Term
| A 22-year-old young female presents with a frothy yellow-green discharge and also complains of pain during intercourse. A pelvic exam showed small ulcers along the vaginal wall and cervix. What is the likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
Trichomoniasis
Explanation: The female is most likely suffering from trichomoniasis, an STD caused by a single-celled protozoa T. vaginalis. This disease affects both men and women equally. In females, the most common infection site is the vagina, but in the male the most common site of infection is the urethra. (FMQ1Q12) |
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Term
| A 50-year-old female of Caucasian descent is complaining of arthralgia, tendinitis and increasing hand deformity. The physician suspects an autoimmune disorder and orders a blood tests and renal function tests. Blood tests indicate a high level of anti-DNA antibodies. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following? |
|
Definition
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation: SLE is an autoimmune disorder marked by organ specific symptoms and a set of inflammatory multisystem symptoms. (FMQ1Q13) |
|
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Term
| The Z-deformity or ‘hitchhikers’ thumb’ is a characteristic of which autoimmune system disorder? |
|
Definition
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation: Z-deformity is a characteristic of SLE that arises from tendon/or joint capsule contracture. (FMQ1Q14) |
|
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Term
| Which syndrome, marked by inflammation and destruction of the exocrine glands, produces symptoms like dry mouth, dry eyes and rheumatoid arthritis? |
|
Definition
Sjögren’s syndrome
Explanation: Sjögren’s syndrome, originally identified in 1933, can be primary, when it is by itself, or secondary when it is found associated with other diseases. (FMQ1Q15) |
|
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Term
| A 46-year-old male cancer patient, undergoing chemotherapy presents with small, dense, white ‘snowballs’ in the vitreous. A closer examination showed white foci of infection in the choroid and overlying retina. What would the diagnosis be? |
|
Definition
Fungal infection (Candida albicans)
Explanation: Internal fungal infection of the orbit is usually due to Candida albicans and is typically seen in patients with immunosuppression, intravenous drug use and poorly controlled diabetes. (FMQ1Q18) |
|
|
Term
| Which disease is an acute febrile eruptive disease, commonly seen in infants and associated with fever of unknown etiology lasting more than five days, bilateral congestion of ocular conjunctiva, redness and fissuring of lips and oral cavity? |
|
Definition
Kawasaki disease
Explanation: Kawasaki disease has attracted much attention recently, because of coronary artery lesions (mainly aneurysms seen in about 5%-10% of the patients). These are believed to have caused sudden death, myocardial infarction or mitral insufficiency. (FMQ1Q19) |
|
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Term
| A 35-year-old female presented with edema of eyelid and lacrimal gland and local lymph nodes. Patient history revealed that patient had just returned from a vacation in South America. What is the most likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
Chagas disease
Explanation: Chagas disease is a protozoan infection commonly seen in South America. It often begins with a periocular bite that transmits the pathogen, Trypanosoma cruzi into the victim. (FMQ1Q22) |
|
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Term
| Which of the following eye infections is the most common chronic conjunctivitis worldwide, produces symptoms like grainy follicles in the conjunctiva, and is significant as a preventable cause of blindness |
|
Definition
Trachoma
Explanation: Trachoma is caused by chlamydia trachomatis and can lead to blindness in population with poor hygiene. (FMQ1Q23) |
|
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Term
| This eye infection can cause conjunctivitis initially and then initiate recurrent attacks, leading to corneal ulceration and poor vision. Which of the following eye infections is being discussed here? |
|
Definition
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Explanation: HSV can sometimes cause acute retinal necrosis, a rapidly progressive blinding disorder. (FMQ1Q24) |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following diseases is the most common viral infection that is highly contagious, and produces symptoms such as acutely red and uncomfortable eyes with scanty discharge and lymphoid follicles in the conjunctiva lining the eyelids? |
|
Definition
Adenovirus conjunctivitis
Explanation: Adenovirus conjunctivitis is caused by adenovirus types 3,4,7,8 or 19 and is highly contagious. (FMQ1Q25) |
|
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Term
