Term
|
Definition
Will always cause disease |
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Term
|
Definition
Needs the ground laying to cause disease |
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Term
|
Definition
Usually won't cause infection but has the potential to if host defences are compromised |
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Term
|
Definition
Process or mechanisms of disease development |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Capacity to kill/damage the host |
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Term
|
Definition
Ability of organism to enter, colonise, and survive
NB - doesn't have to cause disease! |
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|
Term
3 method of identifying virulence factors: |
|
Definition
1) molecular - inactivate virulence gene 2) epidemiological - presence of virulence factor correlate with disease? 3) biochemical - analyse suspected virulence factor |
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|
Term
Commensal flora colonise where? |
|
Definition
Skin MM's Gut
Establish doon after birth and persist through life |
|
|
Term
How does a pathogen work - basically?! |
|
Definition
Contact - Colonsisation - Replication - Transmit |
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|
Term
What is important for pathogens, especially those at mucosal surfaces? |
|
Definition
Adhesion - prevents flushing out by fluids |
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|
Term
What are the 4 methods of adhesion? |
|
Definition
1) bind to mucus e.g. commensals 2) bind to surface carb's - fimbriae 3) bind to/invade surface protein 4) bind ECM protein |
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|
Term
How does an intracellular pathogen survive? |
|
Definition
Attach - Invade - Resist destruction - Acquire nutrients
'Hide' |
|
|
Term
How do extracellular pathogens survive? |
|
Definition
Attach - Resist phagocytosis - Resist complement - Acquire nutrients
Capsules! |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 key virulence factors of B. Anthracis? |
|
Definition
Poly-D-glutamic acid capsule which resists phagocytosis & anthrax toxin made up of: 1) protective antigen - necessary for symptoms, 'carries' EF & LF into the cytosol 2) oedema factor - increases cAMP and results in oedema 3) lethal factor - induce apoptosis |
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Term
Exotoxins (can be haemolysins in vivo), usually produced by extracellular pathogens do what at physiological levels? |
|
Definition
1) lyse phagocytes 2) affect phagocyte function - phagocytosis, chemotaxis, degranulation |
|
|
Term
What are the two iron uptake systems? |
|
Definition
Siderophore Transferrin/Lactoferrin binding protein |
|
|
Term
How do intracellular pathogens survive in macrophages? |
|
Definition
Prevents acidification e.g. M. Tuberculosis Escape the phagosome e.g. L. Monocytogenes Prevent fusion of the lysosome e.g. Salmonella/Brucella spp. Survive in phagolysome e.g. C. Burnetti |
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Term
Staphs appear on smears as ___ whereas streps appear on smears as ___? |
|
Definition
Staphs - clumps Streps - chains |
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|
Term
Differentiation between Staphs and Streps is done by…? |
|
Definition
The catalase test - Staphs are catalase +ve, Streps are catalase -ve.
Streps also don't grow on MacConkey/simple media |
|
|
Term
Staphylococcus causes these disease in what species by which strain? - mastitis - osteomyelitis - pyoderma - greasy pig disease |
|
Definition
Cattle - Aureus Dog - Aureus Dog - Pseudintermedius Pig - Hyicus |
|
|
Term
What is the characteristic of pathogenic Staphylococci? |
|
Definition
Digest DNA with DNAase. Used to escape NETs |
|
|
Term
What toxins cause beta-haemolysis? |
|
Definition
Alpha (complete) and beta (incomplete) |
|
|
Term
Name 5 Staphylococcus virulence factors. |
|
Definition
Any of: Fibronection binding protein - Exfoliative toxins - Superantigens (TSTs) - DNAase - Lipases - Proteases - Hyaluronidase - Fe-uptake systems - Capsule - Protein A (binds antibody wrong way round) - Chemotaxis inhibitory protein of staph - Extracellular adhesion protein - Fibrinogen-binding proteins - Haemolysins |
|
|
Term
What does MRSA stand for? |
|
Definition
Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus |
|
|
Term
Streptococcus can cause alpha and beta haemolysis: T/F? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Streptococcus is typed by which grouping? |
|
Definition
Lancefield - A-V, not I or J |
|
|
Term
Which are the three Streps that cause mastitis in cattle? How can they be distinguised? |
|
Definition
Uberis (environmental) - splits aesculin Agalactiae (contagious) - beta haemolysis Dysgalactiae (environmental) - alpha haemolysis all on Edwards media |
|
|
Term
What subspecies of Strep causes strangles in horses? |
|
Definition
Streptococci Equi subsp Equi |
|
|
Term
Streptococcus Suis is a particular concern because…? |
|
Definition
It's zoonotic, initially causes streptococcal meningitis in pigs |
|
|
Term
Give 5 pathogenicity factors of Streptococci: |
|
Definition
Any of: C5a peptidase - IL-8 protease - Fibronectin binding proteins - Capsule - M-protein - M-like protein - Haemolysins - DNAases - Proteases - Hyaluronidase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A pair of intertwined alpha-helices with a charged, hypervariable region at the far end from the cell wall |
|
|
Term
Name an opportunistic Streptococci and the disease it causes. |
|
Definition
Streptococcus Zooepidemicus (zoonotic!) causes respiratory infections, metritis, wound infections etc. Can infect cattle, sheep, dog, horse... |
