Term
(T/F) The outer membrane
for G+ and the cell
membrane for G- act as
major surface antigens. |
|
Definition
FALSE: they DO act a major
surface antigens BUT the
outer mb for G- and the cell
membrane for G+ |
|
|
Term
| Are endotoxins heat stable? |
|
Definition
| yes, stable at 100C for 1 hr. |
|
|
Term
Are endotoxins secreted from
cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are endotoxins used as
antigens in vaccines? |
|
Definition
no, they don't produce
protective immune response |
|
|
Term
| Are exotoxins heat stable? |
|
Definition
no, destroyed rapidly at 60C
(exception: Staphylococcal
enterotoxin) |
|
|
Term
Are exotoxins secreted from
cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are exotoxins used as
antigens in vaccines? |
|
Definition
Yes, TOXOIDS are used as
vaccines |
|
|
Term
Describe the chemical
composition of
peptidoglycan. |
|
Definition
Sugar backbone with crosslinked
peptide side chains. |
|
|
Term
Describe the major
components of a G- cell wall. |
|
Definition
inner and outer lipid bilayer
membranes - thin layer of
peptidoglycan - periplasmic
space - contains
lipopolysaccharide,
lipoprotein and phospholipid |
|
|
Term
Describe the major
components of a G+ cell wall. |
|
Definition
one lipid bilayer membrane -
thick layer of peptidoglycan -
contains teichoic acid. |
|
|
Term
Describe the process of
conjugation. |
|
Definition
DNA transfer from one
bacterium to another. |
|
|
Term
Describe the process of
transduction. |
|
Definition
DNA transfer by a virus from
one cell to another |
|
|
Term
Describe the process of
transformation. |
|
Definition
purified DNA is taken up by a
cell |
|
|
Term
Does endotoxin induce and
antigenic response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does exotoxin induce and
antigenic response? |
|
Definition
Yes, induces high-titer
antibodies called antitoxins |
|
|
Term
Give two general functions of
peptidoglycan |
|
Definition
Gives rigid support - protects
against osmotic pressure |
|
|
Term
How are Group A and Group B
Strep primarily differentiated? |
|
Definition
Group A are Bacitracin
sensitive - Group B are
Bacitracin resistant |
|
|
Term
How are the pathogenic
Neisseria species
differentiated? |
|
Definition
on the basis of sugar
fermentation |
|
|
Term
How are the species of
Streptococcus primarily
differentiated? |
|
Definition
on the basis of their
HEMOLYTIC capabilities |
|
|
Term
List the four phases of the
bacterial growth curve. |
|
Definition
Lag phase - log (exponential)
phase - stationary phase -
death phase |
|
|
Term
Name 2 G- rods that are
considered slow lactose
fermenters. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name 3 G- rods that are
considered fast lactose
fermenters. |
|
Definition
1) Klebsiella 2) E. coli 3)
Enterobacter |
|
|
Term
Name 3 G- rods which are
lactose nonfermenters and
Oxidase(-)? |
|
Definition
| Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus |
|
|
Term
Name 4 bacteria that use IgA
protease to colonize mucosal
surfaces. |
|
Definition
1) Strep. pneumoniae 2)
Neisseria meningitidis 3)
Neisseria gonorrhea 4) H. flu |
|
|
Term
Name 4 genus of bacteria
that are G- 'coccoid' rods. |
|
Definition
1) H. flu 2) Pasteruella 3)
Brucella 4) Bordetella
pertussis |
|
|
Term
Name 6 bacteria that don't
Gram's stain well? |
|
Definition
Treponema - Rickettsia -
Mycobacteria - Mycoplasma
- Legionella pneumophila -
Chlamydia |
|
|
Term
Name four genus of bacteria
that are G+ rods. |
|
Definition
1) Clostridium (an anaerobe)
2) Coynebacterium 3) Listeria
4) Bacillus |
|
|
Term
Name seven G+ bacteria
species that make exotoxins. |
|
Definition
1) Corynebacterium
diphtheriae 2) Clostridium
tetani 3) Clostridium
botulinum 4) Clostridium
perfringens 5) Bacillus
anthracis 6) Staph. aureus 7)
Strep. pyogenes |
|
|
Term
Name three diseases caused
by exotoxins. |
|
Definition
Tetanus - botulism -
diptheria |
|
|
Term
Name three G- bacteria
species that make exotoxins. |
|
Definition
1) E. coli 2) Vibrio cholerae
3) Bordetella pertussis |
|
|
Term
Name three Lactose fermenting
enterics. |
|
Definition
Eschericia, Klebsiella,
Enterobacter |
|
|
Term
Name two diseases caused by
endotoxins. |
|
Definition
Meningococcemia - sepsis by
G(-) rods |
|
|
Term
Name two type of Strep that
exhibit alpha hemolysis? |
|
Definition
S. pneumoniae - Viridans
strep. (e.g. S. mutans) |
|
|
Term
Name two types of Strep. that
are non-hemolytic (gamma
hemolysis). |
|
Definition
Enterococcus (E. faecalis) and
Peptostreptococcus
(anaerobe) |
|
|
Term
Name two types of Strep. that
exhibit beta hemolysis. |
|
Definition
Group A Strep. (GAS) and
Group B Strep. (GBS) |
|
|
Term
Teichoic acid induces what
two cytokines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the effects of
erythrogenic toxin? |
|
Definition
it is a superantigen - it
causes rash of Scarlet fever |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of
streptolysin O ? |
|
Definition
it is a hemolysin - it is the
antigen for ASO-antibody
found in rheumatic fever |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by Bacillus
anthracis? (1) |
|
Definition
one toxin in the toxin
complex is an adenylate
cyclase |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by
Bordetella pertussis? (3) |
|
Definition
Stimulates adenylate cyclase
by ADP ribosylation - causes
whooping cough - inhibits
chemokine receptor, causing
lymphocytosis |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by
Clostridium botulinum? |
|
Definition
blocks release of
acetylcholine: causes
anticholenergic symptoms,
CNS paralysis; can cause
'floppy baby' |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by
Clostridium perfringens? |
|
Definition
alpha toxin is a lecithinase -
causes gas gangrene - get a
double zone of hemolysis on
blood agar |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by
Clostridium tetani? |
|
Definition
blocks release of the
inhibitory NT glycine; causes
'lockjaw' |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by
Corynebacterium diphtheria?(3) |
|
Definition
1) inactivates EF-2 by ADP
ribosylation 2) pharyngitis 3)
'pseudomembrane' in throat |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by E. coli?
(2) |
|
Definition
this heat labile toxin
stimulates adenylate cyclase
by ADP ribosylation of G
protein - causes watery
diarrhea |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by Staph.
aureus? |
|
Definition
superantigen; induces IL-1
and IL-2 synthesis in Toxic
Shock Syndrome; also causes
food poisoning |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the
exotoxin secreted by Vibro
cholerae? (3) |
|
Definition
Stimulates adenylate cyclase
by ADP ribosylation of G
protein - increases pumping
of Cl- and H2O into gut -
causes voluminous rice-water
diarrhea |
|
|
Term
What are the general clinical
effects of endotoxin?(2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are three primary/
general effects of endotoxin
(especially lipid A)? |
|
Definition
1) Acivates macrophages 2)
Activates completment (alt.
pathway) 3) Activates
Hageman factor |
|
|
Term
What are two exotoxins
secreted by Strep. pyogenes? |
|
Definition
Erythrogenic toxin and
streptolysin O |
|
|
Term
What are two functions of the
pilus/fimbrae? |
|
Definition
Mediate adherence of bacteria
to the cell surface - sex pilus
forms attachment b/t 2
bacteria during conjugation |
|
|
Term
What are two species of Gram
(-) cocci and how are they
differentiated? |
|
Definition
1) Neisseria memingitidis:
maltose fermenter 2)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae:
maltose NONfementer |
|
|
Term
What bacteria produces a
blue-green pigment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria produces a red
pigment? |
|
Definition
Serratia marcescens
('maraschino cherries are red') |
|
|
Term
What bacteria produces a
yellow pigment? |
|
Definition
Staph. aureus (Aureus= gold
in Latin) |
|
|
Term
What culture requirements do
Fungi have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What culture requirements do
Lactose-fermenting enterics
have? |
|
Definition
MacConkey's agar (make pink
colonies) |
|
|
Term
What culture requirements
does B. pertussis have? |
|
Definition
| Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar |
|
|
Term
What culture requirements
does C. diphtheriae have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What culture requirements
does H. flu have? |
|
Definition
chocolate agar with factors V
(NAD) and X (hematin) |
|
|
Term
What culture requirements
does Legionella pneumophia
have? |
|
Definition
Charcol yeast extract agar
buffered with increased iron
and cysteine |
|
|
Term
What culture requirements
does N. gonorrhea have? |
|
Definition
| Thayer-Martin (VCN) media |
|
|
Term
What G- rod is a lactose
nonfermenter and is Oxidase
+ ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a function of the
plasma membrane in
bacterial cells. |
|
Definition
site of oxidative and
transport enzymes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
exotoxin treated with
formaldehyde (or acid or
heat); retains antigeniciy but
looses toxicity |
|
|
Term
What is an acronym for
remembering 6 bacteria that
don't Gram's stain well? |
|
Definition
TRMMLC: These Rascals May
Microscopically Lack Color |
|
|
Term
What is meant by alpha, beta,
and gamma hemolysis? |
|
Definition
On a Blood agar plate:
alpha= complete; clear -
beta= partial; green -
gamma= no hemolysis; red |
|
|
Term
What is the chemical
composition of a glycocalix? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the chemical
composition of bacterial
ribosomes? |
|
Definition
RNA and protein in 30S and
50S subunits |
|
|
Term
What is the chemical
composition of endotoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the chemical
composition of exotoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the chemical
composition of spores? |
|
Definition
keratin-like coat - dipicolinic
acid |
|
|
Term
What is the funciton and
chemical composition of the
flagellum? |
|
Definition
| for motility - made of protein |
|
|
Term
What is the function of a
glycocalix? |
|
Definition
mediates adherence to
surfaces, especially foreign
surfaces (i.e. catheters) |
|
|
Term
What is the function of
spores? |
|
Definition
provides resistance to
dehydration, heat, and
chemicals |
|
|
Term
What is the major chemical
composition of the capsule? |
|
Definition
Polysaccharide (*except
Bacillus anthracis, which
contains D-Glutamate) |
|
|
Term
What is the major function of
the capsule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mode of action of
endotoxin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the nature of the DNA
transferred in conjugation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the nature of the DNA
transferred in transduction? |
|
Definition
Any gene in generalized
transduction; only certain
genes in specialized
transduction |
|
|
Term
What is the nature of the DNA
transferred in transformation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the periplasm? Where
is it found? |
|
Definition
the space between the inner
and outer cell membranes
found in G(-) bacteria. |
|
|
Term
What is the primary test to
subcatergorize G- rods? |
|
Definition
| are they Lactose Fermenters? |
|
|
Term
What is the source of
endotoxins? |
|
Definition
cell wall of most G- bacteria
(think N-dotoxin=gram
Negative) |
|
|
Term
What is the source of
exotoxins? |
|
Definition
certain species of some G+
and G- bacteria |
|
|
Term
What is the unique chemical
component of Gram (-) cell
membranes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the unique chemical
component of Gram + cell
membranes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to stain
Legionella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species is Group A
Strep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species is Group B
Strep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What stain is amyloid and
gives an apple-green
birefringence in polarized
light? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What stain is used for acid
fast bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What stain is used for
Borrelia, Plasmodium,
trypanosomes, and
Chlamydia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What stain is used for
Cryptococcus neoformans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What stains gylcogen,
mucopolysaccharides and is
used to diagnose Whipple's
disease? |
|
Definition
| PAS(periodic acid schiff) |
|
|
Term
What test distinguishes Staph.
