a 12 month period without becoming a real estate licensee |
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Definition
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Term
Unless the buyer and seller agree otherwise, a broker must deposit earnest money into the trust account no later than the (BLANK) after receipt |
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Definition
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Term
To avoid commingling, a broker receiving a (BLANK) from a seller must not deposit the check into the trust account |
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Definition
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Term
Brokers must provide all employees and salespersons working on behalf of the broker with (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
A commercial loan broker must be a (BLANK) |
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Definition
Licensed real estate broker |
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Term
A broker who relocates her office to a a different office building must notify the Commissioner (BLANK) of the move |
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Definition
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Term
A court-appointed appointed trustee, an attorney, and a residential building owner's employees are (BLANK) from real estate licensing requirements |
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Definition
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Term
Upon passing the real estate licensing exam, the candidate must complete the licensing requirements and submit an application (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
A salesperson acting as a facilitator and showing a property listed by the salesperson's brokerage must act as the (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
A (BLANK) may be issued to a qualified salesperson if the primary broker becomes incapacitated |
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Definition
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Term
Brokers must keep and maintain records of trust account activity, representation agreements, purchase agreements, and so on for a minimum of (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
A loan broker must deposit any fees into an escrow account within (BLANK) after receipt |
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Definition
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Term
A form of co-ownership with no rights of survivorship and allows for unequal shares of ownership |
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Definition
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Term
A form of co-ownership that includes the right of survivorship and requires equal shares |
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Definition
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Term
Ownership by one person or entity |
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Definition
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Term
If married, this term applies to the purchase or sale of real property |
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Definition
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Term
What is often used in the resolution of a divorce decree in terms of real property? |
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Definition
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Term
A deed in MN will always to default to this form of ownership unless otherwise specified in the deed |
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Definition
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Term
A decree of dissolution of marriage (divorce) severs all joint tenancy except |
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Definition
Those stated (preserved) in the decree |
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Term
What does divorce decree do in terms of real estate ownership with a spouse? |
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Definition
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Term
This may be used to release the spousal interest in real property |
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Definition
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Term
Buyer's should obtain whos advice to determine the best form of co-ownership? |
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Definition
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Term
What is a Common Interest Community (CIC)? |
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Definition
Any entity with the right to charge mandatory assessment fees |
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Term
What type of CIC properties does the MN Common Interest Ownership Act regulate |
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Definition
Condominiums/Townhomes, Cooperatives, Planned Unit Developments (PUDs) |
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Term
What type of properties does the MN Common Interest Ownership Act NOT regulate? |
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Definition
Multi-tenant rental properties, single-family homes unless part of a CIC |
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Term
Type of ownership in a condominium? |
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Definition
Fee Simple (or Freehold Estate), plus an undivided interest in the common elements as Tenants in Common |
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Term
When converting a building into a condominium, what type of notice is required to current tenants? |
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Definition
120 days (4 months) to vacate, 60 day option to purchase from the day of notice |
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Term
Any common element that is reserved for the use of one or more unit(s) to the exclusion of other units ; Examples |
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Definition
Limited Common Interest ; balconies, storage units, parking spaces |
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Term
Each condominium owner, upon receiving the deed, automatically becomes part of what? |
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Definition
The homeowners association |
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Term
What powers do homeowners associations have regarding condominiums? |
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Definition
Charge and collect assessments, Power to file and foreclose a lien by advertisement for unpaid assessments, hold annual meetings |
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Term
Does a buyer have a right of rescission when buying a condominium? How long? |
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Definition
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Term
A Subdivided Land Act property is? What type of property do they include? |
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Definition
Any offering of more than 10 parcels of real estate, that is or will be divided for the purpose of sale or lease in MN ; Timeshares |
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Term
Developer requirements for offering and selling a property under the Subdivided Land Act should? What is not required? |
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Definition
Register with the Commissioner, file a public offering statement, deliver the public offering statement to each potential buyer, make advertising available for inspection by the Commissioner ; On-site inspection by the Dept of Commerce |
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Term
What is the MN property tax year duration? When is property tax due in MN? Who is property tax paid to? |
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Definition
January 1-December 31 ; May 15 and October 15, or 21 days after postmark date on tax statement, whichever is later ; Paid to the county ; The county in which the property is located |
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Term
How is late MN property tax penalized? How is the penalty amount determined? How is it not determined? |
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Definition