|
|
Term
What are the specific virulence factors of Streptococcus Equi? |
|
Definition
2 fibronectin binding proteins 2 M-like proteins which are anti-phagocytic and anti-opsonic Hyaluronic acid capsule Toxins - streptolysin S-like toxin and superantigens |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What feature must antimicrobial have? |
|
Definition
Be selective to the pathogen…can - Target the peptidoglycan (unique to microorg.) Target folate biosynth. (pathway not in vertebrates) Target structural differences between bacteria (prokaryotes) and eukaryotes |
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|
Term
|
Definition
Kills bacteria - irreversible |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Inhibits growth - reversible |
|
|
Term
Most gram -ve are intrinsically less ___ compared to gram +ve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Give 3 main sites of antimicrobial action. |
|
Definition
Any of: Peptidoglycan synthesis - Protein synthesis - Nucleic acid synthesis - DNA replication - Transcription - Cytoplasmic membrane integrity |
|
|
Term
Gram -ve bacteria has a thick layer of peptidoglycan: T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which 3 places can antimicrobials affect peptidoglycan synthesis? |
|
Definition
1) Precursor synthesis 2) Precursors being transported across membrane 3) Precursors being added to peptidoglycan 4) X-linking of peptidoglycan chains
Only work when bacteria are replicating! |
|
|
Term
Most antibacterial protein synthesis inhibitors are bacteriostatic except for which group? |
|
Definition
Aminoglycosides
This method of preventing bacterial replication works by causing misreading of proteins |
|
|
Term
Sulphonamide and trimethoprim inhibit what? |
|
Definition
Biosynthesis of folate
Sulphonamides block PABA --> dihydropteroate Trimethoprim blocks dyhydrofolate --> tetrahydrofolate |
|
|
Term
How can bacterial genes confer resistance to antibiotics? |
|
Definition
- Inactivate antibiotic by hydrolysis/chemical mod's - Active efflux of antibiotic esp. tetracylines & macrolides - Alter target site of antibiotic esp beta-lactams & macrolides - Metabolically bypass antibiotic esp sulphonamide and trimethoprim |
|
|
Term
Plasmids can give rise to resistance: T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
R plasmids are transferred by: |
|
Definition
Conjugation
Gram -ve mainly |
|
|
Term
Conjugative transposons are mainly seen in which strain of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The study of the spread of infectious disease within a community or population |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Where the infectious agent lives, multiplies or survives |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
From microflora (endogenous), animal to human (zoonosis) or an environmental source (exogenous) |
|
|
Term
What are common bacterial geni that cause venereal disease? |
|
Definition
Campylobacter (fetus), Leptospirosis, Brucellosis, Chalamydia
Usually cause abortion or infertility |
|
|
Term
Give an example of an organism that exhibits placental tropism. |
|
Definition
Either Listeria Monocytogenes or Campylobacter Fetus subsp. Fetus
These are transmitted by vertical transmission |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Organisms shed from infected animal to the environment
The animal doesn't have to be showing signs of disease, they may be a symptomless carrier |
|
|
Term
How is Bovine Tuberculosis spread from animal to human? |
|
Definition
Shed in urine, reproductive tract secretions and wound discharges, by aerosol, in milk and in carcass/offal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram +ve, large rod, produces spores |
|
|
Term
Which Bacillus species cause these disease in which species: - Anthrax (zoonotic!) - Food poisoning/mastitis - Sporadic abortion |
|
Definition
Anthracis - cattle & others Cereus - man & cattle Licheniformis - cattle & sheep |
|
|
Term
Anthrax causes what in cattle? |
|
Definition
Septicaemia
Pigs/horses - mod. susceptible, carnivores - comparatively resistant, birds - totally resistant |
|
|
Term
Which forms of Anthrax can humans catch? |
|
Definition
Pulmonary 'wool-sorters disease' GIT Cutaneous - most common
If isolated --> medusa head colonies on blood agar |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram +ve, large rod, anaerobic, produce spores that look like clubs |
|
|
Term
What toxins do Clostridium make? |
|
Definition
Tetanus toxin (plasmid), botulism toxin (lysogenic phage)
Clostridium can be neurotoxic or histotoxic |
|
|
Term
Neurotoxic Clostridia is better known as what? |
|
Definition
Clostridium Tetani
Again, poultry fairly resistant |
|
|
Term
Outline the pathogenesis of Tetanus. |
|
Definition
Light chain - toxic Heavy chain - receptor binding and internalisation Transported to CNS by intra-axonal flow Inhibitory NT release of GABA is prevented --> spastid paralysis |
|
|
Term
What type of paralysis does Clostridium Botulinum cause and how is this fatal? |
|
Definition
Flaccid paralysis, death occurs by hypoxia after the respiratory muscles cease working |
|
|
Term
Why is Botulism not zoonotic? |
|
Definition
Types C&D cause outbreaks in animals whereas types A,B&E cause outbreaks in humans so even ingesting infected meat will not transmit the disease |
|
|
Term
Where does Botulinum toxin act? |
|
Definition
At NMJ's of cholinergic nerves and peripheral autonomic synapses
It blocks ACh fusion and release from the pre-synaptic membrane and therefore the AP isn't transmitted further |
|
|
Term
What do Botulinum toxin and Tetanus toxin have in commong? |
|
Definition
They are both zinc-dependant metalloproteinases |
|
|
Term
What diseases can histotoxic Clostridium cause? |