| A 52-year-old male presented with confusion, sensory disturbances, poor coordination and a disturbed sleep cycle. Patient history revealed a recent trip to Africa and the fact that the initial symptoms were fever, headaches, joint pains, itching. The physician diagnosed this as a case of sleeping sickness. What is the recommended line of treatment? |
|
Definition
Melarsoprol and Eflornithine
Explanation: Pentamidine and suramin are used for treating sleeping sickness in the early hemolymphatic stages. Whereas melarsoprol and eflornithine are used as treatments in the late stages that manifest central nervous system involvement. (FMQ1Q26) |
|
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Term
| A 20-year-old female presented with an awkward gait–tendency to fall and stumble readily accompanied by nystagmus and a coarse intention tremor. Patient’s history indicated a few other affected individuals in the extended family but her parents are asymptomatic. Which neurodegenerative genetic disorder is being discussed here? |
|
Definition
Friedrich’s ataxia
Explanation: Friedrich’s ataxia is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait that affects males and females equally. It can occur in both: during childhood or in early adulthood. (FMQ1Q28) |
|
|
Term
Symptoms of left-sided heart failure are characterized by all of the following except:
a. Hemoptysis
b. Low cardiac output
c. Shortness of breath
d. Swelling of both lower limbs
e. Dyspnea on exertion |
|
Definition
The correct answer was response d.
Explanation: Left sided heart failure is due to backward failure of the left ventricle that causes congestion of the pulmonary vasculature. The symptoms are predominantly respiratory symptoms, such as dyspnea on exertion and in severe cases, dyspnea at rest, and hemoptysis. Orthopnea or breathlessness when lying flat may also occur. Another symptom suggestive of left sided heart failure is "cardiac asthma", a condition known as paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea that occurs as sudden onset, severe breathlessness, at nighttime. Other symptoms include fatigue, exercise intolerance, confusion, dizziness and coldness of the extremities. (FMQ1Q30) |
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|
Term
| A 25-year-old white male, presented with clubbing and cyanosis, full pulses and prominent carotid pulsation. Clinical tests show right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary ejection systolic murmur. Which one of the following would be a likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
Fallot’s tetralogy
Explanation: The clinical diagnosis of Fallot’s tetralogy is marked by a “tetralogy” of signs: cyanosis, pulmonary ejection systolic murmur, right ventricular hypertrophy and single second sound (aortic)–not age specific. (FMQ1Q31) |
|
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Term
| Which of the following causes of Ostium secundum (atrial septal) defect is most commonly seen? |
|
Definition
Oval fossa defects
Explanation: Ostium secundum defects may be in the sinus venosus or the secundum septum. Of these the Oval fossa defects are seen in about 75% of affected individuals. Coronary sinus defect (rare form of atrial septal defect in the position of the coronary sinus, which is absent or unroofed and sometimes associates with a left superior vena cava entering the left atrium.) Oxford Textbook of Medicine. (FMQ1Q32) |
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Term
| Post-streptococcal sequelae that presents a few weeks after a skin infection with Streptococcus pyogenes is: (2) |
|
Definition
Acute rheumatic fever
Glomerular Nephritis
Explanation: Post-streptococcal sequelae are non-suppurative presentations that occur after a Streptococcus pyogenes infection, acute rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Unlike infectious conditions that are caused due to the presence of the pathogenic organism, post Streptococcal sequelae are due to Streptococcal antigen-antibody complexes that cross-reacts with components of the heart, joints and skin. (FMQ1Q37) |
|
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Term
| To evaluate for active Hepatitis C infection, what clinical tests would you recommend? |
|
Definition
HCV-PCR
Explanation: HCV-PCR or HCV Viral load is an RT-PCR that detects active HCV infection. Antibody tests such as HCV spot or ELISA are positive in an infected person. After a person has tested positive for HCV antibodies, or if a person is symptomatic, HCV viral load test is usually performed to confirm active HCV infection. PCR is necessary because in 25–45% exposed to HCV, viral clearance occurs naturally, without treatment intervention. (FMQ1Q38) |
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Term
All of the following are true for pulmonary circulation except which of the following?
a. In the fetus, 50% of the cardiac output goes to pulmonary circulation
b. Angiotensin is broken down
c. Bradykinin is inactivated
d. Hypoxia causes vasoconstriction
e. Pulmonary circulation loop is virtually bypassed in fetal circulation |
|
Definition
The correct answer was response e.