and Strep? |
|
Definition
Staph. are Catalase (+) and
are in clusters - Strep. are
Catalase (-) and are in chains |
|
|
Term
What test distinguishes Staph.
aureus from Staph.
epidermidis and Staph.
saprophyticus? |
|
Definition
S. aureus is Coagulase (+) -
S. epidermidis and S.
saprophyticus are Coagulase(-) |
|
|
Term
What two things distinguish
S. pneumoniae from Viridans
Strep.? |
|
Definition
S. pneumoniae: have Capsule;
Optochin Sensitive - Viridans
strep: No capsule; Optochin
Resistant |
|
|
Term
What type of enzymes allows
certain bacteria to colonize
mucosal surfaces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When endotoxin activates
complement, what are the
secondary effects? |
|
Definition
C3a: hypotension, edema -
C5a: neutrophil chemotaxis |
|
|
Term
When endotoxin activates
Hageman, what are the
secondary effects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When endotoxin activates
macrophages, what 3
cytokines are released and
what are the secondary
effects? |
|
Definition
IL-1--fever - TNF--fever,
hemmoragic tissue necrosis
- Nitic oxide--hypotension,
shock |
|
|
Term
Where are the genes for
endotoxin located? |
|
Definition
| on the bacterial chromosome |
|
|
Term
Where are the genes for
exotoxin located? |
|
Definition
on a plasmid or in a
bacteriophage |
|
|
Term
Where are the spores of
Clostridium botulinum found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
in the outer membrane of G
(-) cell walls |
|
|
Term
Which has a higher toxicity:
exotoxin or endotoxin? |
|
Definition
EXOTOXIN: fatal dose is ~1ug!
(for endotoxin, fatal dose is
hundreds of micrograms) |
|
|
Term
Which type of Neisseria
ferment Glucose only? |
|
Definition
Gonococci (Glucose=
Gonococci) |
|
|
Term
Which type of Neisseria
ferment maltose and glucose? |
|
Definition
Meningococci
(MaltoseGlucose=
MeninGococci) |
|
|
Term
Which types of transfer can
eukaryotic cells do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which types of transfer can
prokaryotic cells do? |
|
Definition
all 3: conjugation,
transduction, and
transformation |
|
|
Term
Why don't Mycobacteria
Gram's stain well? |
|
Definition
high lipid content cell wall
requires acid-fast stain |
|
|
Term
Why don't Mycoplasma
Gram's stain well? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why don't Rickettsia,
Chlamydia, and Legionella
Gram's stain well? |
|
Definition
they are intracellular
(Legionella is Mainly
intracellular) |
|
|
Term
Why don't Treponema Gram's
stain well? |
|
Definition
too thin to be visualized (use
darkfield microscopy and
antibody staining) |
|
|
Term
Name 5 species of bacteria
that are transmitted to
humans from animals.
(Acronym: BBugs From Your
Pet.) |
|
Definition
Borrelia burgdorferi -
Brucella spp. - Francisella
tularensis - Yersinia pestis -
Pasteurella multocida |
|
|
Term
All Rickettsiae (except one
genus) are transmitted by
what type of vector? |
|
Definition
arthropod (Coxiella is
atypical: transmitted by
aeresol) |
|
|
Term
Are G(-) bugs resistant to Pen
G? to ampicillin? to
vancomycin? |
|
Definition
G- bugs are resistant to PenG
but may be susceptible to
pen. derivative like ampicillin.
The G- outer mb inhibits
entry of PenG and vancomycin |
|
|
Term
Are Strep. pneumoniae
sensitve to optochin? Are
Viridans strep.? |
|
Definition
Strep. pneumoniae is
optochin-Sensitive - Viridans
streptococci is optochin-
Resistant |
|
|
Term
Are Strep. pyogenes
Bacitracin-sensitive?> |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are Viridans strep. alpha,
beta, or non-hemolytic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Because of drug resistance,
what in an alternate
treatment combination for
leprosy? |
|
Definition
rifampin with dapsone and
clofazimine |
|
|
Term
Besides the rash, what other
body systems are affected by
Lyme disease? (3) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe lab-findings for
Pseudomonas aeruginosa. |
|
Definition
Aerobic, G(-) rod. - Nonlactose
fermenting - Oxidase
positive - Produces
pyocyanin (blue-green
pigment) |
|
|
Term
Describe the disease
associated with M. aviumintracellulare. |
|
Definition
often resistant to multiple
drugs; causes disseminated
disease in AIDS. |
|
|
Term
Describe the H. flu vaccine.
When is it given? |
|
Definition
contains type b capsulare
polysaccharide conjugated to
diphtheria toxoid or other
protein. -Given b/t 2m and
18m. |
|
|
Term
Describe the typical findings
with diarrhea caused by
enterotoxigenic E. coli. (3) |
|
Definition
1) Ferments lactose 2) watery
diarrhea 3) no fever/
leukocytosis |
|
|
Term
Describe the typical findings
with Vibro cholerae. (3) |
|
Definition
1) Comma-shaped organisms
2) rice-water stools 3) no
fever/leukocytosis |
|
|
Term
Do Streptococcus pneumonia
have catalase? Do Viridans
Strep. have catalase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Enterococci are hardier than
nonenterococcal group D
bacteria. What lab conditions
can they grow in? |
|
Definition
| 6.5% NaCl (used as lab test) |
|
|
Term
Following primary infection
with TB, if preallergic
lymphatic or hematogenous
dissemination occurs, what
follows? |
|
Definition
-dormant tubercle bacilli
form in several organs -
REACTIVATION can occur in
adult life |
|
|
Term
Following primary infection
with TB, if severe bacteremia
occurs, what follows? |
|
Definition
Miliary tuberculosis and
possibly death |
|
|
Term
Following primary infection
with TB, if the lesion heals by
fibrosis, what is the result? |
|
Definition
Immunity and
hypersensitivity--->
tuberculin positive |
|
|
Term
Following primary infection
with TB, under what
conditions would the lesion
likely progress to lung
disease? |
|
Definition
HIV, malnutrition. This
progressive lung disease can
rarely lead to death. |
|
|
Term
Following primary infection
with TB, what are 4 possible
courses the disease could
take? |
|
Definition
1) Heals by fibrosis 2)
Progressive lung disease 3)
Severe bacteremia 4)
Preallergic lymphatic or
hematogenous dissemination |
|
|
Term
Give 3 examples of obligate
anaerobes. |
|
Definition
Clostridium - Bacteroides -
Actinomyces |
|
|
Term
Give 3 types of infection
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
commonly responsible for. |
|
Definition
1) burn wound infection 2)
nosocomial pneumonia 3)
pneumonia with cystic
fibrosis |
|
|
Term
Give 4 examples of
encapsulated bacteria. |
|
Definition
1) Strep. pneumoniae 2)
Haemophilus influenza
(especially b) 3) Neisseria
memingitidis 4) Klebsiella
pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Epiglottitis -Meningitis -
Otitis media -Pneumonia
(haEMOPhilus) |
|
|
Term
| How are Borrelia visualized? |
|
Definition
using aniline dyes (Wright's or
Giemsa stain) in light
microscopy |
|
|
Term
How are Mycobacteria
visualized in the lab? |
|
Definition
acid-fast stain =Ziehl-
Neelson |
|
|
Term
How are Treponema
visualized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can secondary
tuberculosis in the lung
occur?(2) |
|
Definition
1) Reinfection of partially
immune hypersensitized hosts
(usu. adults) =exogenous
source 2) Reactivation of
dormant tubercle bacilli in
immunocompromised or
debilitated hosts
=endogenous source |
|
|
Term
How can you remember that
Viridans strep are resistant to
optochin? |
|
Definition
they live in the mouth and are
not afraid of the (opto-)CHIN |
|
|
Term
How does primary syphilis
present? |
|
Definition
with a painless chancre
(localized disease; 2-10 wks). |
|
|
Term
How does secondary syphilis
present? |
|
Definition
disseminated disease (1-3m
later) with constitutional
symptoms, maculopapular
rash, condylomata lata
(genital lesions) |
|
|
Term
How does tertiary syphilis
present? |
|
Definition
gummas (granulomas),
aortitis, neurosyphilis (tabes
dorsalis), Argyll-Robertson
pupil |
|
|
Term
How does the bacterium
cause the disease? |
|
Definition
via exotoxin encoded by
beta-prophage; exotoxin
inhibits protein synthesis via
ADP-ribosylation of EF-2 |
|
|
Term
How does the rash with
typhus differ from the rash
with RMSF? |
|
Definition
typhus: maculopapillary rash
BEGINS ON TRUNCK, moves
peripherally -RMSF: macules
progressing to petichiae
BEGIN ON HANDS &FFET
and move inward. |
|
|
Term
How is Brucellosis/Undulant
fever transmitted? |
|
Definition
dairy products, contact with
animals |
|
|
Term
| How is Cellulitis transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is H. flu transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Legionnaires' disease
diagnosed in lab? |
|
Definition
use silver stain (doesn't Gram
stain well) -culture with
charcoal yeast extract with
iron and cysteine |
|
|
Term
How is Legionnaires' disease
transmitted? |
|
Definition
aeresol transmission from
envirnomental water source
habitat (NO human-to human
transmission). |
|
|
Term
How is Lyme disease
transmitted? |
|
Definition
Tick bite; Ixodes ticks that
live of deer and mice |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| food, fingers, feces, and flies' |
|
|
Term
How is the Plague
transmitted? |
|
Definition
Flea bite; rodents, especially
prairie dogs |
|
|
Term
How is Tuleremia
transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Bacillus anthracis G+ or
G-? What is its morphology? |
|
Definition
| It is a G+, spore-forming rod |
|
|
Term
Is there an animal reservoir
for leprosy? |
|
Definition
| Yes, armadillos in the US |
|
|
Term
List 5 findings associated
with rheumatic fever. (Hint:
PECCS) |
|
Definition
Polyarthritis - Erythema
marginatum -Chorea -
Carditis - Subcutaneous
nodules |
|
|
Term
List the 'ABCDEFG' of
diphtheria. |
|
Definition
ADP ribosylation -Betaprophage
-Corynebacterium
- Diphtheria - Elongation
Factor 2 - Granules |
|
|
Term
Name 2 alpha-hemolytic
bacteria. |
|
Definition
Strep. pneumoniae - Viridans
streptococci |
|
|
Term
Name 2 bugs that cause
diarrhea but NOT fever and
leukocytosis? |
|
Definition
| E. coli and Vibro cholerae |
|
|
Term
Name 2 disease processes
that can be caused by
enterococci. |
|
Definition
1) UTI 2) subacute
endocarditis |
|
|
Term
Name 2 species of
enterococci. |
|
Definition
Enterococcus faecalis -
Enterococcus faecium |
|
|
Term
Name 2 symptoms of
diphtheria. |
|
Definition
pseudomembraneous
pharyngitis (grayish white
membrane) -
lymphadenopathy |
|
|
Term
Name 3 spore forming
bacteria. |
|
Definition
Bacillus anthracis -
Clostridium perfringens - C.