|
Definition
Blackleg - cattle (Chauvoei) Braxy - sheep (Septicum) Necrotic enteritis/gas gangrene - chickens (Perfringens) Abomastitis - lambs (Sordellii) |
|
|
Term
The vaccine for histotoxic Clostridia is comprised of: |
|
Definition
Bacterin (killed bacteria) + toxoid + adjuvant |
|
|
Term
Clostridium Perfringens has how many types? |
|
Definition
5 - A to E, each type produces a different combination of toxins: A - alpha B - alpha, beta, epsilon C - alpha, beta D - alpha, epsilon E - alpha, iota
It is an enteropathogenic and enterotoxaemic Clostridia |
|
|
Term
Clostridium Difficile causes: |
|
Definition
Enteritis in neonatal pigs |
|
|
Term
What is the vaccine BCG isolated from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does Tuberculosis cause? |
|
Definition
Granulomatous legions in tissues of a wide range of domestic/wild animals and humans |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Aerobic, acid-fast, gram +ve rods, catalase +ve, simple growth req's, intracellular |
|
|
Term
What is unique about Mycobacteria? |
|
Definition
Lipid-rich cell walls - assist survival in phagolysosome (LAM - lipoarabinomannan, mycolic acids & sulphonamides), resists drying and extreme pH. |
|
|
Term
Name 2 clinically important species of Mycobacterium. |
|
Definition
Any of: Tuberculosis - cats, humans, dogs, pigs etc etc Bovis - cattle, man, badgers, deer Avium subsp. Paratuberculosis --> Johne's disease - cattle, sheep, goats, deer Leprae --> Leprosy - man, mice, armadillo |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 possibilities of Mycobacterium infection? |
|
Definition
1) Infects, killed, no disease 2) Infects, lies dormant, no disease 3) Infects, lies dormant, re-activates, acute disease 4) Infects & causes rapid acute disease (already immunocompromised?)
Depends on immune status of the host |
|
|
Term
How does Bovine Tuberculosis spread around the body of a cow? |
|
Definition
To intestine via sputum and to the liver, spleen, kidney, brain etc haematogenously. Once it reaches the mammary gland/uterus, vertical spread is possible |
|
|
Term
How do badgers transmit TB between themselves and to cows? |
|
Definition
Themselves - biting and via the respiratory route Cattle - eat pasture contaminated with badger urine, faeces or bronchial pus |
|
|
Term
How does the tuberculin test work? |
|
Definition
2 sites, 13 cm apart, skin fold measured Upper site - SC injection of M. Avium Lower site - SC injection of M. Bovis Fold remeasured in 72 hours, if the reaction to M. Bovis is 5mm greater than to M. Avium, the animal is culled |
|
|
Term
How is a Mycobacterial infection diagnosed? |
|
Definition
Tuberculin testing Microscopy Culture |
|
|
Term
What the hell is Johne's disease?! |
|
Definition
Chronic wasting caused by Mycobacterium Avium subsp. Paratuberculosis
Signs: illness & weight loss followed by sever diarrhoea, emaciation and death
Intestinal tract becomes thickened with granulomas and unable to absorb nutrients |
|
|
Term
What are 'The Arcanobacteria'? |
|
Definition
A relatated group of gram +ve organisms: Nocardia Arcanobacterium Actinomyces Corynebacterium
Cause granulomatous disease and chronic inflammation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram +ve rod with aerial hyphae, strictly aerobic, acid fast |
|
|
Term
What disease do these species of Nocardia cause in which species of animal? - Asteroides - Brasiliense - Otitidis-Cavarium |
|
Definition
SC infection - dogs Pneumonia - horses Mastitis - cattle |
|
|
Term
What 3 ways does Nocardia infect it's host? |
|
Definition
Contact, inhalation, ingestion
Causes 3 forms of disease - cutaneous, respiratory, systemic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram + ve rod, commensal, opportunistic |
|
|
Term
Give 2 virulence factors of A. Pyogenes. |
|
Definition
Any of: Protease - Haemolytic exotoxin - Neuraminidase - PLO (pyolysin), key in virulence
Diseases - bovine abortion, abscesses and polyarthritis in pigs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram +ve rod, non-acid fast, microaerophilic/anaerobic |
|
|
Term
What kind of granules do Actinomyces spp. cause? |
|
Definition
Sulphur
Bovis species --> Lumpy jaw/mastitis in cattle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram +ve, small rods, 'chinese letters' on a smear, commensal |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 groups of Corynebacterium? |
|
Definition
Renale: C. Renale - C. Pilosum - C. Cystiditis Cause cystitis/pyelonephritis in cattle
Diphtheria: C. diphtheria - C. ulcerans* - C. Pseudotuberculosis* * zoonotic Cause various diseases |
|
|
Term
Give 2 virulence factors of the Corynebacterium Renale group. |
|
Definition
Any of: Pili - Renalin (cell lysis) - Urease (nitrogen source) - Caseinase |
|
|
Term
There are 3 biotypes of Corynebacterium Pseudotuberculosis identified: T/F |
|
Definition
F - there are 2: ovis - non-nitrate reducing, infects sheep/goats equi - nitrate reducing, infects mainly horses |
|
|
Term
What is CLA (caseous lymphadenitis? |
|
Definition
Caused by Corynebacterium Pseudotuberculosis via the lymph nodes, looks like onion rings, fibrous lesions in sheep, causes significant production losses |
|
|
Term
Give a virulence factor of Corynebacterium Pseudotuberculosis. |
|
Definition
Any of: Phospholipase D - Mycolic acid (allows survival in mac's) - Serine protease - Siderophore (Fe-uptake) |
|
|
Term
What is most common disease causing Listeria species? |
|
Definition
Monocytogenes (gram +ve) causes meningoencephalitis (circling disease), septicaemia, abortion and pyogenic infection
Also: Ivanovii, causes abortion |
|
|
Term
Listeria can only grow at a narrow range of temperatures: T/F |
|
Definition