Explanation: Since fetal lungs are collapsed, blood passes from the right atrium directly into the left atrium through the foramen ovale—an open passage between the two atria. The pulmonary circulation loop is virtually bypassed in fetal circulation. Only 5%-10% of the overall cardiac output goes to the lungs because most of the blood in the pulmonary trunk bypasses the lungs by entering a fetal vessel called the ductus arteriosus, which connects the pulmonary trunk to the descending portion of the aortic arch. (FMQ1Q40) |
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Term
| In Budd-Chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is: |
|
Definition
Hepatic veins
Explanation: Budd-Chiari syndrome is characterized by obstruction in the hepatic vein and sometimes in the inferior vena cava. Obstruction to the hepatic venous outflow occurs at the levels of central hepatic veins, large hepatic veins, inferior vena cava, and the heart. (FMQ1Q41) |
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Term
| A 20-year-old woman presents with bilateral conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12000/mm, red cell casts in the urine and 12,000/mm serum creatinine 3 mg/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis? |
|
Definition
Wegener's granulomatosis
Explanation: Wegener's granulomatosis typically presents with severe upper respiratory tract findings such as para nasal sinus pain and drainage, and purulent or bloody nasal discharge with or without nasal mucosal ulceration. Na¬sal septal perforation may follow, leading to saddle nose deformity. Serous otitis media may occur as a result of Eustachian tube blockage that may lead to hearing loss. In about 77% of patients, Wegener's granulomatosis presents with renal disease, with mild glomerulitis with proteinuria, hematuria, and red blood cell casts. (FMQ1Q43) |
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Term
| A 25-year-old male presents with difficult to control hypertension. He complained of headache and muscle weakness. Laboratory investigations reveal sodium of 145 mmol/ L, potassium of 1.5 mmol/ L, and serum creatinine of 1 mg/ dL. What is the most probable diagnosis? |
|
Definition
Conn`s syndrome
Explanation: Conn's Syndrome, or primary hyperaldosteronism, is characterized by autonomous excessive aldosterone secretion. This leads to sodium retention and a fall in serum potassium. (FMQ1Q44) |
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Term
| Which of the following elements is a key cofactor in enzymes known to handle oxidative stress? |
|
Definition
Selenium
Explanation: Selenium functions primarily in the form of the selenoproteins - glutathione peroxidase, selenoprotein P, thioredoxin reductase, selenoprotein W, iodothyronine deiodinase and selenophosphate synthetase. Glutathione peroxidase, selenoprotein P and thioredoxin reductase are the major components of the body’s antioxidant system. They prevent peroxidative damages of membrane lipids, proteins, nucleic acids and hemoglobin, reducing the production of free radicals in the body and hence, regulate oxidative stress. (FMQ1Q47) |
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Term
| A treatment of Hodgkin's disease is mantle field radiotherapy. What is the anatomy involved in mantle field radiotherapy |
|
Definition
| neck, chest, and under arms |
|
|
Term
| What is the most likely secondary carcinoma that could develop in a 21 year old woman with Hodgin's disease treated with mantle field radiotherapy? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| An 18-year-old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers that lasted for the past 2 weeks. His blood pressure was 170/110 mm of Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Routine blood and urine examinations were normal. Antinuclear antibodies, antibodies to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies were negative. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following? |
|
Definition
| Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN) |
|
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Term
| Which Disease presents with non-specific features of systemic illness such as myalgia, arthralgia, non-erosive polyarthritis accompanying fever, weight loss and fatigue. Vasculitic damage with skin lesions such as ulcers, gangrene, palpable purpura and cutaneous infarcts are other common features. In some cases, there is hypertension. |
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Definition
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Term