Interest penalty charged ; Amount of tax owed, homestead classification, postmark date on the tax statement, postmark date of when payment was sent ; Penalty not based on value |
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Term
Cities may assess a fee for what? |
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Definition
Performing maintenance to be in compliance with codes (snow removal, weed control), unpaid city provided utilities (sewer,water,trash), special assessments |
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Term
Foreclosure redemption period for county tax |
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Definition
5 years for a homesteaded property, 3 years for other property |
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Term
A seller of residential property must do what before signing a purchase agreement? |
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Definition
Disclose all material facts |
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Term
When is disclosure not required by a seller/occupant? |
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Definition
When a qualified party has inspected the property, When a lender is foreclosing on a property or when occupant is giving deed in lieu, When selling to a current tenant, selling to a family member, Gifting a property |
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Term
Additional seller disclosure is required for what? |
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Definition
Knowledge or suspicion of methamphetamine production |
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Term
Minnesota requires sellers to disclose what before the seller signs and accepts an offer? |
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Definition
Whether or not municipal services are available and connected, Location of all wells and septic systems and that they comply with laws, Whether each well is in use/not in use/sealed |
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Term
Seller is liable for how long for inacurate disclosure of a well? Of a septic system? |
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Definition
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Term
What is issued by a licensed septic inspector? |
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Definition
Certificate of Compliance |
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Term
Existing septic systems certificate of compliance is valid for how long? A new systems certificate of compliance? What requires a new certificate of compliance? |
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Definition
3 years ; 5 years ; Addition of a bedroom/bathroom |
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Term
What assures a buyer that a properties septic system is in compliance? |
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Definition
A building permit or Certificate of Occupancy |
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Term
Storage tanks on a residential property are |
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Definition
A material fact and must be disclosed by the seller |
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Term
Exemptions to PCA (Pollution Control Agency) seller disclosure laws for storage tanks |
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Definition
Motor fuel tanks 1100 gallons or less, heating oil tanks 1100 gallons or less, heating fuel tanks on or above basement floor |
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Term
How much notice does the PCA require for installation or removal of a storage tank? How much notice do they require for completing paperwork on installed or removed tanks? |
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Definition
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Term
A state law that applies to the sale of more than 10 parcels of land and requires registration with the Commissioner of Commerce, filing of a Public Offering Statement, and a real estate license to sell parcels is the (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
The (BLANK) is affected by the postmark date of the statement and payment, as well as homestead classification. What is (BLANK) not affected by? |
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Definition
Delinquent tax penalty rate ; Penalty rate not based on value |
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Term
The Subdivided Lands Act requires (BLANK) of the development with the Commissioner of Commerce and the filing of a (BLANK) |
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Definition
Registration ; Public offering statement |
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Term
Common Interest Community (CIC) associations, cities, cooperatives, and counties may levy foreclosable (BLANK) on a property |
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Definition
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Term
A (BLANK) of marriage severs all joint tenancies except those joint tenancies preserved in the decree |
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Definition
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Term
In a common interest community, reserved parking stalls and balconies would be considered (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
A (BLANK) and (BLANK) deed would sever a married couple's joint tenancy ownership in their homestead and release their spousal interests in any remaining property |
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Definition
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Term
Property where an individual owner would have (BLANK) ownership in severalty in a unit, combined with an undivided interest in the (BLANK) as a tenant in common of the property is a condominium |
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Definition
Fee simple (Freehold estate) ; Common elements |
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Term
Sellers of residential property are required to disclose if there are (BLANK) on the land, because it's a material face |
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Definition
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Term
A landlord selling a home to a home's current renter would NOT have to provide a (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
Condominiums, cooperatives, and planned communities are examples of (BLANK) |
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Definition
Common interest communities or CICs |
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Term
According to the Common Interest Ownership Act, a (BLANK) property is NOT a common interest community |
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Definition
Multitenant rental , single-family home if not part of a CIC |
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Term
Before accepting an offer, Minnesota law requires property sellers to disclose information concerning (BLANK) systems to potential buyers |
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Definition
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Term
A seller is liable for inaccurate well disclosures for (BLANK) and inaccurate septic disclosures for (BLANK) from closing |
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Definition
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Term
A seller's disclosure form is NOT required if the seller obtains an inspection from a qualified (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
In terms of a mortgage, the buyer is the? The lender is the? |
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Definition
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Term
All contracts for deed must be recorded by the buyer within how long after execution of the agreement? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the remedy for default in a contract for deed? What does it return to the seller? |
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Definition
Termination of Cancellation ; Equitable title |
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Term
When is foreclosure by advertisement used? What is it used for? What are the notification requirements to the borrower? |
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Definition
