Term
|
Definition
nucleotide analogs
nucleotide-altering chemicals
frameshift mutagens |
|
|
Term
Nucleotide analog effects |
|
Definition
disrupt DNA and RNA replication |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Cause single- and double-strand breaks in DNA > lethal deletions |
|
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Term
|
Definition
extremophilic bacterium that is one of the most radiation-resistant organisms known by having multiple copies of its genome (4 circular DNA molecules) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
flat molecules that insert between adjacent base pairs in DNA strand that cause frameshift mutations |
|
|
Term
Intercalating agent examples |
|
Definition
Ethidium bromide: used to stain DNA in gels
Chloroquine: used to treat malaria |
|
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Term
|
Definition
an organism that requires different nutrients than its wild-type phenotype |
|
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Term
|
Definition
screens for nutritionally defective mutants - negative (indirect) selection |
|
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Term
|
Definition
parental strain of auxotroph |
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Term
|
Definition
cause mutations resulting in cancer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
increase low frequency of spontaneous reversions |
|
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Term
|
Definition
measures effect of chemical on reversion rate of histidine-requiring Salmonella auxotroph; uses direct selection; if mutagenic, reversion rate increases relative to control
|
|
|
Term
What does the presence of colonies during an Ames test reveal? |
|
Definition
the suspected substance is mutagenic in Salmonella |
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|
Term
|
Definition
donor cell contributes part of genome to recipient cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
naked DNA uptake by bacteria; about 20 genes transferred; sensitive to DNase addition |
|
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Term
|
Definition
bacterial DNA transfer by viruses; small fraction of the chromosome transferred |
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Term
|
Definition
DNA transfer during cell-to-cell contact (typically involves sex pilus) |
|
|
Term
Conjugation plasmid transfer |
|
Definition
entire plasmid transferred |
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|
Term
Conjugation chromosome transfer |
|
Definition
only Hfr cells can be donors; variable fraction of DNA transferred |
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Term
|
Definition
the lowest temperature that kills all cells in a broth in 10 minutes |
|
|
Term
An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected with a... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of an ideal antimicrobial agent? |
|
Definition
it only arrests growth of vegetative cells |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a chemical method to control the growth of microbes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chemical methods of microbial control |
|
Definition
phenols
alcohols
halogens
oxidizing agents
enzymes
antimicrobial drugs
surfactants |
|
|
Term
Washing dishes in the dishwasher with detergent and hot water is a _____ process |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the preferred method of determining the efficacy of an antimicrobial chemical in the European Union? |
|
Definition
the Kelsey-Sykes capacity test: reveals the minimum amount of time required for a particular disinfectant to be effective |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a sterilizing agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Iodophors and chloramines are similar in that they are both halogen-containing compounds that ____. |
|
Definition
slowly release their active ingredients. |
|
|
Term
What effect do aldehydes have on microbial organisms? |
|
Definition
They damage proteins and DNA |
|
|
Term
An instrument coming into contact with the skin of an immunocompromised patient should be treated with which of the following? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Compared to moist heat methods, dry heat needs which of the following in order to sterilize effectively? |
|
Definition
higher temperature and increased time |
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|
Term
Long-term storage of milk is made possible by ultra-high-temperature ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The process of filtration is a.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the most appropriate pairing of microbe and biosafety level? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Microbial growth in jellies is inhibited by the ____ condition of the food. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A scientist develops a new medication that is a protein compound and that must be administered by injection. Which of the following would be the most effective and safest means of preparing a sterile solution of the new medication? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
An antimicrobial chemical used on the skin is usually called _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Boiling water for 10 minutes is effective in ridding it of ____. |
|
Definition
both growing bacteria and enveloped viruses. |
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|
Term
Seventy percent alcohol is effective against ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The decimal reduction time is the time required to kill all the microbes in a given sample - T/F. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The compound ethylene oxide is used in ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is most susceptible to antimicrobial agents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a low-level disinfectant? |
|
Definition
quaternary ammonium compounds (quats) |
|
|
Term
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is the most toxic to humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Heavy metal and oxidizing agent disinfectants damage ____, interfering with microbial metabolism. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Disinfectants that damage membranes include ___. |
|
Definition
both alcohol and phenolics. |
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|
Term
Which of the following is used to sterilize items that should not, or cannot, be exposed to heat or water? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the most difficult to inactivate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hydrogen peroxide does NOT make a good antiseptic for open wounds because ____. |
|
Definition
catalase in human tissues neutralizes it. |
|
|
Term
Which biosafety level requires that laboratory air be HEPA-filtered but is insufficient for the safe study of Ebola? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following procedures is currently the standard test used in the United States for evaluating the efficiency of antiseptics and disinfectants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The phenol coefficient is one of the most widely used measurements of an antimicrobial agent's effectiveness - T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During production of a drug, all work area surfaces must be disinfected using sterilized disinfectants. Which of the following statements about disinfectants is true? |
|
Definition
- endospores and viruses can resist disinfectant treatment.