F - it can grow at anything between 4 degrees and 45 degrees |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical signs of meningoencephalitis? |
|
Definition
Unidirectional circling, unilateral facial paralysis, headpressing, paralysis |
|
|
Term
If a ruminant is pregnant and gets Listeriosis, how will with the foetus be affected? |
|
Definition
Neonatal septicaemia/abortion - Listeria localises to the placentomes |
|
|
Term
Listeria is an intracellular pathogen, how does it avoid killing by macrophages? |
|
Definition
Escapes the phagosome by LLO (listeriolysin - thiol activated)
They then multiply in the cytoplasm and, via ActA (actin based motility), spread to adjacent cells |
|
|
Term
Erysipelothrix Rhusiopathiae causes what disease in pigs and can also infect what veterinary species? |
|
Definition
Swine erysipelas/'diamond skin disease' - this is the smooth strain, the rough strain causes endocarditis (and chronic arthritis in sheep). The other species it can infect is turkeys |
|
|
Term
The Pasteurellaceae family consists of which genus of bacteria? |
|
Definition
Haemophilus, Histophilus, Actinobacillus Pasteurella, Mannheimia, Bibersteinia
Common characteristics - gram -ve, cocco-bacilli, aerobic/facultative anaerobes |
|
|
Term
What factors does Haemophilus need to grow, what does this mean? |
|
Definition
Factor V (NAD and factor X (haemin), this mean it won't grow on blood agar but will on chocolate agar |
|
|
Term
Which Haemophilus species causes Glasser's disease (fibrinous inflammation of serous surfaces/joints) in pigs? |
|
Definition
Haemophilus Parasuis
Virulence factor - capsule, LPS, exotoxins (somni specifically) |
|
|
Term
Which is the Histophilus species of veterinary importance and which species of animal does it infect? |
|
Definition
Histophilus Somni, infects cattle/sheep with a spectrum of diseases - TEME, pneumonia with pleurisy and arthritis |
|
|
Term
Haemophilus Paragallinarum causes what disease? |
|
Definition
Fowl Coryza, mainly of chickens |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram -ve coccobacilli, do not require factor V/X for growth, may be filamentous, facultatis anaerobes |
|
|
Term
Name 3 species of Actinobacillus: |
|
Definition
Any of: Lignieresii (cattle/sheep, needs CO2 for culture) - Suis (pigs) - Pleuropneumoniae (pigs) - Equuli (horses) - Seminis (sheep) |
|
|
Term
What are the virulence factors of Actinobacillus? |
|
Definition
1) Capsule - Pleuropneumoniae 2) LPS 3) Exotoxins - extracellular RTX toxins |
|
|
Term
Actinobacillus Ligniereii causes what in cattle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pleuropneumonia of pigs is caused by which bacteria? |
|
Definition
Actinobacillus Pleuropneumoniae and is specific for swine
Clinical signs - shaking, anorexia, fever, haemorrhage from the nose and mouth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram -ve coccobacilli, bipolar staining, facultatively anaerobic |
|
|
Term
What is the main species of Pasteurella and how are they split up? |
|
Definition
Multocida, capsule types A, B, D, E - mucoid colonies
Capsule type E infects pigs and contributes to Atrophic Rhinitis |
|
|
Term
Mannheimia Haemolytica has 13 serotypes recognised but infects which species? |
|
Definition
Cattle - capsule type A1 Goats - capsule type A Sheep - capsule type A |
|
|
Term
What are the virulence factors of Pasteurella? |
|
Definition
Capsules LPS - protection, inflammation induction through lipid A compenent Exotoxins - type D produces dermonecrotictoxin, M. Haemolytica and B. Trehalosi produce labile leukotoxin |
|
|
Term
Give 3 bacteria genus that come under the grouping Enterobacteriaceae: |
|
Definition
Any of: Escherichia - Salmonella - Klebsiella - Proteus - Yersinia - Shigella |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram -ve, motile/flagellated, facultative anearobes |
|
|
Term
How can Enterobacteriaceae species be subdivided? |
|
Definition
Seroptyping (O - somatic, H - flagellar antigens) Pathotypes Biotypes Phage typing PFGE (pulse field gel electrophoresis) |
|
|
Term
Other than O and H antigen, what are the other 2 surface antigens of Enterobacteriaceae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Salmonella is a non-lactose fermenter and usually infects by what route? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Enteritis (zoonotic!) Septicaemia |
|
|
Term
The common Salmonella species is Enterica and has no capsule but how is this species subdivided? |
|
Definition
I, II, IIIa, IIIb, IV, VI
The other species is S. Bongori |
|
|
Term
How does the antigen grouping system of Salmonella Enterica work? |
|
Definition
O antigens are identified using sera agonist again LPS - 1,2,3 etc Similar O types are put into serogroups - A,B,C etc Therefore, for example, all Salmonella with O4 antigen are in group B Flagella have only two antigenically distinct forms - Phase 1 and Phase 2 |
|
|
Term
Give 3 Salmonella serotypes: |
|
Definition
Any of: Typhimurium (O group - B) - Cholerasuis (C) - Enteritidis (D) -Dublin (D) - Gallinarum (D) - Typhi (D) - Pullorum (D) |
|
|
Term
Salmonella (Enterica subsp. I serotype) Typhimurium can infect which species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which 2 Salmonella serotypes have a preferential host? |
|
Definition
Dublin - cattle Cholerasuis - pigs |
|
|
Term
Pathogenicity Islands of Salmonella code for which virulence genes? |
|
Definition
Toxins Adhesins Invasins Secretion systems
These are acquired horizontally |
|
|
Term
SPI 1 and SPI 2 code for which virulence factors? |
|
Definition
SPI 1 - type III secretion system, invasion of epithelial cells, enteritis
SPI 2 - type III secretion system, survival and replication in macrophages |
|
|
Term