tetani |
|
|
Term
Name 4 beta-hemolytic
bacteria. |
|
Definition
1) Staph. aureus 2) Strep.
pyogenes (GAS) 3) Strep.
agalactiae (GBS) 4) Listeria
monocytogenes |
|
|
Term
Name 4 lactose-fermenting
enteric bacteria. |
|
Definition
Klebsiella -E. coli -
Enterobacter Citrobacter
(think Lactose is KEE for first
three listed) |
|
|
Term
Name 4 obligate aerobic
bacteria. |
|
Definition
Norcardia - Pserudomonas
aeruginosa - Mycobacterium
tuberculosis - Bacillus |
|
|
Term
Name 5 bugs that cause
watery diarrhea. |
|
Definition
1) Vibrio cholerae 2)
enterotoxigenic E. coli 3)
viruses (rotavirus) 4)
protozoa (Cryptosporidium)
and (5) Giardia |
|
|
Term
Name 6 bugs that cause
bloody diarrhea. |
|
Definition
1) Salmonella 2) Shigella 3)
Campylobacter jejuni 4)
enterohemorrhagic/
enteroinvasive E.coli 5)
Yersinia enterocilitica 6)
Entamoeba histolytica (a
protozoan) |
|
|
Term
Name 7 faculatative
intracellular bacteria. |
|
Definition
1) Mycobacterium 2) Brucella
3) Francisella 4) Listeria 5)
Yersinia 6) Legionella 7)
Salmonella |
|
|
Term
Name three genera of
spirochetes. |
|
Definition
Borrelia (big size) -
Leptospira -Treponema
(think: BLT; B is big) |
|
|
Term
Name two lab tests used to
detect syphilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name two non-lactose
fermenting bacteria that
invade intestinal mucosa and
can cause bloody diarrhea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name two obligate
intracellular bacteria. |
|
Definition
Rickettsia and Chlamydia
(Hint: 'stay inside when its
Really Cold.') |
|
|
Term
RMSF is endemic to what part
of the US? |
|
Definition
the East Coast (in spite of the
name) |
|
|
Term
Spore are formed by certain
species of what type of
bacteria? |
|
Definition
Gram+ rods, usually in soil;
form spores only when
nutrients are limited |
|
|
Term
T/F Chlamydia are obligate
intracellular parasites that
cause mucosal infections. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Enterobacteriaceae are
oxidase negative and are
glucose fermenters. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F H. pylori infection is a
risk factor for peptic ulcer
and gastric carcinoma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Penicillin is not an
effective treatment against
Mycoplasma pneumoniae. |
|
Definition
TRUE Mycoplama are
naturally resistant b/c they
have no cell wall. |
|
|
Term
T/F Pseudomonas produces
both endotoxin and exotoxin. |
|
Definition
TRUE: endotoxin--->
fever, shock -exotoxin---
> inactivates EF-2 |
|
|
Term
T/F Rickettsiae are obligate
intracellular parasites and
need CoA and NAD. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Some enterococci are
resistant to PenG. |
|
Definition
FALSE: ALL enterococci are
naturally resistant to Pen/
cephlosporins. |
|
|
Term
T/F Spores have no metabolic
activity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: S. aureus food
poisoning is due to the
ingestion of bacteria that
rapidly secrete toxin once
they enter the GI tract. |
|
Definition
FALSE: rapid onset of S.
aureus food poisoning is due
to injestion of PREFORMED
toxin |
|
|
Term
The Weil-Felix reaction
usually tests positive for what
two diseases? Negative for
what? Cross reacts with what? |
|
Definition
Positive: typhus and RMSF -
Negative: Q fever -Crossreacts:
with Proteus antigen |
|
|
Term
Think COFFEe for
Enterobacteriaceae. What
does that stand for? |
|
Definition
Capsular -O-antigen -
Flagellar antigen -Ferment
glucose -Enterobacteriaceae |
|
|
Term
What's a pneumonic for
remembering 4 obligate
aerobes? |
|
Definition
Nagging Pests Must Breath
(=Norcardia - Pserudomonas
aeruginosa - Mycobacterium
tuberculosis - Bacillus |
|
|
Term
What (6) infections can
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
cause? |
|
Definition
burn-wound infections -
Pneumonia (esp. in cystic
fibrosis) -Sepsis (black skin
lesions) -External Otitis
(swimmer's ear) - UTI -hot
tub folliculitis |
|
|
Term
What 2 bugs can cause
bloody diarrhea, fever, and
leukocytosis, but do not
ferment lactose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What animals carry Lyme
disease? |
|
Definition
The Ixodes tick transmits it.
- Deer are required for tick
life cycle. - Mice are
important resservoirs. |
|
|
Term
What anitbody class is
necessary for an immune
response to encapsulated
bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 2 disease processes
caused by Viridans strep and
what species are responsible? |
|
Definition
1) dental caries: Strep.
mutans 2) bacterial
endocarditis: Strep. sanguis |
|
|
Term
What are 2 options for triple
thearpy treatment of H.
pylori? |
|
Definition
(1) bismuth (Pepto-Bismal),
metronidazole, and
tetracyclin or amoxicillin. OR
(2) metronidazole,
omeprazole, and
clarithromycin (#2 is more
expensive) |
|
|
Term
What are 3 advantages/
differences between VDRL
and FTA-ABS? |
|
Definition
FTA-ABS is 1) more specific
2) positive earlier in disease
3) remains positive longer
than VDRL |
|
|
Term
What are 3 disease processes
caused by Strep. pyogenes? |
|
Definition
1) Pyogenic--pharyngitis,
cellulitis, skin infection 2)
Toxigenic--scarlet fever, TSS
3) Immunologic--rheumatic
fever, acute
glomerulonephritis |
|
|
Term
What are 4 biological false
positives for VDRL? |
|
Definition
1) Viruses (mono, hepatitis)
2) Drugs 3) Rheumatic fever
and rheumatic arthritis 4)
Lupus and leprosy (=VDRL) |
|
|
Term
What are 4 clinical symptoms
of 'walking' pneumonia? |
|
Definition
1) insidious onset 2)
headache 3) nonproductive
cough 4) diffuse interstitial
infiltrate |
|
|
Term
What are 4 clinical symptoms
of TB? |
|
Definition
1) fever 2) night sweats 3)
weight loss 4) hemoptysis |
|
|
Term
What are 5 areas that can be
affected by extrapulmonary
TB? |
|
Definition
1) CNS (parenchmal
tuberculoma or meningitis)
2) Vertebral body (Pott's
disease) 3) Lymphadenitis 4)
Renal 5) GI |
|
|
Term
What are the culture
requirement for H. flu? |
|
Definition
culture on chocolate agar
with factor V (NAD) and X
(hematin). [Think: 'Child has
'flu'; mom goes to five (V) and
dime (X) store to buy
chocolate.'] |
|
|
Term
What are the lab findings with
Chlamydia? |
|
Definition
cytoplasmic inclusions on
Giemsa fluorescent antibodystains
smear |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of
RMSF? (3) |
|
Definition
1) rash on palms and soles
(migrating to wrists, ankles,
then trunck) 2) headache 3)
fever |
|
|
Term
What are the three stages of
Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
1) erythema chronicum
migrans, flu-like symptoms
2) neurologic and cardiac
manifestations 3)
autoimmune migratory
polyarthritis |
|
|
Term
What are the two forms of
chlamydia? |
|
Definition
1) Elementary body (small,
dense): Enters cell via
endocytosis 2) Initial or
Reticulate body: Replicates in
the cell by fission |
|
|
Term
What are the two forms of
leprosy (or Hansen's disease)? |
|
Definition
1) lepromatous- failed cellmediated
immunity, worse 2)
tuberculoid- self-limited. |
|
|
Term
What are two drugs that could
be used to treat 'walking'
pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| tetracycline or erythromycin |
|
|
Term
What are two drugs that could
treat Chlmydia? |
|
Definition
| erythromycin or tetracycline |
|
|
Term
What are two lab findings
associated with 'walking'
pneumonia? |
|
Definition
1) X-ray looks worse than
patient 2)High titer of cold
agglutinins (IgM) |
|
|
Term
What are usually associated
with pseudomembraneous
colitis? |
|
Definition
Clostridium difficile; it kills
enterocytes, usu. is
overgrowth secondary to
antibiotic use (esp.