- disinfection can occur by physical or chemical means.
- disinfectants are used to inhibit or destroy pathogens. |
|
|
Term
Quaternary ammonium compounds are used for __. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Betadine contains what type of chemical agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Quaternary ammonium compounds are disinfectants effective against ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lysozyme is effective against nearly all disease causing agents. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Protozoan cysts are resistant to many disinfection methods. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following describes flash pasteurization? |
|
Definition
heating at 72° C for 15 seconds. |
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|
Term
Hydrogen peroxide is an effective ____. |
|
Definition
disinfecting and sterilizing agent. |
|
|
Term
Antimicrobial agents that damage the viral envelope ___. |
|
Definition
prevent attachment of the virus to its target cell.
Viral envelopes allow the viruses to attach to cells so that they can replicate. |
|
|
Term
The microbial death rate is ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A chemical agent that dissolves lipids can damage ___. |
|
Definition
cells and enveloped viruses. |
|
|
Term
Antimicrobial agents usually work best at high temperatures and high pH levels. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Slow freezing is more damaging to microbial cells that quick freezing. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Refrigeration is an effective germicidal method. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ultra-high temperature sterilization effectively ___. |
|
Definition
removes all microbes that cause diseases. |
|
|
Term
Formalin (37% formaldehyde) is used for ___. |
|
Definition
both disinfection and sterilization. |
|
|
Term
Natural antiseptics such as pine or clove oil are examples of antimicrobial compounds called ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ____ are infectious agents most resistant to antimicrobial agents or processes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Alcohols are used for ____. |
|
Definition
both antisepsis and disinfection. |
|
|
Term
Order of resistance to antimicrobial agents from least to most resistant: |
|
Definition
enveloped viruses
gram-negative bacteria
mycobacteria
prions |
|
|
Term
A nurse preparing a section of skin for an injection is an example of ___. |
|
Definition
degerming
Another example: washing hands |
|
|
Term
It has been determined that the temperature in an autoclave should reach ____ for sterilization. |
|
Definition
121° C; 15 psi for 15 minutes to sterilize small volumes. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following could be used to sterilize objects such as medical devices? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is bacteriostatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why are endospores used to measure the effectiveness of autoclave sterilization? |
|
Definition
Endospores are very hard to kill. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following techniques can be used to sterilize microbiological media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gamma irradiation is effective for sterilization because it ___. |
|
Definition
is penetrating and causes extensive molecular damage. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following could be used to sterilize a heat-sensitive liquid such as urea broth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Disinfecting agents naturally produced by microorganisms are |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The physical removal of microbes is called ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would be used to sterilize a mattress? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
By themselves, soaps have only degerming activity, not antimicrobial activity. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a feature associated with filtration? |
|
Definition
varying thicknesses of membrane filters used
Features that ARE associated with filtration:
- ability of some filters to trap viruses and proteins.
- sterilization of heat-sensitive materials.
- nitrocellulose or plastic membrane filters.