| A 32-year-old woman complained of weight gain of about 10 kg within a period of 3 years. Her complaints included oligomenorrhea followed by amenorrhea for about eight months. Blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation? |
|
Definition
| T3, T4, TSH (Hypothyroidism) |
|
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Term
| What are the components of triple vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many times is triple vaccine given to babies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does Tetanus toxoid need to be considered even for superficial wounds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does Helicobacter Pylori live in the stomach? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All the following are true regarding the prognostic factors for acute pancreatitis except:
a. A low pAO2 indicates a poor prognosis
b. A high serum GGT has a good prognosis
c. Age of over 55 years usually has a good prognosis
d. A low serum albumin indicates a poor prognosis
e. Abnormal clotting time has a poor prognosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What effect does excessive alcohol have on:
blood pressure
heart rate
cardiac output |
|
Definition
| It increases all of these |
|
|
Term
| With excessive alcohol consumption, what happens to estradiol levels in women? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A 43-year-old woman has a history of dramatic mood swings, which have been occurring since early adolescence. She is quickly becoming deeply depressed for hours to days, usually in response to separation from a loved one. She also admits to "rage attacks," during which she will break items, scream, or scratch herself superficially on her arms. She has had over 30 sexual partners, many times without using contraception. Which of the following is her most likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
| Borderline personality disorder |
|
|
Term
| The psychiatric diagnosis is most closely associated with risk of future violent behavior is: |
|
Definition
| Antisocial personality disorder |
|
|
Term
A 15-year-old girl is brought in by her family as a result of their concern about her eating. She states that she is fat, and acknowledges regular laxative use in order to stay thin. She last had a menstrual period six months ago. The most likely diagnosis is:
Anorexia nervosa, binge/purge type
b. Bulimia nervosa, non-purging type
c. Bulimia nervosa, purging type
d. Eating disorder NOS |
|
Definition
| Anorexia nervosa, binge/purge type |
|
|
Term
| Lithium exposure during the first trimester of pregnancy is most likely to increase the risk of congenital abnormalities in which organ? |
|
Definition
Heart
Specifically, Ebstein's Anomaly of the Tricuspid Valve. |
|
|
Term
This disorder involves the intentional production of physical symptoms without any apparent external incentive:
a. Factitious disorder with psychological signs and symptoms
b. Malingering
c. Conversion disorder
d. Factitious disorder with physical signs and symptoms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sleepwalking disorder most commonly begins at which age?
a. 4-8 years
b. 14-18 years
c. 24-28 years
d. 44-48 years
e. 64-68 years |
|
Definition
|
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Term
All of the following factors in a patient who made a suicide attempt or aborted suicide attempt are a clear indication for inpatient hospitalization EXCEPT:
a. Patient is psychotic
b. Patient is a male over the age of 45 years
c. Suicidality is a reaction to precipitating events
d. Current impulsive behavior
e. Precautions were taken to avoid rescue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the triad of serotonin syndrome? |
|
Definition
Cognitive Effects (mental confusion, hypomania, hallucinations, agitation, heacache, coma)
Autonomic Effects (shivering, sweating, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachycardia, nausea, diarrhea)
Somatic effects (myoclonus [muschle twitching], hyper reflexia [manifested by clonus], tremor |
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Term
A 35-year-old female has failed multiple antidepressant trials. She tells you that her sister, also with depression, had a good response to Phenelzine. You start her on Phenelzine. She has an initial good response, but after several weeks admits herself to the hospital with suicidal urges. The resident on call does not renew the Phenelzine and starts her on Sertraline. The next day, she complains of having a headache and feeling dizzy. Her vital signs are a temperature of 102, pulse is 110, and blood pressure is 152/100. She is most likely suffering from which of the following conditions?