clindamycin or ampicillin) |
|
|
Term
What bacteria are G+, sporeforming,
anaerobic bacilli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria causes a
malignant pustule (painless
ulcer); black skin lesions that
are vesicular papules covered
by a black eschar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria exhibits a
'tumbling' motility, is found in
unpasteurized milk, and
causes meningitis in
newborns? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria is catalase(-)
and bacitracin-resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria is catalase(-)
and bacitracin-sensitive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria is catalase+
and coagulase+? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria produces
alpha-toxin, a hemolytic
lecithinase that causes
myonecrosis or gas
gangrene? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterium causes
Cellulitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterium causes
leprosy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterium causes Lyme
disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterium causes the
Plague? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterium causes
Tularemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacterium causes
Undulant fever? |
|
Definition
Brucella spp. (a.k.a.
Brucellosis) |
|
|
Term
What bug causes atypical
'walking' pneumonia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bug causes
gastroenteritis and up to 90%
of duodenal ulcers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bug causes
Legionnaire's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bug is associated with
burn wound infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bug is comma- or Sshaped
and grows at 42C,
and causes bloody diarrhea
with fever and leukocytosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bug that causes
diarrhea is usually
transmitted from pet feces
(e.g. puppies)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes tetanus? (give
bacteria and disease process) |
|
Definition
Clostridium tetani: exotoxin
produced blocks glycine
release (inhibitory NT) from
Renshaw cells in spinal cord |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NOT H. flu -it is caused by
influenza virus |
|
|
Term
What chemical is found in the
core of spores? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What coccobacillus causes
vaginosis: greenish vaginal
discharge with a fishy smell;
nonpainful? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease does Bordetella
perussis cause? How? |
|
Definition
Whooping cough: toxin
permanently disables Gprotein
in respiratory mucosa
(turns the 'off' off);ciliated
epithelial cells are killed;
mucosal cells are overactive. |
|
|
Term
What disease does Vibrio
cholerae cause? How? |
|
Definition
Cholera: toxin permanently
activates G-protein in
intestinal mucosa (turns the
'on' on) causing rice-water
diarrhea |
|
|
Term
What disease is caused by
Borrelia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease is caused by
Clostridium botulinum? What
pathophys. does it cause? |
|
Definition
Botulism: associated with
contaminated canned food,
produces a preformed, heatlabile
toxin that inhibits ACh
release---> flaccid
paralysis. |
|
|
Term
What diseases (2) are caused
by Treponema? |
|
Definition
Syphilis (T. pallidum) -yaws
(T. pertenue; not and STD) |
|
|
Term
What diseases can be caused
by Staph. aureus? |
|
Definition
Inflammatory disease: skin
infections, organ abcess,
pneumonia - Toxin mediated
disease: Toxic
Shock Syn., scalded skin
syndrome (exfoliative toxin),
rapid onset food poisoning
(enterotoxins) |
|
|
Term
What do Chlamydia
trachomatis serotypes A, B,
and C cause? |
|
Definition
chronic infection, cause
blindness in Africa (ABC=
Africa / Blindness / Chronic |
|
|
Term
What do Chlamydia
trachomatis serotypes D-K
cause? (3) |
|
Definition
urethritis/ PID - neonatal
pneumonia -neonatal
conjuctivitis |
|
|
Term
What do Chlamydia
trachomatis serotypes L1,L2,
and L3 cause? |
|
Definition
lymphogranuloma venereum
(acute lymphadentis: positive
Frei test) |
|
|
Term
What do RMSF, syphilis, and
coxsackievirus A infection
have in common? |
|
Definition
rash on palm and sole is seen
in each (coxasackievirus A
=hand, foot, and mouth
disease) |
|
|
Term
What does catalase do? Which
bacteria have it? |
|
Definition
it degrades H2O2, an
antimicrobial product of
PMNs. - Staphlococci make
catalase; Strep. do NOT. |
|
|
Term
What does the H-antigen
represent? |
|
Definition
H: flagellar antigen, found on
motile species |
|
|
Term
What does the K-antigen
represent? |
|
Definition
K: capsular, relates to
virulence |
|
|
Term
What does the O-antigen
represent? |
|
Definition
O-antigen is the
polysaccharide of endotoxin
(found on all species) |
|
|
Term
What does VDRL detect? (It
detects non-specific antibody
that reacts with what?) |
|
Definition
detects antibody that reacts
with beef cardiolipin |
|
|
Term
What drug of choice is used
to treat Norcardia?
Actinomyces? (Acronym:
SNAP) |
|
Definition
Sulfa for Norcarida,
Actinomyces gets Penicillin |
|
|
Term
What enteric bacterial
infection may be prolonged
with antibiotic treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzyme allows H. pylori
to creat an alkaline
environment? |
|
Definition
urease (cleaves urea to
ammonia); used in urease
breath test |
|
|
Term
What family includes E. coli,
Salmonella, Klebsiella,
Enterobacter, Serratia, and
Proteus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What family of bacteria uses
the O-, K-, and H-antigen
nomenclature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What function does the
capsule serve? (2: one for the
bacterium, one other) |
|
Definition
1) antiphagocytic 2) antigen
in vaccines (Pneumovax, H.
flu b, meningococcal
vaccines) |
|
|
Term
What G+ anaerobe causes
oral/facial abscesses with
'sulfur granules' that may
drain through sinus tracts in
skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What G+ and also weakly acid
fast aorobe found in soil
causes pulmonary infections
in immunocompromised
patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What general type of bacteria
are normal flora in GI tract
but pathogenic elsewhere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What general type of bacteria
grow pink colonies on
MacConkey's agar? |
|
Definition
Lactose-fermenting enteric
bacteria |
|
|
Term
What is a Ghon complex and
in whom does it occur? |
|
Definition
Occurs in Primary TB (usually
a child) -Ghon complex=
draining Hilar nodes and
Ghon focus, exudative
parenchymal lesion (usu. in
LOWER lobes of lung) |
|
|
Term
What is a lab diagnosis of
diphtheria based on? |
|
Definition
G+ rods with metachromatic
granules; grows on tellurite
agar. (Coryne=club shaped) |
|
|
Term
What is a major difference
between Salmonella and
Shigella observable in the lab? |
|
Definition
Salmonella are motile;
Shigella are nonmotile |
|
|
Term
What is a positive Quellung
reaction? |
|
Definition
if encapsulated bug is
present, capsule SWELLS
when specific anticapsular
antisera are added. |
|
|
Term
What is notable about
Chrmydia psittaci? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is one reason M. leparae
infects skin and superficial
nerves? |
|
Definition
| It likes cool temperatures |
|
|
Term
What is the classic symptom
of Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
erythema chronicum migrans,
an expanding 'bull's eys' red
rash with central clearing. |
|
|
Term
What is the classic triad of
symptoms associated with
Rickettsiae? |
|
Definition
1) headache 2) fever 3) rash
(vasiculitis) |
|
|
Term
What is the common
manifestation of secondary
TB? |
|
Definition
Fibrocaseous cavitary lesion
usu. in APICIES of lung |
|
|
Term
What is the common site of
infection for Mycobacterium
tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
the apicies of the lung (which
have the highest PO2) |
|
|
Term
What is the D.O.C. to treat
Gardnerella vaginalis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the DOC for treating
rickettsial infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the DOC for
treatment of most rickettsial
infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the DOC to treat
Lyme Disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the DOC to treat
syphilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the drug of choice for
H. flu meningitis? What DOC
for prophylaxis in close contacts? |
|
Definition
Treat meningitis with
CEFTRIAXONE; Rifampin for
prophylaxis. |
|
|
Term
What is the drug of choice for
Legionaires' disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the morphology of H.
flu? |
|
Definition
| Small G(-) (coccobacillary) rod |
|
|
Term
What is the morphology of H.
pylori? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary drug
used to treat leprosy? |
|
Definition
dapsone (toxicity is hemolysis
and methemoglobinemia) |
|
|
Term
What is the recommended
treatment for Pseudomonas
aeruginosa infection? |
|
Definition
aminoglycoside plus
extended-spectrum penicillin
(e.g. piperacillin or ticarcillin) |
|
|
Term
What is the source of
infection and the bacterium
that causes endemic typhus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the source of
infection and the bacterium
that causes epidemic typhus? |
|
Definition
R. prowazekii; from human
body louse |
|
|
Term
What is the source of
infection and the bacterium
that causes Q fever? |
|
Definition
Coxiella burnetii; from
inhaled aersols |
|
|
Term
What is the source of
infection and the bacterium
that causes Rocky Mountain
Spotted Fever? |
|
Definition
Rickettsia rickettsii; from tick
bite |
|
|
Term
What is the toxin responsible
for TSS is Staph. aureus? |
|
Definition
TSST-1; it is a superantigen
that binds to class II MHC and
T-cell receptors--->
polyclonal T-cell activation |
|
|
Term
What is the unique
component found in
Mycoplamsa bacterial
membranes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the unique feature of
Chlamydiae cell walls? |
|
Definition
its peptidoglycan wall lacks
muramic acid |
|
|
Term
| What is woolsorter's disease? |
|
Definition
inhalation anthrax; can cause
life-threatening pneumonia |
|
|
Term
What lab test assays for
antirickettsial antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Lancefield Antigen
Group are enterococci in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Lancefield Antigen
Group are Viridans strep in? |
|
Definition
They are non-typealbe. They
do not have a C-carbohydrate
on their cell wall to be
classified by. |
|
|
Term
What level of disinfection is
required to kill spores? |
|
Definition
autoclaving; they are highly
resistant to destruction by
heat and chemicals |
|
|
Term
What populations are most
likely to get Mycoplama
pneumoniae infection? |
|
Definition
patients younger than age 30
- military recruits - prisons |
|
|
Term
What rickettsial disease is
atypical in that it has no rash,
no vector, negative Weil-Felix
reaction, and its causative
organism can survive outside
for a long time? |
|
Definition
| Q fever (Coxiella burnetii) |
|
|
Term
What species are associated
with food poisoning in
contaminated seafood? |
|
Definition
Vibrio parahaemolytica and
Virbrio vulnificus |
|
|
Term
What species causes
diphtheria? |
|
Definition
| Corynebacterium diptheriae |
|
|
Term
What species is associated
with food poisoning in
improperly canned foods
(bulging cans)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species is associated
with food poisoning in meats,
mayonnaise, and custard? |
|
Definition
Staphylococcus aureus (this
food poisoining usu. starts
quickly and ends quickly) |
|
|
Term
What species is associated
with food poisoning in
poultry, meat, and eggs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species is associated
with food poisoning in
reheated meat dishes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species is associated
with food poisoning in
reheated rice? |
|
Definition
Bacillus cereus ('Food
poisoning from reheated rice?