When a mortgage contains a power of sale clause ; used for foreclose out of court on a mortgage or HOA assessment liens ; 6 weeks consecutive published notice and 4 weeks personally delivered notice prior to sale |
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Term
What is included in a foreclosure by advertisement notice? What does it not include? |
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Definition
Name of mortgagor and mortgagee, original principal amount, date of mortgage, amount due and taxes paid, legal description, time and location of sale, redemption period ; Cause of default |
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Term
What is strict foreclosure? Is it used in MN? |
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Definition
Direct transfer of property form mortgagor to mortgagee by a court ruling with no statutory redemption period ; No |
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Term
How long is the equitable redemption period in a foreclosure? What does it allow the borrower to do? |
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Definition
As long as the lender allows ; cure the default and stop foreclosure |
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Term
What happens at a sheriff's foreclosure sale? What does the highest bidder receive? |
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Definition
Foreclosed property is sold at public auction ; A sheriff's certificate of sale |
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Term
What is the statutory redemption period? |
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Definition
Period after the sheriff's sale where mortgagor can redeem property by paying foreclosure sale price in full (typically principal, interest, and fees) |
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Term
What are the statutory redemption periods? |
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Definition
6 months for most properties ; 12 months for properties with mortgage more than 1/3 payed off, agriculturally used lands over 10 acres, any property over 40 acres ; 5 weeks if a property is abandoned |
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Term
What evidence is required to consider a property abandoned? What is not evidence? |
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Definition
broken windows, doors broken or off hinges, gas electric or water services terminated, garbage or sanitary problems, two or more police reports of trespassing, property is below standards of public safety and sanitation ; disconnected phone or cable |
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Term
In terms of foreclosure, what may result in a personal court judgement? When can they be used? |
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Definition
A deficiency judgement ; Only in 12 month redemption periods or in a judicial foreclosure |
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Term
Who may be appointed to manage property during the statutory redemption period? |
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Definition
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Term
What may the holder of a sheriff's certificate do? What may they not do? |
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Definition
Inspect the property, secure the property if necessary, hire a property manager ; Immediately remove tenants abandoned personal property |
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Term
Who is entitled to mechanics lien rights on a property? Examples? |
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Definition
Anyone who performs services for the improvement of real property ; Architects, engineers, surveyors, general contractors, sub-contractors, material suppliers |
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Term
When to mechanic lien rights attach to a property? How is this accomplished? |
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Definition
As soon as labor, skill, or materials are furnished ; By giving a written lien notice to the property owner |
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Term
What must be included in a written contract for improvement of real property? |
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Definition
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Term
If a contract for improvement of property is verbal, how is a lien notice delivered to the property owner? |
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Definition
Delivered in writing, either via personal delivery or certified mail, within 10 days of the verbal agreement |
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Term
How long does a contractor have to record/perfect a lien? |
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Definition
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Term
How long does a sub-contractor have to give notice of a lien right? |
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Definition
45 days from starting work |
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Term
In terms of foreclosure, what does homestead status protect owners against? |
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Definition
Foreclosure of primary residence under 160 acres by unpaid creditors holding judgments |
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Term
What are the exempt limits on value for homestead status? |
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Definition
300k, 750k on agricultural homesteads |
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Term
What type of judgment does homestead status not protect against? |
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Definition
Property tax or special assessment liens , mechanics liens, mortgage liens, CIC or HOA liens |
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Term
What establishes recording procedures of tax and fees? |
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Definition
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Term
Who pays state deed tax (transfer tax)? Who is it paid to? What is the tax rate? |
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Definition
Seller when deed is recorded ; County treasurer ; 0.33% or 3.30 per thousand |
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Term
Who pays mortgage tax registry? What is the tax rate? |
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Definition
The mortgagor/borrower/buyer ; 0.23% or 2.30 per thousand |
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Term
How does a property owner register a Torrens property? What may be required to create or subdivide a Torrens property? |
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Definition
Apply to the district court for a Certificate of Title ; A registered land survey |
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Term
What does a court do with a Certificate of Title? What about the original certificate? |
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Definition
Places it in the Register of Titles as evidence of ownership ; It is held by the Registrar of Titles |
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Term
How does a transfer of a Torrens property occur? |
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Definition
Seller gives registered property abstract (RPA) and deed to seller ; buyer presents deed to Registrar of title ; Registrar records deed, transfers current interest to new Certificate of Title and enters it into the Registrar of Titles |
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Term
How long does a new home warranty cover defective materials and faulty workmanship? |
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Definition
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Term
How long does a new home warranty cover defects caused by faulty installation of plumbing, electrical, heating, ventilation, and cooling systems? |
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Definition
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Term
How long does a new home warranty cover major structural defects? |
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Definition
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Term
By definition, what does a statutory new home warranty cover? What does it not cover? |
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Definition