a. Idiosyncratic withdrawal disorder
b. Lithium intoxication
c. Meperidine syndrome
d. Monoamine oxidase toxicity
e. Serotonergic syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Intoxication is characterized by significant maladaptive behaviors (belligerence, agitation, impaired judgment, impulsivity, assaultiveness) and physical findings that can include vertical or horizontal nystagmus, hypertension or tachycardia, numbness or diminished responsiveness to pain, ataxia, dysarthria, muscle rigidity, seizure or coma, and hyperacusis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What common non-pharm treatment of depression can be used to treat Neuroleptic syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Best medicine for treatment of high triglycerides? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 59-year-old male presents with dyspnea, chest pain and postexertional syncope. Physical examination reveals a prominent “A” wave in jugular phase, a triple apical impulse and a loud S4. ECG is normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. Dilated cardiomyopathy
d. Pericarditis
e. Unstable angina |
|
Definition
b
Explanation: Myocardial hypertrophy impinging on the left ventricular (LV) cavity, narrowing the LV outflow tract during systole can cause dynamic obstruction. Obstruction is worsened by sympathetic stimulation. Doppler echocardiography may reveal asymmetric ventricular hypertrophy. There is usually normal or enhanced contractility and signs of dynamic obstruction. (FMQ2Q43) |
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|
Term
| What is the most common cause of Kaposi's Sarcoma besides HIV |
|
Definition
| Herpes virus 8 (via an oncogene) |
|
|
Term
Multiple True False:
b. Kaposi’s sarcoma is only seen in people in the end stages of AIDS.
c. Kaposi’s sarcoma typically acts like a benign tumor in people who don’t have HIV infection.
d. Amelanotic melanoma can masquerade histologically as Kaposi’s sarcoma.
e. A significant portion of Kaposi’s sarcomas start out as cherry angiomas. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Multiple True False:
a. Signs of chronic subdural hematoma can manifest several months or even years after a head injury
b. The majority of chronic subdural hematomas in people age 65 and older are spontaneous
c. People taking aspirin therapy show a higher incidence of chronic subdural hematoma
d. MRI is the preferred initial imaging modality for early chronic subdural hematoma
e. Chronic subdural hematomas are bilateral about 20% of the time |
|
Definition
a True
b False
c True
d False
e True |
|
|
Term
| According to the American of Ophthalmology Preferred Practice Patterns, at what age should a healthy individual with no ocular symptoms receive an initial comprehensive ophthalmic examination? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When should patients with diabetes first see and Ophthalmologist for evaluation?
Type 1
Type 2
Child bearing Women with Diabetes |
|
Definition
Type 1: 3-5 years after diagnosis
Type 2: Immediately upon diagnosis
Preg: Before Pregnancy (when women are attempting to get pregnant) and early in the first trimester |
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|
Term
Aminoglycosides Multiple True False:
a. Aminoglycosides act on the bacterial cell wall
b. Aminoglycosides are active against Staphylococci
c. Aminoglycosides are effective in the treatment of anaerobic myositis
d. Aminoglycosides are contraindicated in patients with renal impairment
e. Aminoglycosides may cause loss of visual acuity in the elderly |
|
Definition
a. False (Aminoglycosides act by preventing protein synthesis)
b. True (Aerobic Gram Pos and Gram Neg)
c. False
d. False
e. False |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of Retinal Detachment (3) |
|
Definition
Flashing Lights
Decrease Peripheral Vision
Floaters
NB: Pain is not a symptom because the retina has no pain fibers. |
|
|
Term
Match the signs and symptoms with the eye disease:
a. Sudden vision loss with scalp tenderness
b. Sudden vision loss, conjunctival injection, and eye pain in an intravenous drug user
You chose: c. Double vision and a droopy eyelid
d. Vision loss with increased waviness on an Amsler grid |
|
Definition
Although blurred vision with increased metamorphopsia is an urgent situation and requires a referral, patients will not die or increase the risk of Answer A is concerning for temporal arteritis which requires immediate high dose corticosteroids to prevent vision loss in the fellow eye.