Be serious!') |
|
|
Term
What species is associated
with food poisoning in
undercooked meat and
unpasteurized juices? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species of Mycobacteria
causes pulmonary, TB-like
symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What strain of Haemophilus
influenza causes most
invasive disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What symptoms are
associated with M.
scrofulaceum |
|
Definition
| cervical lymphadenitis in kids |
|
|
Term
What test differentiates
Viridans from S. pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
Viridans are resistant to
optochin; S. pneu. are
sensitive to optochin |
|
|
Term
What two bugs secrete
exotoxins that act via ADP
ribosylation of G-proteins,
permanently activating adenyl
cyclase (resulting in increased
cAMP)? |
|
Definition
Vibrio cholerae - Bordetella
pertussis |
|
|
Term
What two genera of G+ rods
form long branching
filaments resembling fungi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of bacteria are
difficult to culture, produce
gas in tissue (CO2 and H2),
and are generally foulsmelling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of bacteria is
associated with rusty sputum,
sepsis in sickle cell, and
splenectomy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of E. coli are
associated with bloody
diarrhea? |
|
Definition
enterohemmoragic/
enteroinvasive E. coli |
|
|
Term
What type of immunologic
response is elicited by a
Salmonella infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What types of infection can
chlamydia cause? (4) |
|
Definition
arthritis-conjunctivitis -
pneumonia - nongonococcal
urethritis |
|
|
Term
What virulence factor of
Staph. aureus binds Fc-IgG,
inhibiting complement
fixation and phagocytosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What virulence factor of
Strep. pyogenes also serves
as an antigen to which the
host makes antibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What will likely be visible
under the microscope in the
case of Gardnerella vaginallis
infection? |
|
Definition
Clue cell, or vaginal epithelial
cells covered with bacteria |
|
|
Term
Where are Viridans strep.
found (reservoir)? |
|
Definition
| normal flora of oropharynx |
|
|
Term
Where & when is Lyme
disease common? |
|
Definition
common in northeast US in
summer months |
|
|
Term
Which disease/toxin causes
lymphocytosis? (Cholera or
Pertussis) |
|
Definition
Pertussis toxin: by inhibiting
chemokine receptors |
|
|
Term
Which has an animal
reservoir? (Salmonella or
Shigella) |
|
Definition
Salmonella: poultry, meat,
eggs |
|
|
Term
Which is more specific for
syphilis: VDRL or FTA-ABS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is more virulent?
(Salmonella or Shigella) |
|
Definition
Shigella (10^1 organisms vs.
Salmonella 10^5 organisms) |
|
|
Term
Which is motile? (Salmonella
or Shigella) |
|
Definition
Salmonella (think: salmon
swim) |
|
|
Term
Which species of chlamydia
causes and atypical
pneumonia? How is it
transmitted? |
|
Definition
C. pneumonia -transmitted
via aeresol |
|
|
Term
Which two species of
chlamydia infect only
humans? |
|
Definition
C. trachomatis -C.
pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
Why are anaerobes
susceptible to oxygen? |
|
Definition
they lack catalase and/or
oxidase and are susceptible
to oxidative damage |
|
|
Term
Why does TB usually infect
the upper lobes of the lung? |
|
Definition
M.tuberculosis is an aerobe;
there is more oxygen at the
apicies |
|
|
Term
Why must rickettsia and
chlamydia always be
intracellular? |
|
Definition
they can't make their own
ATP |
|
|
Term
Are most fungal spores
asexual? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are most P. Carinii infections
symptomatic? |
|
Definition
| no, most of are asymptomatic |
|
|
Term
Are the above mentioned
systemic mycoses dimorphic? |
|
Definition
yes, except coccioidomycosis
which is a spherule in tissue |
|
|
Term
How do the S. Schenckii yeast
appear in the pus? |
|
Definition
| Cigar-shaped budding yeast |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose
cryptosporidium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose
giardiasis? |
|
Definition
| Trophozoites or cysts in stool |
|
|
Term
| How do you get P. Carinii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you treat systemic
mycoses? |
|
Definition
fluconazole or ketoconazole
for local infection,
amphotericin B for systemic
infection |
|
|
Term
| How do you Tx S. Schenckii? |
|
Definition
Itraconazole or Potassium
Iodide |
|
|
Term
How does Aspergillus appear
microscopically? |
|
Definition
Mold with septate hyphae
that branch at a V-shaped (45
degree angle) , they are NOT
dimorphic |
|
|
Term
How does Mucor species
appear microscopically? |
|
Definition
It is a mold with irregular
nonseptate hyphae branching
at wide angles>90 degrees |
|
|
Term
How does
Paracocciodioidomycosis
appear histologically? |
|
Definition
Captain's wheel' appearance
(like on a sailboat) |
|
|
Term
How is Clonorchis sinensis
transmitted and what disease
results? |
|
Definition
undercooked fish; causes
inflammation of the biliary
tract |
|
|
Term
How is Schistosoma
transmitted and what disease
results? |
|
Definition
snails are host; cercariae
penetrate skin of humans;
causes granulomas, fibrosis,
and inflammation of the
spleen and liver |
|
|
Term
How is Ancylostoma
Duodenale transmitted and
what disease results? |
|
Definition
Larvae penetrate skin of feet;
intestinal infection can cause
anemia |
|
|
Term
How is Ascaris Lumbricoides
transmitted and what disease
results? |
|
Definition
Eggs are visible in feces;
intestinal infection |
|
|
Term
How is cryptosporidium
transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Dracunculus
medinensis transmitted and
what disease results? |
|
Definition
In drinking water; sink
inflammation and ulceration |
|
|
Term
How is E. granulosis
transmitted and what disease
results? |
|
Definition
Eggs in dog feces cause cysts
in liver; causes anaphylaxis if
echinococcal antigens
released from cysts |
|
|
Term
How is E. Histolytica
transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Enterobius
Vermicularis transmitted and
what disease results? |
|
Definition
food contaminated with eggs;
intestinal infections; causes
anal pruritus |
|
|
Term
| How is giardia transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Loa loa transmitted
and what disease results? |
|
Definition
Transmitted by deer fly;
causes swelling the in the
skin (can see worm crawling
in conjunctiva) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is malaria transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Onchocerca volvulus
transmitted and what disease
results? |
|
Definition
transmitted by female
blackflies; causes river
blindness |
|
|
Term
How is Paragonimus
Westermani transmitted and
what disease results? |
|
Definition
Undercooked crab meat;
causes inflammation and
secondary bacterial infection
of the lung |
|
|
Term
How is Sporothrix schenckii
appear under the scope? |
|
Definition
Dimorphic fugus that lives on
vegetation |
|
|
Term
How is Strongyloides
Stercoralis transmitted and
what disease results? |
|
Definition
larvae in soil penetrate the
skin; intestinal infection |
|
|
Term
How is T. Canis transmitted
and what disease results? |
|
Definition
food contaminated with eggs;
causes granulomas (if in
retina=blindness) |
|
|
Term
How is T. Solium transmitted
and what disease results? |
|
Definition
undercooked pork tapeworm;
causes mass lesions in the
brain, cysticercosis |
|
|
Term
How is T. Vaginalis
transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| cysts in meat or cat feces |
|
|
Term
How is Trichinella Spiralis
transmitted and what disease
results? |
|
Definition
undercooked meat, usually
pork; inflammation of muscle,
periorbital edema |
|
|
Term
How is Wucheria transmitted
and what disease results? |
|
Definition
female mosquito; causes
blockage of lymphatic vessels
(elephantiasis) |
|
|
Term
In what cells do you find
histoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Pneumocystis Carinii a
yeast? |
|
Definition
Yes, but originally classified
as a Protozoa |
|
|
Term
Microscopically how does
Candida appear? |
|
Definition
budding yeast with
pseudohyphae, germ tube
formation at 37 degrees C) |
|
|
Term
| Name 3 Trematodes (Flukes) |
|
Definition
Schistosoma, Clonorchis
sinensis, Paragonimus
Westermani |
|
|
Term
Name 4 opportunistic fungal
infections. |
|
Definition
Candida Albicans, Aspergillus
fumigatus, Cryptococcus
Neoformans, Mucor and
Rhizopus species |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Coccidiomycosis,
Histoplasmosis,
Paracoccidioidomycosis,
Blastomycosis |
|
|
Term
Name two asexual spores
transmitted by inhalation. |
|
Definition
Hisoplasmosis and
Coccidiodomycosis |
|
|
Term
Name two Cestodes
(Tapeworms) . |
|
Definition
Taenia Solium, and
Echinococcus Ganulosus |
|
|
Term
What agar is used to culture
for systemic mycoses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
asexual fungal spores (ex.