- use of HEPA filters to filter air.
|
|
|
Term
Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect __. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The process of incineration is used for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does specialized transduction differ from regular lysogeny? |
|
Definition
The prophage in specialized transduction carries with it pieces of the host chromosomal DNA. |
|
|
Term
What happens to the packaged DNA of a specialized transduced phage when it infects a new recipient cell? |
|
Definition
The host DNA integrates, with the prophage, into the new recipient chromosome. |
|
|
Term
How can specialized transduction contribute to the transfer of antibiotic resistance genes in a bacterial population? |
|
Definition
The prophage takes an antibiotic resistance gene with it and is packaged with the newly synthesized viral DNA. |
|
|
Term
How is complex transposon different from simple transposon? |
|
Definition
They have two simple transposons with another DNA sequence between them. |
|
|
Term
Why does a complex transposon often contain an extra piece of DNA between the two insertion elements? |
|
Definition
It is often a gene that confers a survival advantage to the host, such as antibiotic resistance. |
|
|
Term
How would you be able to determine if the Tn5 transposon you put into a bacterium integrated into the host genome? |
|
Definition
If the Tn5 transposon integrated into the host genome, the cells would show resistance to the antibiotic kanamycin. |
|
|
Term
What is the term used to describe bacterial cells that can naturally take up DNA from their environment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is capable of conjugation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does conjugation between an Hfr strain and an F- strain not result in two Hfr strains? |
|
Definition
Conjugation is typically disrupted before the fertility factor can be transferred. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a characteristic of a F+ cell? |
|
Definition
- ability to synthesize sex pili
- presence of a fertility factor
- ability to mate with an F- cell
|
|
|
Term
What benefit does the F- strain receive from mating with an Hfr strain? |
|
Definition
It acquires new, potentially beneficial genes from the Hfr strain. |
|
|
Term
Most bacteria have a natural ability to take up DNA from their environment? -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cellular macromolecule is the fertility factor comprised of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At which point does a recipient cell become an F+ cell? |
|
Definition
Formation of the complementary strand of the F factor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Fusion of the cell membranes
- Attachment of the sex pilus
- Transfer of the single stranded F factor
- Pulling of donor and recipient cells together
- Formation of the complementary strand of the F factor
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|
|
Term
The effects of a transposition event are equivalent to a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is required for transposition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Insertion sequences target which areas on a target DNA sequence? |
|
Definition
A sequence of nucleotides identical to the inverted repeat sequence found on the insertion sequence itself. |
|
|
Term
What makes an insertion sequence different from other DNA sequences found in a cell? |
|
Definition
They are capable of effecting their own movement from one location to another on DNA. |
|
|
Term
How does replicative transposition differ from cut-and-paste transposition? |
|
Definition
Replicative transposition results in teh transposon being copied to a new location
In cut-and-paste transposition, the entire transposon moves to the new location. |
|
|
Term
Competant cells are cells that |
|
Definition
can take up DNA from their surrounding environment and integrate it into their own chromosomes by recombination. |
|
|
Term
What characteristic of the S strain allows it to evade the immune system of the mice? |
|
Definition
The cells have a capsule. |
|
|
Term
What most likely explains the recovery of live S strain cells from a mouse injected with heat-killed S strain mixed with live R strain cells? |
|
Definition
The R strain picked up the S strain DNA, enabling it to produce a capsule. |
|
|
Term
Which finding is most surprising from Griffith's experiments? |
|
Definition
S strain cells are isolated from the blood of mice infected with heat-killed S strains and live R strains. |
|
|
Term
Transfer of random pieces of DNA mediated by phage is known as |
|
Definition
generalized transduction. |
|
|
Term
What must occur for bacterial conjugation to take place? |
|
Definition
The cells must come into contact with each other. |
|
|
Term
Which statement about conjugation is false? |
|
Definition
Conjugation is a process of bacterial reproduction.
True statements regarding conjugation:
- E. coli is the model for bacterial conjugation.
- After conjugation, each cell involved has a copy of the shared DNA.
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|
|
Term
What is unique about transduction compared to normal bacteriophage infection? |
|
Definition
Transduction transfers DNA from the chromosome of one cell to another. |
|
|
Term
How is generalized transduction different from specialized transduction? |
|
Definition
Generalized transduction is initiated during lytic cycle of a virulent bacteriophage.