Salmonella is an intracellular pathogen, which of the 4 survival techniques does it employ? |
|
Definition
Prevents phagolysosome fusion Can survive in the phagolysosome |
|
|
Term
Which phage type of Salmonella Enteritidis is responsible for food poisoning from eggs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram -ve, lactose fermenting, indole +ve |
|
|
Term
Give three 4 letter acronyms that can be used to describe E. Coli. |
|
Definition
Any of: ETEC - enterotoxigenic E. Coli EPEC - enteropathogenic E. Coli VTEC - verotoxigenic E. Coli EAEC - enteroaggrative E. Coli (humans only) DAEC - diffusely adherent E. Coli (humans only) EIEC - enteroinvasive E. Coli (humans only) ExPEC - exteraintestinal pathogenic E. Coli |
|
|
Term
What are: 1) heat labile enterotoxins 2) heat stable enterotoxins 3) shiga-like toxins |
|
Definition
All are toxins of E. Coli 1) activated at high temperatures, it raises cAMP, stimulates the secretion of Cl- ions and water into the gut lumen and produces watery diarrhoea 2) binds to guanylate cyclase and increases intracellular cGMP 3) aka vero-toxin, inhibit protein synthesis to kill cells |
|
|
Term
E. Coli causes what in these animals: - Cattle - PIg - Dog - Cat |
|
Definition
Mastitis/septicaemia Mastitis/septicaemia UTI/pyometra/septicaemia UTI/pyometra septicaemia |
|
|
Term
What are the virulence factors of extraintestinal E. Coli? |
|
Definition
Capsule Fimbriae Toxins - haemolysins/CNF-1 Siderophore |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Non-inflammatory, watery diarrhoea |
|
|
Term
ETEC is not zoonotic, why? |
|
Definition
Fimbriae, each strain has a different type of fimbriae which are specific for certain hosts: K88 - pigs K99 - pigs, sheep, calves 987p - pigs, calves F41 - pigs, calves |
|
|
Term
Which heat toxin of E. Coli is highly immunogenic? |
|
Definition
Labile - made up of A+B subunits
NB. genes for both toxins are on plasmids |
|
|
Term
How is E. Coli caused diarrhoea different to Salmonella? |
|
Definition
E. Coli stays outside the cell and, therefore, the diarrhoea is non-inflammatory Salmonella invades the cell and causes inflammatory diarrhoea |
|
|
Term
How does EPEC cause diarrhoea? |
|
Definition
Destroys the absorbative membrane |
|
|
Term
EHEC causes what diseases? |
|
Definition
Haemorrhagic collitis Haemolytic uraemic syndrome Hamburger disease |
|
|
Term
Give the 3 Campylobacter species of veterinary importance. |
|
Definition
Campylobacter Fetus subsp. Fetus/Venerealis Campylobacter Jejuni |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gram -ve, 'gull-wing' appearance, spirochete, 2 polar flagella, microaerophilic, oxidase +ve |
|
|
Term
How does Campylobacter Fetus subsp. Fetus cause abortion? |
|
Definition
It is transmitted by the faecal oral route, causes bacteraemia which spreads to the placenta and kills the foetus
Causes abortion in sheep in the 3rd trimester, cattle, goats, pigs and horses sporadically |
|
|
Term
What makes Campylobacter Fetus subsp. Fetus so resistant in the bloodstream? |
|
Definition
High molecular weight protein S-layer on the surface of the bacterium which won't bind C3b, therefore, prevents phagocytosis by neutrophils |
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Term
What causes bovine venereal campylobacteriosis? |
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Definition
Campylobacter Fetus subsp. Venerealis through normal breeding. Isolated from the glans penis of infected bulls Spreads in the cows from the vagina to the oviducts causing temporary infertility |
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Term
What does Campylobacter Jejuni cause in what animal? |
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Definition
Acute diarrhoea in puppies, may be part of a mixed infection |
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Term
Where does human Campylobacter infection arise from? |
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Definition
Food - poultry, raw meat, unpasteurised milk, untreated water, shellfish |
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Term
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Definition
Gram -ve, large spirochetes, aerobic |
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Term
What is the cause of Lyme disease in man? |
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Definition
Borrelia Burgdorferi - tick-borne Can infect dogs too, primary signs not seen due to fur and is, therefore a potentially fatal disease due to treatment/identification too late |
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Term
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Definition
Gram-ve, fine, tightly coiled spirochetes, aerobic |
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Term
Leptospira Interrogans is zoonotic: T/F |
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Definition
T - rodents and domestic animals spread it to humans |
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Term
Give 2 serovars of Leptospira Interrogans. |
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Definition
Any of: Canicola - Icterohaemorrhagiae (Weil's Disease…) - Pomona - Hardjo |
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Term
What is the difference between a host adapted serovar of Leptospira Interrogans and a non-host adapted serovar? |
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Definition
Host adapted: mild disease, venereal transmission Non-host adapted: catastrophic infections - abortion storms death |
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Term
Which serovars of Leptospira Interrogans do cattle, pigs and horses commonly get? |
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Definition