Blastoconidia, and
arthroconidia) |
|
|
Term
| what are most common Candida infections? |
|
Definition
Thrush in Immunocompromised
pts (neonates, patients on
steroids, diabetics and AIDS
pts) , endocarditis in IV drug
users, vaginitis (high pH,
Diabetes, post-antibiotic) ,
diaper rash, disseminated
candidiasis (to any organ) |
|
|
Term
What are some infections
caused by cryptococcus? |
|
Definition
Cryptococcal meningitis,
cryptococcosis |
|
|
Term
What are the 10 Nematodes
(roundworms) we are
concerned with? |
|
Definition
Ancylostoma duodenale
(hookworm) , Ascaris
Lumbricoides, Enterobius
Vermicularis (pinworm) ,
Strongyloides stercoralis,
Trichinella Spiralis, Dracunculus
Medinensis, Loa loa, Onchocerca
Volvulus, Toxocara Canis,
Wucheria Bancrofti |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 B's of
Blastomycosis? |
|
Definition
| Big, Broad-Based, Budding |
|
|
Term
What are the diseases caused
by Cryptosporidium? |
|
Definition
Severe diarrhea in AIDS, Mild
disease (watery diarrhea) in
non-HIV |
|
|
Term
What are the diseases caused
by Toxoplasma? |
|
Definition
| Brain abscess in HIV and birth defects |
|
|
Term
| what are the infections caused by Aspergillus? |
|
Definition
Ear fungus, Lung cavity
Aspergilloma ('fungus ball') ,
invasive aspergillosis. |
|
|
Term
| what can systemic mycoses mimic ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease are caused by
Entamoeba Histolytica ? |
|
Definition
Amebiasis: bloody diarrhea,
dysentery, liver abscess, RUQ
pain |
|
|
Term
What disease does Mucor
species cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease does
Pneumocystis carinii cause? |
|
Definition
| Pneumocystis Carinii pneumonia |
|
|
Term
What disease does Sporothrix
Schenckii cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease does
Trypanosoma Cruzi cause? |
|
Definition
| Chagas disease (heart dis) |
|
|
Term
What disease is caused by
Giardia Lamblia? |
|
Definition
Giardiasis: bloating,
flatulence, foul-smelling
diarrhea |
|
|
Term
What disease is caused by
Leishmanina donovani? |
|
Definition
| Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala azar) |
|
|
Term
What disease is caused by P.
Carinii? |
|
Definition
Diffuse interstitial pneumonia
in HIV |
|
|
Term
What disease is caused by the
plasmodium species (vivax,
ovale, malariae, falciparum) ? |
|
Definition
Malaria: cyclic fever,
headache, anemia,
splenomegaly |
|
|
Term
What disease is caused by
Trypanosma Gambiense and
Rhodesiense? |
|
Definition
| African Sleeping sickness |
|
|
Term
What disesase does
Trichomonas Vaginalis cause? |
|
Definition
Vaginitis: foul-smeilling,
greenish discharge; itching
and burning |
|
|
Term
What do you tx P. Carinii
with? |
|
Definition
TMP-SMZ, or pentamidine, or
dapsone |
|
|
Term
What do you use to culture
cryptococcus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you use to Diagnose
E. Histolytica? |
|
Definition
Serology and/or trophozoites
or cysts in stool |
|
|
Term
What do you use to stain
Cryptococcus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you use to tx
cryptosporidium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you use to Tx
Giardiasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you use to tx T.
Vaginalis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you used to dx P.
Carinii? |
|
Definition
Lung biopsy or lavage,
methenamine silver stain |
|
|
Term
What do you used to Tx
Candida Albicans? |
|
Definition
| Nystatin for superficial infections,Amphotercin B for systemic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does dimorphic mean? |
|
Definition
fungi that are mold in the soil
(low temp) and yeast in tissue
(higher/body temp 37 C) |
|
|
Term
What is diagnositic for L.
donovani? |
|
Definition
| macrophages containing amastigotes |
|
|
Term
What is diagnositic of T.
Vaginalis? |
|
Definition
| Trophozoites on wet mount |
|
|
Term
What is histoplasmosis
associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the progression of S.
Schenckii infection? |
|
Definition
traumatic introduction into
the skin, typically by a thorn
('rose gardner's' disease) ,
causes local pustule or ulcer
with nodules along draining
lymphatics (ascending
lymphangitis) . Little systemic
illness. |
|
|
Term
| what is the vector for L. Donovan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is the vector for T.Cruzi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the vector for T.
Gambiense and Rhodesiense? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to dx African
sleeping sickness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to dx T. Cruzii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what is used to dx toxoplasma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to treat D.
Medinensis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to Treat E.
Histolytica? |
|
Definition
| metronidazole and iodoquinol |
|
|
Term
What is used to tx african
sleeping sickness? |
|
Definition
Suramin for bloodborne
disease or melaroprol for CNS
penetration |
|
|
Term
What is used to tx
Ancylostoma duodenale? |
|
Definition
| mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate |
|
|
Term
What is used to tx Ascaris
Lumbricoides? |
|
Definition
| mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate |
|
|
Term
What is used to tx Clonorhis
sinensis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to tx E.
Granulosus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to tx E.
Vermicularis? |
|
Definition
Mebendazole/pyrantel
pamoate |
|
|
Term
What is used to tx L.
Donovani? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to tx Loa loa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to tx malaria? |
|
Definition
Chloroquine ( primaquine for
vivax, ovale) , sulfadoxine +
pyrimethamine, mefloquine,
quinine |
|
|
Term
What is used to tx O.
Volvulus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to tx
Paragonimus Wetermani? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to tx S.
Stercoralis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to tx
schistosoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to tx T. Canis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to tx T. Cruzii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to tx T. Spiralis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to tx taenia
solium infection? |
|
Definition
Praziquantel/niclosamide;
albendazole for cysticercosis |
|
|
Term
What is used to tx
toxoplasma? |
|
Definition
| sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine |
|
|
Term
What is used to tx W.
Bancrofti? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What patient population is
susceptible to Mucor disease? |
|
Definition
Ketoacidotic patients and
Leukemic patients |
|
|
Term
What stain do you use for
lung tissue when you are
detecting P. Carinii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to tx
toxoplasma? |
|
Definition
| sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine |
|
|
Term
What state predisposes you to
P. Carinii infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What test can be used to
detect polysaccharide
capsular antigen of
Cryptococcus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What types of infections can
Candida Albicans cause? |
|
Definition
systemic or superficial fungal
infections |
|
|
Term
When do you start
prophylaxis in HIV patients? |
|
Definition
when the CD4 drops below
200 cells/mL |
|
|
Term
Where do the mucor and
rhizopus species fungi
proliferate? |
|
Definition
in the walls of blood vessels
and cause infarction of distal
tissue |
|
|
Term
Where is Blastomycosis
endemic? |
|
Definition
States east of the Mississippi
River and Central America |
|
|
Term
Where is Coccidioidomycosis
endemic? |
|
Definition
SWUS, California (San Joaquin
Valley or destert (desert
bumps) 'Valley fever') |
|
|
Term
Where is Histoplasmosis
endemic? |
|
Definition
Mississippi and Ohio River
valleys |
|
|
Term
Where is
Paracoccioidomycosis
endemic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All viruses are haploid except
_________?(1) |
|
Definition
Retroviruses, which have two
identical ssRNA molecules
(diploid). |
|
|
Term
Bites from what 3 animals are
more prone to rabies
infection than a bite from a
dog? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
When one of 2 viruses that
infects the cell has a mutation
that results in a nonfunctional
protein. The nonmutated
virus 'complements' the
mutated one by making a
functional protein that serves
both viruses. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Minor changes based on
random mutations. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Reassorment of viral genome
(such as when human flu A
virus recombines with swin
flu A virus.) |
|
|
Term
| define phenotypic mixing? |
|
Definition
When virus A acquires virus B
coat proteins and acts like
virus B buts its progeny will
have virus A genome and
coat. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-When viruses with
segmented genomes (eg.
influenza virus) exchange
segments. -High frequency
recombination. Cause of
worldwide pandemics. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Exchange of genes between 2
chromosomes by crossing
over within regions of
significant base sequence
homology. |
|
|
Term
Describe its incubation period
and whether or not it has a carrier ? |
|
Definition
-Short incubation period (3
weeks) -No carriers |
|
|
Term
Describe its incubation period
and whether or not it has a
carrier. |
|
Definition
-Long incubation (3 months)
- has carriers |
|
|
Term
Describe the general concept
of bacterial super infection
which can occur with
influenza infection? |
|
Definition
A life-threatening illness
where a bacterial infection is
superimposed on an existing
viral infection. |
|
|
Term
Describe the genetic and
physical properties of
influenza virus? |
|
Definition
-Enveloped -ssRNA virus with
segmented genome -prone to
genetic changes |
|
|
Term
Describe the migration of
rabies within the CNS. |
|
Definition
It migrates in a retrograde
fashion within the CNS up n.
axons. |
|
|
Term
Describe the physical shape
and duration of incubation
for rabies. |
|
Definition
-Bullet-shaped capsid (illus.
in book) -long incubation
period (wks. - 3 months) |
|
|
Term
Describe the technique and
purpose for performing a
Tzanck test? |
|
Definition
-assay for herpes -make a
smear of an opened skin
vesicle to detect
multinucleated giant cells |
|
|
Term
Describe whether or not it
has a carrier. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Explain the concept of a slow
virus infection. |
|
Definition
Virus exists in patient for
months to years before it
manifests as clinical disease. |
|
|
Term
From the following selection
which classes are considered
infectious and which aren't:
dsDNA, ds RNA, (-)ssRNA, (+)
ssRNA. |
|
Definition
-Infectious: dsDNA (except
poxviruses and HBV) and (+)
ssRNA -Noninfectious:
dsRNA and (-)ssRNA |
|
|
Term
HCV is a common form of
hepatitis in what US
population? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does a Monospot test
work? |
|
Definition
It detects heterophil
antibodies by agglutination to
sheep RBC's |
|
|
Term
How is RNA translated and
processed in picornaviruses? |
|
Definition
RNA is translated into one
long polypeptide that is
cleaved by proteases into
many small proteins. |
|
|
Term
How many segments and
what sense is the RNA
genome of influenza viruses? |
|
Definition
| -8 segments -negative sense |
|
|
Term
How may serotypes do
paramyxoviruses have except
parainfluenza which has ___? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Into what class RNA or DNA
to all segmented viruses fall? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Killed vaccines induce what
type of immunity? |
|
Definition
Humoral, with no possibility
of the virus reverting to
virulence |
|
|
Term
Live attenuated vaccines
induce what type of
immunity? |
|
Definition
Humoral and Cellular -with a
risk of the virus reverting to
virulence |
|
|
Term
Mneumonic for rotavirus
symptoms: ROTA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Defective, Dependent on HBV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Enteric, Expectant mothers,
Epidemics |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| pico = 'small' RNA viruses |
|
|
Term
Name 2 common bacterial
infections in AIDS pts. |
|
Definition
infections in AIDS pts.