Specialized transduction is initiated during the lysogenic cycle of a temperate bacteriophage. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
contains fragments of the host chromosome instead of the viral genome. |
|
|
Term
When a transducing phage interacts with a new host cell, |
|
Definition
the DNA from the previous host can recombine with the new host chromosome. |
|
|
Term
While studying a bacterial strain, a scientist notes a short DNA sequence between inverted repeats is present in both the chromosome and a plasmid within the cell. This sequence is most likely a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What was the scientific result of Frederick Griffith's experiments with Stretococcus pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
He showed that the DNA from strain S cells could transform strain R cells. |
|
|
Term
Frederick Griffith discovered |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In generalized transduction, viruses carry random DNA sequences from one cell to another. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bacteriophages are important for which of the following processes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of transposon would contain a gene for transposase? |
|
Definition
both simple and complex transposons |
|
|
Term
How do complex transposons differ from simple transposons? |
|
Definition
Complex transposons code for additional genetic elements, such as antibiotic resistance genes.
Simple transposons only code for the transposase gene essential for the transposon itself. |
|
|
Term
Antiviral medications frequently block unique ____ to prevent production of a new virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A particular microbe gains resistance to gentamicin. You might also expect this microbe to exhibit resistance against |
|
Definition
streptomycin.
Both are members of the group: aminoglycosides. Both drugs could develop resistance simultaneously through the phenomenon of cross-resistance. |
|
|
Term
A zone of inhibition measures |
|
Definition
the effectiveness of a drug. |
|
|
Term
Most broad-spectrum antibiotics act by |
|
Definition
inhibiting protein synthesis. |
|
|
Term
Why do antimicrobial agents active against mycobacteria have to be administered for months or years rather than the typical 10-30 days prescribed to treat other infections? |
|
Definition
Mycobacteria produce very slowly.
Mycobacteria take 12-24 hours to reproduce; in part due to their complex cell walls. |
|
|
Term
The process of acquiring antibiotic resistance by means of bacteriophage activity is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a nurse rubs your skin with rubbing alcohol prior to administering an injection, what process(es) is he carrying out? |
|
Definition
Antisepsis and degerming.
Rubbing - degerming
Alcohol - antisepsis |
|
|
Term
Many MRSA strains are sensitive to other antibiotics. Which of the following methods would be the best way to evaluate sensitivity to other antibiotics? |
|
Definition
disk diffusion.
The key point in identifying treatment options for MRSA is to determine which non-beta lactam antibiotics it is sensitive to. |
|
|
Term
In examining a MRSA strain, researchers find that degraded penicillin is found in the culture medium. What is the most likely mechanism of resistance? |
|
Definition
Production of beta-lactamase
Different MRSA strains can produce beta-lactamases, efflux pumps, and expressed altered PBPs to which beta-lactams cannot bind. |
|
|
Term
The first antimicrobial widely available for treatment of bacterial infections was a synthetic compound which |
|
Definition
was an antimetabolic analog. |
|
|
Term
Prokaryotes contain ____ ribosomes. |
|
Definition
70S; comprised of 50S and 30S subunits. |
|
|
Term
Antimicrobial drugs are selectively toxic. This means |
|
Definition
the drugs are more toxic to the pathogens than to the patient. |
|
|
Term
The tRNA molecule holding a growing polypeptide chain is at the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which category of antimicrobial drug works by changing the shape of a ribosome? |
|
Definition
aminoglycosides
An aminoglycoside changes the shape of a 30S subunit causing the ribosome to misread the mRNA. |
|
|
Term
Which category of antimicrobial drug essentially acts to stall a ribosome as it reads mRNA? |
|
Definition
macrolides
Macrolides block the movement of a ribosome along RNA, so the E site is never emptied and polypeptide formation is stopped. |
|
|
Term
Chloramphenicol blocks the action of the large (50S) subunit. This essentially ___. |
|
Definition
prevents the formation of peptide bonds.