Cattle - hardjo (host-adapted) and pomona (non-host adapted) Pigs - pomona (non-host adapted) and bratislava (host adapted) Horses - bratislava (host adapted) and pomona (non-host adapted) |
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Term
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Definition
Gram -ve, anaerobic, large spirochetes |
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Term
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Definition
Gram -ve, small coccobacilli, oxidase +ve, complex media needed for growth - enhanced by CO2, zoonotic! |
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Term
Give 3 species of Brucella. |
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Definition
Any of: Abortus - Melitensis - Ovis - Canis - Suis - Neotomae |
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Term
Brucella Abortus causes what in what species? |
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Definition
Contagious bovine abortion in cattle Sporadic abortion in sheep, pigs, goats Undulent fever in humans |
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Term
Brucella Melitensis causes what in what species? |
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Definition
Orchitis and abortion in sheep and goats |
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Term
Brucella Suis causes what in what species? |
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Definition
Abortion and infertility in pigs |
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Term
Brucella are intracellular pathogens, how do they resist killing? |
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Definition
Prevent fusion of the phagolysosome |
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Term
Once Brucella has cause bacteraemia, where does it disseminate to? |
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Definition
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Term
What virulence systems does Brucella Melitensis not have? |
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Definition
Type III secretion systems Fimbriae Toxins Capsule
BUT, does have siderophores |
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Term
What kind of vaccine is the Brucella vaccine? |
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Definition
Live - rough and smooth (long O side-chain) strains |
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Term
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Definition
Gram -ve, coccobacilli, small, aerobe, oxidase +ve, respiratory tract pathogens, non-lactose fermenting |
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Term
Bordatella Brochiseptica causes what diseases in these animals: - Dogs - Cats - Pigs |
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Definition
- Kennel cough - Respiratory infections - Atrophic rhinitis with Pasteurella Multocida |
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Term
What is the pathogenesis of Bordatella infection? |
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Definition
1) attachment to ciliated cells 2) tight adhesion to cilia, produces toxins, paralyse cilia 3) cilia are lost, mucus accumulates |
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Term
Give 4 virulence factors of Bordatella. |
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Definition
Any of: Fimbriae - Filamentous Haemagglutinin - Pertactin - Adenylate cyclase toxin - Tracheal cytotoxin - Dermonectrotic toxin |
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Term
Give 2 anaerobic, non-sporing gram-ve bacteria. |
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Definition
Any of: Fusobacterium Necrophorum - Dichelobacter Nodosum - Bacteroides - Prevotella - Porphyromonas
Usually second or third bacteria to infect |
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Term
What does Fusobacterium Necrophorum cause in pigs? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Gram -ve, obligate anaerobe. non-sporing, rods |
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Term
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Definition
Aerobic eukaryotes, sexual or asexual reproduction, uni/multicellular organisms, slow growing in culture |
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Term
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Definition
Unicellular, reproduce by budding |
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Term
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Definition
Multicellular, produce hyphae/mycelium/spores |
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Term
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Definition
Can produce both hyphae (env.) and yeast-like (host) forms |
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Term
What is the most common infection with fungi? |
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Definition
Cutaneous, other types of infection are SC and systemic |
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Term
How do you diagnose a fungal infection in the lab? |
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Definition
Microscopy Culture on sabarauds dextrose agar Identify morphology of hyphae PCR |
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Term
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Definition
Oval cells, gram +ve, yeasts, creamy white 2mm colonies, smells like bread |
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Term
Candida Albicans causes what in these animals: - Cattle - Pigs - Dogs - Birds |
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Definition
- Mycotic abortion - Dermatitis - Chronic enteritis - Crop infections |
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Term