Defects caused by noncompliance with building standards in new homes and home improvements ; Damage |
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Term
When does a new home warranty take affect? Do they transfer to subsequent owners? |
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Definition
They buyer's first legal occupancy or closing, whichever comes first ; Yes |
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Term
With a new home warranty, how long does a homeowner have to contact the contractor to remedy a default? In what form must the contact be? |
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Definition
6 months from the discovery of the defect ; In writing |
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Term
With a new home warranty, how long does the contractor have to inspect the defect? How long does the contractor have to offer a remedy to a defect? |
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Definition
30 days from receipt of notice ; 15 days from inspection |
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Term
With a new home warranty, if a contractor does not respond a homeowners request to repair a defect, how long does a homeowner have to file a lawsuit? |
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Definition
Within 180 days of notifying the contractor |
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Term
What are the federal protected classes? |
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Definition
Race, religion, color, sex, national origin, familial status, handicap/disability |
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Term
What are the Minnesota protected classes? |
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Definition
Marital status, sexual preference, receipt of public assistance |
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Term
What does the MN Statute of Frauds require? |
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Definition
That any interest in real property be transferred via a written contract to be enforceable and signed by those who must perform |
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Term
What are the exemptions to the MN Statute of Frauds? |
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Definition
Residential leases with 11 or fewer units and 12 months or less duration do not have to be in writing, leases of any type of property 12 months or less do not have to be in writing |
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Term
When is a written lease required? |
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Definition
Any apartment building with 12 or more units, any lease that exceeds 12 months |
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Term
When must security deposits be returned to a lessee after lease is terminated? What must be included with the funds? |
|
Definition
3 weeks (21 days) ; 1% simple non-compounding interest |
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Term
When does interest start accruing on a security deposit? |
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Definition
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Term
Why may a landlord retain funds when returning a security deposit? Why may a landlord NOT retain funds? |
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Definition
No new address is given by the tenant, if rent is owed, or if there are damages to the rental ; Normal wear and tear |
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Term
After how long after a lessee abandons a lease may a landlord sell or dispose of personal property left by the former lessee? |
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Definition
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Term
How much notice must a landlord give a former lessee before the landlord disposes of that lessees abandoned property? |
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Definition
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Term
Due to the statutory redemption period, a holder of the sheriff's sale certificate may not? |
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Definition
Immediately remove tenant's abandoned property |
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Term
A landlord is required to give prior notice to enter a rental except in what situations? |
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Definition
An emergency, to determine a tenants safety, to comply with law enforcement |
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Term
If vacating a property between November 15 and April 15, a tenant is required to give the landlord what? Why? |
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Definition
A 3 day notice ; To secure the property for winter |
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Term
The statutory redemption period for mortages 1/3 payed off, parcels in Ag use over 10 acres, or any property over 40 acres is (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
The MN Registry Tax is computed as (BLANK) of the mortgage amount |
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Definition
.23% or 2.30 in a thousand |
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Term
If a buyer defaults on a contract for deed, the process the seller would undertake to regain equitable title is called (BLANK) |
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Definition
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The MN State Deed Tax is computed as (BLANK) of the net sales price |
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Definition
.33% or 3.30 in a thousand |
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Term
Surveyors, engineers, material suppliers, contractors, and subcontractors have lien rights only if they provide a (BLANK) in their contract |
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Definition
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Term
In a verbal agreement, a contractor may NOT file a lien unless they provided the property owner with the written lien notice within (BLANK) of the verbal agreement |
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Definition
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Term
Landlords are required to store and care for a tenants's abandoned property for a minimum of (BLANK) and provide a (BLANK) notice prior to disposal |
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Definition
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A landlord must provide the tenant with a written notice explaining any amounts withheld from a security deposit within (BLANK) of lease termination |
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Definition
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Term
An owner of Torrens registered property who wants to subdivide the parcel would order a (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
Title to Torrens property transfers upon (BLANK) of the (BLANK) |
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Definition
Registration ; Certificate of Title |
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Term
A rural property under homestead protection may include up to (BLANK) |
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Definition
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Term
In Minnesota, nonjudicial foreclosure s known as (BLANK) |
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Definition
Foreclosure by advertisement |
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Term
The classifications protected under the Minnesota Human Rights Act but NOT under the Federal Fair Housing Act are (BLANK), (BLANK), and (BLANK) |
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Definition
MSP: Marital Status, Sexual Orientation, and receipt of Public Assistance |
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Term
Statutory new home warranties begin at first legal occupancy or (BLANK), whichever occurs first |
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Definition
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Term
The Statutory New Home Warranty covers (BLANK) caused by substandard workmanship and faulty installation of electrical, plumbing, and HVAC systems |
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Definition
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