Without the formation of peptide bonds, amino acids diffuse away and protein synthesis ceases. |
|
|
Term
Which antimicrobial drugs affect the structure of the ribosome itself? |
|
Definition
aminoglycosides, antisense nucleic acids, and oxazolidinones
Each of these drugs modifies or prevents the formation of the complete 70S ribosome. |
|
|
Term
The broth dilution test can provide information for determining |
|
Definition
both the MIC and the MBC (with an additional step). |
|
|
Term
Disruption of the normal microbiota can result in infections caused by which of the following microbes? |
|
Definition
both Candida albicans and Clostridium difficile |
|
|
Term
A drug is structurally similar to PABA and inhibits folic acid synthesis. It is most likely a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A topical drug ___ inhibits protein synthesis in Gram positive bacteria by preventing loading of isoleucine onto tRNA. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following drugs inhibits nucleic acid synthesis specifically in most bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can antimicrobial drugs inhibit? |
|
Definition
- protein synthesis
- nucleic acid synthesis
- formation of the cell wall
|
|
|
Term
Which of the following steps in the folic acid synthesis pathway is specifically inhibited by sulfonamides? |
|
Definition
the conversion of PABA to dihydrofolic acid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the smallest amount of a drug that will inhibit the growth and reproduction of a pathogen. |
|
|
Term
What is the correct sequence of the biosynthetic pathway that leads to the formation of DNA and RNA? |
|
Definition
- PABA
- dihydrofolic acid
- tetrahydrofolic acid
- purine and pyrimidine nucleotides
|
|
|
Term
Medications which block viral entry into cells include ___ antagonists. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria enables many antimicrobial drugs to enter the cell more easily. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following antifungals works by binding to ergosterol in membranes? |
|
Definition
both amphotericin B and nystatin |
|
|
Term
Some bacteria are resistant to erythromycin as a result of mutation of their ribosomal RNA. What type of resistance does this represent? |
|
Definition
alteration of the target of the drug. |
|
|
Term
The antimicrobial polymyxin |
|
Definition
disrupts cytoplasmic membranes. |
|
|
Term
Some bacteria are resistant to antimicrobials due to the activity of ___, which removes many of them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is polymyxin only used on the skin? |
|
Definition
It can also damage living human cell membranes, but the drug is safely used on the skin, where the outer layers of cells are dead. |
|
|
Term
Quinolones and fluoroquinolones act against what bacterial target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT associated with microbial mechanisms of resistance? |
|
Definition
denaturation of proteins
Proteins are not denatured by antimicrobial drugs. |
|
|
Term
Some bacterial cells are resistant to a variety of antimicrobials because they actively pump the drugs out of the cell. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The therapeutic range of an antimicrobial is the |
|
Definition
range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic. |
|
|
Term
Who proposed the concept of chemotherapy, that compounds might selectively kill pathogens without harming people? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following tests does NOT provide information on the lowest concentration of drug effective on a pathogen? |
|
Definition
diffusion susceptibility test
|
|
|
Term
Nucleic acid analog drugs have no effect on human cell replication function. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antisense nucleic acids interfere with protein synthesis. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does resistance to drugs spread in bacterial populations? |
|
Definition
Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids. |
|
|
Term
Most drugs that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall act by |
|
Definition
preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits. |
|
|
Term
What is microbial antagonism? |
|
Definition
the ability of the normal flora to outcompete and outgrow pathogens.