CHROMagar is used to do what? |
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Definition
Differentiate using colour between different Candida species: Blue - Tropicalis White - Parapsilosis Pink - Glabrata Green - Albicans |
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Term
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Definition
Bottle shaped, lipase, urease, gram+ve |
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Term
Which is the most common species of Cryptococcus? |
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Definition
Neoformans - an opportunistic pathogen, causes nasal, neural and occular disease in cats |
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Term
In a lab culture of Dermatophytes, what can you expect to see? |
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Definition
Microconidia and macroconidia - shape will confirm diagnosis |
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Term
When fungi infects hair, what two forms can if take? |
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Definition
Ectothrix - around hair Endothrix - within hair |
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Term
Microsporum causes what historically misconceived disease? |
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Definition
Ringworm (ectothrix) - may flouresce under Wood's light - diagnostic |
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Term
Trichophyton has what characteristically shaped macroconidia? |
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Definition
Club-shaped, also has spiral hyphae
Ectothrix on hair |
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Term
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Definition
Separate branching hyphae, sporing heads in oxygen |
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Term
What is the main infection of Aspergillus? |
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Definition
Respiratory - guttoral pouch mycosis in horses but mycotic abortion in cows
When cultured - dark green and densely fluffy |
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Term
Give an example of a dimorphic fungi. |
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Definition
Histoplasma Capsulatum - notifiable |
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Term
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Definition
Fast growing in culture, pin-head fruiting bodies, cause mycotic abortion |
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Term
Give 2 characteristics of an antifungal. |
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Definition
Any of: Cell wall inhibitors e.g. glucan synthesis Cell membrane inhibitors e.g. ergosterol synthesis Direct membrane damage Disruption of microtubules Nucleic acid synthesis disruption Protein synthesis inhibitors |
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Term
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Definition
Gram -ve rods, motile (not Pestis), non-lactose fermenting, bipolar staining in Giemsa |
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Term
Yersinia Enterocolitica causes what in ewes? |
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Definition
Sporadic abortions
As does Yersinia Pseudotuberculosis in cattle, sheep and goats |
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Term
Plague is caused by what pathogen? |
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Definition
Yersinia Pestis
Bubonic/speticaemic/pneumonic - humans Sylvatic - rodents Feline - cats |
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Term
Yops are what and what do they do? |
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Definition
Yersinia outer proteins, actually anti-phagocytic proteins, help survival in the host macrophages |
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Term
What two cycles does the plague have? |
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Definition
Sylvatic in wild rodents and urban in domestic rodents |
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Term
Give 2 virulence factors specific to Yersinia Pestis. |
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Definition
Any of: F1 antigen - plasmid encoded capsule HPI - Fe acquisition Ymt protein - phospholipase D required for survival in flea Hms locus - transmission to SC sites Pla - dissemination from SC site to lymph nodes |
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Term
Outline the treatment protocols for Yersinia Pestis. |
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Definition
Isolation, IV tetracycline for bubonic plague, treat fleas and keep rodent populations down |
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Term
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa and Burkholderia: |
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Definition
Gram -ve rods, obligate aerobes, oxidase/catalase +ve, motile |
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Term
Give 3 common diseases caused by Pseudomonas Aeruginosa. |
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Definition
Any of: Mastitis in cattle/sheep Ulcerative keratitis in horses Otitis externa in dogs/cats |
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Term
Give 2 virulence factors of Pseudomonas Aeruginosa. |
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Definition
Any of: Fimbriae - Endotoxin - Flouscein - Exotoxin A - Exotoxin B - Elastase - Phospholipase C - Alkaline protease - Cytotoxin |
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Term
What bacteria causes Glanders? |
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Definition
Burkholideria Mallei - rare!