Answer B is concerning for endogenous endophthalmitis, which is a hematologically disseminated infection of the eye
answer C is concerning for a 3rd nerve palsy if a dilated pupil is also present and may represent an aneurysm that could rupture suddenly.
Answer D: Although blurred vision with increased metamorphopsia is an urgent situation and requires a referral, patients will not die or increase the risk of worsening vision |
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|
Term
| A patient being tested for anemia has an elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Could recent alcohol consumption have influenced these results? |
|
Definition
| Yes, recent or chronic alcohol consumption can raise MCV |
|
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Term
| A 34 year old woman gave birth in hospital yesterday and today she has developed a rash covering her trunk and upper extremities. Further investigation confirms the rash is chickenpox. Does the newborn infant require treatment? If so, with what? |
|
Definition
| Varicella-Zoster immune globulin [V-ZIG] should be administered to the newborn if the mother developed chickenpox within 5 days prior to or 2 days following delivery. |
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|
Term
| Patients with latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) are at increased risk for active tuberculosis. What is the current recommended treatment for LTBI? |
|
Definition
| The current recommended standard therapy in most countries is 9 months of isoniazid therapy. The drug has more than 90% efficacy if taken the entire 9 months. Targeted tuberculin testing and treatment of latent tuberculosis infection. Am J Respir Crit Care Med. 2000;161:S221-47. Long R. Canadian Tuberculosis Standards. |
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|
Term
| A patient presents with diarrhea, alopecia as well as scaly blistering eruptions around their mouth and in the groin area. You suspect acrodermatitis enteropathica which suggests you should supplement for which nutritional deficiency? |
|
Definition
| Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a rare inherited form of zinc deficiency, characterized by periorificial and acral dermatitis, alopecia, and diarrhea. |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is true regarding screening guidelines for colorectal cancer as set forth by the US Preventive Services Task Force? |
|
Definition
| The USPSTF recommends screening beginning at age 50 years and continuing until age 75 years |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following groups of findings is consistent with the classic triad of initial presentation symptoms for patients with renal cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
| Gross hematuria, flank pain, abdominal mass |
|
|
Term
| Which disorder is characterized by temporary monocular blinding, described as a “curtain” or “shade” descending over the eye, usually of vascular origin? |
|
Definition
| Amaurosis fugax is classically described as a “curtain” or “shade” descending over the eye(s), secondary to a vascular event typically lasts 2 to 30 minutes. |
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|
Term
| What are the typical findings of Wernicke's encephalopathy, a known complication of thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency? |
|
Definition
| The classic triad of symptoms indicative of Wernicke's encephalopathy: confusion, ophthalmoplegia and ataxia. So YT and Simon RP (2004) Deficiency diseases of the nervous system. |
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|
Term
| Which drugs may cause hyperprolactinemia? |
|
Definition
| The medications that most commonly cause hyperprolactinemia are antipsychotic agents; however, some newer atypical antipsychotics do not cause this condition. Other classes of medications that cause hyperprolactinemia include antidepressants, antihypertensive agents, and drugs that increase bowel motility. These include antipsychotics (neuroleptics), phenothiazines, thioxanthenes, butyrophenones , atypical antipsychotics, antidepressants, tricyclic and tetracyclic antidepressants, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, opiates and cocaine, antihypertensive medications, verapamil, methyldopa, reserpine gastrointestinal medications, metoclopramide, domperidone |
|
|
Term
Which of the following 2 drugs can induce hypothyroidism?:
Amiodarone
Indinavir
Lithium
Levothyroxine
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine |
|
Definition
| Hypothyroidism and subclinical hypothyroidism have been reported in 5% to 20% of people taking lithium carbonate. Hypothyroidism is reported in 6% to 10% of patients receiving amiodarone. |
|
|
Term
| A 67-year-old man has stage 2 chronic kidney disease. He has had episodes of pyelonephritis in the past and has an eGFR of 70. How often should his eGFR (estimated glomerular filtration rate) be retested? |
|
Definition
| Patients with Stage 1 and 2 kidney disease, with a eGFR range (ml/min/1.73 m2) of ≥60 + other evidence of kidney disease, typically are retested every 12 months. |
|
|
Term
| Classic Triad of Reiter's Syndrome |
|
Definition
Peripheral Arthritis
Conjunctivitis
Uretheritis |
|
|
Term
| What is the "Scottie Dog" Sign mean? |
|
Definition
Spondylolisthesis
The “Scottie dog” is seen on oblique radiographs of the lumbar spine of patients with spondylolisthesis. A defect at pars interarticularis (“broken collar” or “broken neck”) will be demonstrated on oblique view. |
|
|
Term
| Which autosomal dominant condition is associated with abnormal bone growth that results in short stature with disproportionately short arms and legs, a large head, and normal intelligence and life span? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following has been shown to increase the loss of hip bone density in elderly women?
a. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)
b. Increased physical activity
c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
d. Clodronate
e. Glucosamine sulfate |
|
Definition
c: SSRI's
Use of SSRIs but not TCAs is associated with an increased rate of bone loss at the hip in older women. Diem S. Use of antidepressants and rates of hip bone loss in older women: the study of osteoporotic fractures. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the incubation period for Hepatitis B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ranson's criteria used to predict pancreatitis |
|
Definition
At admission:
1.Age in years > 55 years
2.White blood cell count > 16000 cells/mm3
3.Blood glucose > 10 mmol/L (> 200 mg/dL)
4.Serum AST > 250 IU/L
5.Serum LDH > 350 IU/L
Within 48 hours:
1.Serum calcium < 2.0 mmol/L (< 8.0 mg/dL)
2.Hematocrit fall > 10%
3.Oxygen (hypoxemia PO2 < 60 mmHg)
4.BUN increased by 1.8 or more mmol/L (5 or more mg/dL) after IV fluid hydration
5.Base deficit (negative base excess) > 4 mEq/L
6.Sequestration of fluids > 6 L |
|
|
Term
| Which hormone inhibits growth hormone secretion, inhibits secretion of insulin and glucagon, and can reduce fasting hyperglycemia in insulin dependent diabetics by suppression of glucagon secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You have a patient with acute pancreatitis. Do you expect the serum amylase return to normal sooner than the lipase in this patient? |
|
Definition
| Lipase will remain elevated 7-14 days, and generally the amylase will return to normal in 2-4 days. |
|
|
Term
| Is Vitamen D Deficiency a Risk Factor in Developing Cardiovascular Disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most prevalent cause of hyperthyroidism in North America? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What impact does each 20 mmHg increase in systolic blood pressure, above 115 mmHg, have on a patient’s risk for heart attack and stroke? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the six most commonly presenting non-acute coronary syndrome (ACS) conditions associated with increased troponin levels? |
|
Definition
pulmonary embolism
atrial fibrillation
congestive cardiac failure
renal insufficiency
myocarditis
sepsis |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements best describes troponin levels following acute coronary ischaemia?
a. Rising to a plateau level within 10–12 h of pain onset and remaining elevated for 48 h
b. Rise to plateau level over a 48 h period following pain onset
c. Rising to a plateau level within 10–12 h of pain onset and remaining elevated for 5–14 days
d. Rise to peak level within 6 h of pain onset and remaining elevated for 24 h
e. Rise to plateau level within 3-4 h of pain onset and remain elevated for 2-4 days |
|
Definition
| c. Rising to a plateau level within 10–12 h of pain onset and remaining elevated for 5–14 days |
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Term
| Jones Criteria for the Diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever |
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Definition
| five major manifestations (carditis, polyarthritis, Sydenham chorea, erythema marginatum and subcutaneous nodules) and four minor manifestations [arthralgia, fever, elevated acute phase reactant, and prolonged PR interval |
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