Normal flora is well adapted to its niche. These bacteria may utilize nutrients more quickly or produce bacteriocins that inhibit growth of other microbes. |
|
|
Term
What is a superinfection? |
|
Definition
a disease caused by an organism that is often an opportunist or one that was present in low numbers. Superinfection is a sequal to removal of the normal flora by antibiotic treatment. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain mycolic acid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a subculture of an MIC test grows in an MBC test, the concentration of the drug was bacteriocidal. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antimicrobials that block protein synthesis by binding to the mRNA are |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin is |
|
Definition
inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis. |
|
|
Term
The tetracyclines interfere with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Because all cells engage in protein synthesis, there are few antimicrobial drugs that selectively inhibit this process. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Semisynthetic drugs developed to combat resistance are often called ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pentamidine is an example of an antimicrobial |
|
Definition
effective against eukaryotes, especially protozoa. |
|
|
Term
The mechanism of action of the antibiotic vancomycin is |
|
Definition
inhibition of cell wall synthesis. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following interferes with cell wall synthesis by blocking alanine bridge formation? |
|
Definition
both cycloserine and vancomycin |
|
|
Term
AZT and Valaciclovir are antiviral nucleoside analogs that interfere with |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Drug-resistant populations of microbes arise when |
|
Definition
exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following groups of drugs can become incorporated into the bones and teeth of a fetus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antimicrobials known as "attachment antagonists" are particularly useful for preventing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ratio of a medication's dose that can be tolerated to its effective dose is the therapeutic ___ of the medication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Biofilms contribute to the spread of resistance to antimicrobials. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
There are relatively few antifungal medications available compared to antibacterial drugs. -T/F? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ are the most susceptible to the activity of polyene drugs due to the presence of ergosterol in their cytoplasmic membranes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ are the least susceptible to polyene drugs because they usually have no sterols in their membranes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How might efflux pumps increase antibiotic resistance in bacteria? |
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Definition
Resistant bacteria can have more efflux pumps, and can have less specific efflux pumps. |
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Why is the drug actinomycin used only in research applications or in the treatment of cancer? |
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Definition
because it is active against both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. |
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Who discovered the first antimicrobial widely available to the general public? |
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Which of the following antimicrobial drugs would likely be useful to treat a MRSA infection because it effectively blocks initiation of translation? |
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Definition
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Definition
- methicillin
- penicillin G
- cephalothin
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Some bacteria develop resistance to groups of drugs because the drugs are all structurally similar to each other; this is a phenomenon known as ___ resistance. |
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Definition
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Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis: |
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Definition
interference with alanine-alanine bridges.
Targets of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis:
- movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next
- the tRNA docking site
- the enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit
- the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit
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Term
Any drug that acts against a disease is called a ____ agent. |
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Definition
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Which of the following is an essential component to all viruses? |
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Definition
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Term
The envelope found in some virus particles differs from the cytoplasmic membrane of cells in that |
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Definition
it does not perform the physiological functions carried out by the cytoplasmic membrane. |
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Term
What is responsible for the shape of a virion? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Lysogenic viral DNA which has integrated into the host genome is referred to as |
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Definition
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Which of the following events might trigger induction of a temperate bacteriophage? |
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Definition
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Term
How is the lytic cycle different from the lysogenic cycle with respect to the infected host cell? |
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Definition
The host cell dies during the lytic stage. |
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Term
What is the fate of the prophage during the lysogenic stage? |
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Definition
It is copied every time the host DNA replicates. |
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Term
Members of a virus family have the same type of nucleic acid. -T/F? |
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Definition
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Lysogeny is associated with all of the following EXCEPT ___. |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is correct regarding the viral envelope? |
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Definition
It is composed of cellular phospholipid membrane, cellular and viral proteins. |
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Term
Which of the following statements describes a generalist virus? |
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Definition
It infects many kinds of cells in many different hosts. |
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Which of the following is a characteristic by which viruses are classified? |
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Definition
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Term
The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus? |
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Definition
both protection and recognition |
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Term
The ____ of a virion determines the type of cell it enters. |
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Definition
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Term
The genome of influenzavirus is |
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Definition
multiple pieces of linear ssRNA. |
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Term
A "naked" virus lacks ___. |
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Definition
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Term
How are fungal viruses transmitted? |
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Definition
as a result of fusion of cells or hyphae |
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Term
Which of the following virus families has a double-stranded RNA genome? |
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Definition
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A lipid membrane is present in which of the following? |
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Definition
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In what ways do viruses differ from other pathogens? |
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Definition
viruses lack cytoplasm and organelles. |
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Term
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Definition
a single virus particle outside a cell |
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Term
Host specificity of a virus is due to |
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Definition
interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules. |
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