Nodules on horses in respiratory tract and skin
Treatment - slaughter, once cured will still be carriers |
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Term
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Definition
Gram -ve rods, non-lactose fermenting, oxidase +ve |
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Term
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Definition
Small genome, highly fastidious, lacks cell wall, sterols present in cell membrane |
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Term
How would you diagnose an infection with Mycoplasma? |
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Definition
Pathology Isolation and identification Serological response Antigenic/genomic detection |
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Term
Give 3 virulence factors of Mycoplasma. |
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Definition
Any of: Adhesins - Degredative enzymes - Cytotoxic metabolites - Endotoxicity - Antigenic variation - Intraphagocytic survival - Lymphocyte suppression - Superantigenicity |
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Term
Give 2 types of disease that Mycoplasma can cause. |
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Definition
Any of: Pnemonia - Mastitis - Pleuropneumoniae - Arthritis - Conjunctivitis - Reproduction infections |
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Term
How do Mycoplasma's cause respiratory infections? |
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Definition
Inhalation -> adherence to cilia -> ciliostasis -> immune invasion -> lymph node enlargement -> consolidation |
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Term
Contageous pleuropneumonia is a notifiable disease: T/F |
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Definition
T - can infect cattle or goats |
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Term
Mycoplasma are the little blue dots seen on blood smears in anaemia cases: T/F |
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Definition
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Term
How can Mycoplasmas be controlled? |
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Definition
Test & slaughter Keep disease free herds Selective breeding for immunity Antibacterial therapy e.g. tetracyclines Vaccines |
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Term
Give 2 genera of obligate intracellular bacteria. |
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Definition
Any of: Chlamydia Coxiella Anaplasma Lawsonia Rickettsia Ehrlichia |
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Term
How would you detect and intracellular bacteria? |
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Definition
Co-culture with eukaryotic cells Microscopy Ab responses PCR |
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Term
What is the main Chlamydia species of veterinary importance? |
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Definition
Chlamydophila Abortus affecting ruminants - EAE/OEA - enzootic abortion of ewes |
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Term
Outline the process of a Chlamydia infection. |
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Definition
Adherence to cell membrane -> entry by endocytosis -> prevention of phagolysosome fusion -> formation of 'inclusion' -> differentiation of elimentary body -> host cell lysis |
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Term
What is an elimentary body/EB? |
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Definition
The infective stage of Chlamydia - spore-like |
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Term
|
Definition
Tetracyclines Disease free flocks Vaccines e.g. Enzovax |
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Term
Cats can also be infected with Chlamydia, what form does this take? |
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Definition
Mucopurulent conjunctivits & rhinitis caused by Chlamydophila Felis |
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Term
Chlamydophila Psittaci affecting young, stressed birds is zoonotic: T/F |
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Definition
T - in humans it manifests as chills, fever, headache, muscle aches etc |
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Term
TBF of tick-borne fever is caused by what pathogen? |
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Definition
Anaplasma Phagocytophilum |
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Term
Q fever, caused by Coxiella Burnetti is zoonotic, but in sheep, what disease symptoms does it cause? |
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Definition
Abortion storms
Humans - Flu-like symptoms, pneumonia and endocarditis |
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Term
Outline the pathogenesis of PE/porcine proliferative enteropathy. |
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Definition
Ingestion -> invasion of ileal crypt enterocytes -> epithelial hyperplasia -> intestinal thickening -> diarrhoea/sudden death |
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