TB, M. avium-intracellulare
complex |
|
|
Term
Name 2 common protozoan
infections in AIDS pts. |
|
Definition
Toxoplasmosis,
cryptosporidiosis |
|
|
Term
Name 3 members of the
arborvirus family. |
|
Definition
Flavivirus, Togavirus, and
Bunyavirus |
|
|
Term
Name 3 possible sequelae of
measles infection? |
|
Definition
-SSPE -encephalitis -giant
cell pneumonia (rare;found in
immunocompromised
persons) |
|
|
Term
Name 4 common fungal
infections in AIDS pts. |
|
Definition
-Thrush (Candida ablicans) -
cryptococcosis (cryptococcal
meningitis) -histoplasmosis -
Pneumocystis pneumonia |
|
|
Term
Name 4 common viral
infections in AIDS pts. |
|
Definition
-HSV -VZV -CMV -
progressive multifocal
leukoencephalopathy (JC
virus) |
|
|
Term
Name 4 herpesviruses using
the mneumonic: Get herpes
in a CHEVrolet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name 4 main segmented
viruses using the mneumonic
BOAR. |
|
Definition
-Bunyaviruses -
Orthomyxoviruses (influenza
virus) -Arenaviruses -
Reoviruses |
|
|
Term
Name eveloped DNA viruses
(3). HPH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name naked DNA viruses (3).
PAP |
|
Definition
-Parvo -Adeno -Papova 'You
need to be naked for a PAP
smear.' |
|
|
Term
Name the 3 naked RNA
viruses Naked CPR). |
|
Definition
-Calcivivirus -Picornavirus -
Reovirus |
|
|
Term
Name the characteristic
cytoplasmic inclusions seen
in neurons infected with
rabies. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the DNA enveloped
viruses (3). |
|
Definition
-Herpesviruses (herpes
simplex virus types 1 and 2,
VZV, CMV, EBV) -HBV -
smallpox virus |
|
|
Term
Name the DNA nucleocapsid
viruses (2). |
|
Definition
| Adenovirus, Papillomaviruses |
|
|
Term
Name the DNA viruses using
the mneumonic 'HHAPPPy
viruses.' |
|
Definition
-Hepadnavirus -
Herpesviruses -Adenovirus -
Parvovirus -Papovavirus -
Poxvirus |
|
|
Term
Name the illness caused by
rabies and 2 primary
symptoms. |
|
Definition
Encephalitis, fatal is not
prevented, with seizures and
hydrophobia |
|
|
Term
Name the members of the
PaRaMyxovirus using the
letters in bold (4 viruses). |
|
Definition
-Parainfluenza -RSV -Measles
-Mumps |
|
|
Term
Name the recombinant
vaccine available (1). |
|
Definition
HBV (antigen = recombinant
HBsAg) |
|
|
Term
Name the RNA enveloped
viruses (9). |
|
Definition
-Influenza viruses -
parainfluenza viruses -RSV -
measles -mumps -rubella -
rabies -HTLV -HIV |
|
|
Term
Name the RNA nucleocapsid
viruses (3). |
|
Definition
-Enteroviruses (poliovirus,
coxsackievirus, echovirus,
hepatitis A virus) -rhinovirus
-reovirus. |
|
|
Term
Name the vaccines that are
killed (4). |
|
Definition
-rabies -influenza -hepatitis
A -SalK=Killed |
|
|
Term
Name the vaccines that are
live attenuated (6). |
|
Definition
-MMR -Sabin polio -VZV -
yellow fever |
|
|
Term
Of these 3 markers (HBsAg,
HBsAb, HBcAg), which ones
are positive in each of the 4
phases below: (acute disease,
window phase, complete
recovery, chronic carrier). |
|
Definition
-HBsAg, HBcAg -HBcAg -
HBsAb, HBcAg -HBsAg,
HBcAg |
|
|
Term
On HIV, what is gp41 and
gp120? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On HIV, what is p24? (illus. p.
205) |
|
Definition
rectangular nucleocapsid
protein |
|
|
Term
Roughly, what are the time
periods for acute, latent, and
immunodeficient stages of
HIV? |
|
Definition
Acute: 1-3 months Latent: 3
months-3years
Immunodefic.: 3 yrs.-death
(diagram p. 205 that follows
serologic course). |
|
|
Term
Statement: HEV resembles
HAV in: |
|
Definition
course, severity, and
incubation, |
|
|
Term
Use the mneumonic PERCH to
name members of the
Picornavirus family. |
|
Definition
-Poliovirus -Echovirus -
Rhinovirus -Coxsackievirus -
Hepatitis A |
|
|
Term
Viral nucleic acids with
(choose) same/different
nucleic acids as host are
infective alone; others require
special enzymes (contained in
intact virion.) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 antigens are used to
classify influenza? |
|
Definition
Neuraminadase,
Hemagglutinin |
|
|
Term
What age group is the
primary target of
paramyxoviruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What antiviral treatment is
approved for influenza A
(especially prophylaxis) but
not for influenza B & C |
|
Definition
| Amantadine and Rimantadine |
|
|
Term
What antiviral treatment is
approved for influenza A and
B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are Councilman bodies
and what are they
pathomneumonic for? |
|
Definition
acidophilic inclusions seen in
the liver of those with yellow
fever |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 C's of
measles? |
|
Definition
-Cough -Coryza -
Conjunctivitis |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 C's of HCV. |
|
Definition
Chronic, Cirrhosis,
Carcinoma, Carriers |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 most common
diseases caused by prions? |
|
Definition
-Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
(CJD: rapid progressive
dementia) -kuru -scrapie
(sheep -'mad cow disease' |
|
|
Term
What are the causes of SSPE
and PML in
immunocompromised pts. |
|
Definition
-Late sequelae of measles -
Reactivation of JC virus |
|
|
Term
What are the classic
symptoms of yellow fever? |
|
Definition
-high fever -black vomitous -
jaundice |
|
|
Term
What are the common
diseases (1) and routes of
transmission(1) for HHV-8? |
|
Definition
-Kaposi's sarcoma (HIV pts.) -
sexual contact |
|
|
Term
What are the common
diseases (2) and routes of
transmission(2) for EBV? |
|
Definition
-infectious mono, Burkitt's
lymphoma -resp. secretions,
saliva |
|
|
Term
What are the common
diseases (2) and routes of
transmission(2) for HSV-2? |
|
Definition
-herpes genitalis, neonatal
herpes -sexual contact,
perinatal |
|
|
Term
What are the common
diseases (3) and routes of
transmission(1) for VZV? |
|
Definition
-varicella zoster (shingles) -
encephalitis -pneumonia |
|
|
Term
What are the common
diseases (3) and routes of
transmission(2) for HSV-1? |
|
Definition
-gingivostomatitis
keratoconjunctivitis temporal
lobe encephalitis herpes
labialis -respiratory
secretions and saliva |
|
|
Term
What are the common
diseases (3) and routes of
transmission(6) for CMV? |
|
Definition
-congenital infection, mono,
pneumonia -congenital,
transfusion, sexual contact,
saliva, urine, transplant |
|
|
Term
What are the general
characteristics of a prion? |
|
Definition
infectious agent that does not
contain RNA or DNA, consists
only of protein |
|
|
Term
What are the major viruses of
the paramyxovirus family? (4) |
|
Definition
-parainfluenza (croup) -RSV -
Measles -Mumps |
|
|
Term
What are the primary
symptoms of the mumps
virus? (MOP) |
|
Definition
-aseptic Meningitis -Orchitis
-Parotitis (mumps give you
bumps = parotitis) |
|
|
Term
What are the primary viruses
of the picornavirus family?
(PERCH) |
|
Definition
-Poliovirus -Echovirus -
Rhinovirus -Coxsackievirus -
Hepatitis A |
|
|
Term
What are two classic illness
caused by arborviruses? |
|
Definition
-dengue fever (break-bone
fever) -yellow fever |
|
|
Term
What general form of
encephalopathies do prions
present as? |
|
Definition
| spongiform encephalopathies |
|
|
Term
What genetic property does
segmentation afford viruses
and how does this play into
flu epidemics? |
|
Definition
-Segmentation allows
reassorment to occur in RNA
viruses -this contributes to
antigenic shifts which cause
most flu pandemics. |
|
|
Term
What group has a high
mortality rate from HEV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What hematologic finding is
characteristic of mono? |
|
Definition
abnormal circulating
cytotoxic T cells (atypical
lymphocytes) |
|
|
Term
What is HBcAb, and what
does it indicate? |
|
Definition
Antibody to HBcAg; IgM
HBcAb indicates recent
disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Antigen associated with core
of HBV |
|
|
Term
What is HBeAb, and what
does it indicate? |
|
Definition
Antibody to e antigen;
indicates low transmissibility |
|
|
Term
What is HBeAg, and what
does it indicate? |
|
Definition
it is a 2nd different antigen
marker of HBV core; indicates
transmissibility
(HBeAg=Beware) |
|
|
Term
What is HBsAb, and what
does it do? |
|
Definition
Antibody to HBsAg; provides
immunity to hepatitis B |
|
|
Term
What is HBsAg, and what does
it indicate? |
|
Definition
Antigen found on surface of
HBV; continued presence
indicates carrier state |
|
|
Term
What is IgM HAVAb, and what
is it used to detect? |
|
Definition
IgM antibody to HAV; best
test to detect active hepatitis
A |
|
|
Term
What is meant by the 'window
period' in HBV infection, and
what is positive in this
period? |
|
Definition
It is the period between
disappearance of HBsAg and
appearance of Anti-HBs;
HBcAb is pos. during this
period. |
|
|
Term
What is the classic vector for
arborvirus? |
|
Definition
Arthropods (mosquitos, ticks,
etc.) ARBOR=Arthropod Borne |
|
|
Term
What is the function of
reverse transcriptase in HIV? |
|
Definition
synthesize dsDNA from RNA
for integration into host
genome. |
|
|
Term
What is the major mode of
protection from influenza
virus? |
|
Definition
Killed viral vaccine which is
reformulated each year and is
given to those in high risk of
infection (elderly, healthworkers,
etc.) |
|
|
Term
What is the method behind
ELISA/Western blot and
during what period of HIV
infection are they often
negative? |
|
Definition
look for abs to viral proteins;
false negatives common in
first 1-2 months of infection |
|
|
Term
What is the mneumonic for
remembering the Tzanck
smear? |
|
Definition
Tzanck heavens I don't have
herpes. |
|
|
Term
What is the only DNA virus
that is not double stranded? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the only RNA virus
that has dsRNA? |
|
Definition
Reoviridae
['repeatovirus' (reovirus) is
dsRNA] |
|
|
Term
What is the viral cause of the
common cold? |
|
Definition
-Rhinovirus, 100+ serotypes
-Rhino has a Runny nose. |
|
|
Term
What neurologic infection can
picornaviruses (except
rhinoviruses and hepatitis A
viruses) cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What physical finding is
diagnostic for measles? |
|
Definition
Koplik spots (bluish-gray
spots on buccal mucosa) |
|
|
Term
What population should not
receive a live vaccine? |
|
Definition
Those who are
immunocompromised and
their close contacts. |
|
|
Term
What reproductive
complication can mumps
cause? |
|
Definition
sterility; especially after
puberty |
|
|
Term
What shape are all the DNA
viruses? Which virus (1) is the
exception? |
|
Definition
-Icosahedral -Poxvirus
(complex) |
|
|
Term
What test is used to make the
presumptive dx of HIV, and
then, which test confirms the
dx? |
|
Definition
ELISA (sensitive w/ high false
+ and low threshold);
Western blot (specific, high
false - rate with high
threshold) |
|
|
Term
What tests are gaining
popularity for monitoring
drug tx efficacy in HIV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of genome does
HIV have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of nucleic acid
structure does rotavirus have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of transcription
occurs and what type of
polymerase does it possess? |
|
Definition
-Reverse transcription -the
virion contains an RNAdependent
DNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
What type of virus is HAV and
how is it transmitted? |
|
Definition
-RNA picornavirus -fecal-oral
route |
|
|
Term
What type of virus is HBV and
how is it transmitted? |
|
Definition
-DNA hepadnavirus -
parenteral, sexual, and
maternal-fetal routes |
|
|
Term
What type of virus is HCV and
how is it transmitted? |
|
Definition
-RNA flavivirus -via blood
and resembles HBV in its
course and severity |
|
|
Term
What type of virus is HDV and
what is special about its
envelope? |
|
Definition
-delta agent, it is a defective
virus -requires HBsAg as its
evelope |
|
|
Term
What type of virus is HEV and
how is it transmitted? |
|
Definition
-RNA calicivirus -enteric
transmission; causes waterborne
epidemics |
|
|
Term
What variant of dengue fever
is found in Southeast Asia? |
|
Definition
| hemorrhagic shock syndrome |
|
|
Term
What virus causes and what
are the classic symptoms of
mononucleosis? |
|
Definition
-EBV -fever,
hepatosplenomegaly,
pharyngitis,
lymphadenopathy (esp.
posterior auricular nodes) |
|
|
Term
What virus causes yellow
(=flavi) fever, and what is its
vector and reservoirs (2)? |
|
Definition
-flavivirus -Aedes mosquitos
-monkey or human reservoir |
|
|
Term
What virus is the most
common global cause of
infantile gastroenteritis and
acute diarrhea (in the US). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where do enveloped viruses
acquire their envelopes, and
what virus is the exception to
this rule? |
|
Definition
-Plasma membrane -
Herpesviruses which acquire
their envelope from the
nuclear membrane |
|
|
Term
Where in the cell do DNA
viruses replicate, and which
virus is the exception to this
rule? |
|
Definition
-Nucleus -exception:
poxvirus in cytoplasm (carries
DNA-dependent RNA
polymerase) |
|
|
Term
Where in the cell do RNA
viruses replicate, and what 2
viruses are the exception to
this rule? |
|
Definition
-Cytoplasm -exception:
influenza virus and
retroviruses |
|
|
Term
Which marker tests are
appropriate for each phase of
hepatitis infection:
Incubation, Prodrome/acute
illness, Early Convalescence,
Late Convalescence. |
|
Definition
-HBsAg -HBsAg (Anti-HBc) -
Anti-HBc -Anti-HBs (anti-
HBc) |
|
|
Term
Which two DNA viruses don't
have a linear genome?
(they're circular) |
|
Definition
Papovaviruses and
Hepadnaviruses |
|
|
Term
Which two hepatitis viruses
follow the fecal-oral route? |
|
Definition
A and E; 'The vowels hit your
bowels.' |
|
|
Term
Which two hepatitis viruses
predispose to hepatocellular
carcinoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is mono called the
'kissing disease?' |
|
Definition
-Peak incidence occurs
during peak kissing years
15-20 yo -(saliva
transmission) |
|
|
Term
3 main roles of Ig binding to
bacteria |
|
Definition
- opsonization -
neutralization - complement
activation |
|
|
Term
A defect in phagocytosis of
neutrophils owing to lack of
NADPH oxidase activity or
similar enzymes is indicative
of what immune deficiency
disease? |
|
Definition
Chronic granulomatous
disease |
|
|
Term
After exposure to what 4
things are preformed
(passive) antibodies given? |
|
Definition
Tetanus toxin, Botulinum
toxin, HBV, or Rabies. |
|
|
Term
All nucleated cells have what
class of MHC proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Anaphylaxis, asthma, or local
wheal and flare are possible
manifestations of which type
of hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Anti-gliadin autoantibodies
are associated with what
disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Anti-Scl-70 autoantibodies
are associated with what
disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Autoimmune hemolytic
anemia, Rh disease
(erythroblastosis fetalis), and
Goodpasture's syndrome are
examples of what kind of
hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Class I major
histocompatibilty complex
consists of … |
|
Definition
1 polypeptide, with B2-
microglobulin |
|
|
Term
Class II major
histocompatibilty complex
consists of … |
|
Definition
2 polypeptides, an a and a B
chain |
|
|
Term
Cytotoxic T cells have CD(?),
which binds to class (?) MHC
on virus-infected cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Define acute transplant
rejection. |
|
Definition
Cell-mediated due to
cytotoxic T lymphocytes
reacting against foreign
MHCs. Occurs weeks after
transplantation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Adjuvants are nonspecific
stimulators of the immune
response but are not
immunogenic by themselves. |
|
|
Term
Define chronic transplant
rejection. |
|
Definition
Antibody-mediated vascular
damage (fibrinoid necrosis)--
irreversible. Occurs months
to years after transplantation. |
|
|
Term
Define hyperacute transplant
rejection. |
|
Definition
Antibody-mediated due to
the presence of preormed
anti-donor antibodies in the
transplant recipient. Occurs
within minutes after
transplantation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ig epitope that differs among
members of the same species
(on light or heavy chain) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ig epitope determine by the
antigen-binging site (specific
for a given antigen-binding
site) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ig epitope common to a
single class of Ig (5 classes,
determined by the heavy
chain) |
|
|
Term
Give 3 classic examples of
bacteria with antigen
variation. |
|
Definition
(1) Salmonella (2 flagellar
variants) (2) Borrelia
(relapsing fever) (3) Neisseria
gonorrhoeae (pilus protein) |
|
|
Term
Give 3 examples of possibly
causes for SCID? |
|
Definition
(1) failure to synthesize class
II MHC antigens (2) defective
Il-2 receptors (3) adenosine
deaminase deficiency |
|
|
Term
Goodpasture's syndrome is
associated with what kind of
autoantibodies? |
|
Definition
anti-basement membrane
antibodies. |
|
|
Term
Helper T cells have CD(?)
which binds to class (?) MHC
on antigen-presenting cells. |
|
Definition
| CD4 binds to class II MHC |
|
|
Term
How does Bruton's
agammaglobulinemia usually
present? |
|
Definition
as bacterial infections in boys
after about 6 months of age,
when levels of maternal IgG
antibody decline |
|
|
Term
How is active immunity
acquired? |
|
Definition
Active immunity is induced
after exposure to foreign
antigens. There is a slow
onset with long-lasting
protection. |
|
|
Term
How is passive immunity
acquired? |
|
Definition
by receiving preformed
antibodies from another host.
Antibodies have a short life
span, but the immunity has a
rapid onset. |
|
|
Term
IL-4 promotes the growth of
B cells and the synthesis of
what 2 immunoglobulins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what immune deficiency do
neutrophils fail to respond to
chemotactic stimuli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what T-cell deficiency do
the thymus and parathyroids
fail to develop owing to
failure of development of the
3rd and 4th pharyngeal
pouches? |
|
Definition
Thymic aplasia (DiGeorge
syndrome) |
|
|
Term
Job's syndrome is associated
with high levels of what
immunoglobulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
MHC I Ag loading occurs in __
(1?)__ while MHC II Ag loading
occurs in __(2?)__? |
|
Definition
(1) in rER (viral antigens) (2)
in acidified endosomes. |
|
|
Term
Primary biliary cirrhosis has
what kind of autoantibodies? |
|
Definition
| anti-mitochondrial antibodies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
produce IL-2 (activate Tc cells
and further stimulate TH1
cell) and g-interferon
(activate macrophages) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
produce IL-4 and IL-5 (help B
cells make Ab) |
|
|
Term
Sensitized T lymphocytes
encounter antigen and then
release lymphokines which
leads to macrophage
activation' in what
hypersensitivity reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
TB skin test, transplant
rejection, and contact
dermatitis are examples of
what type of hypersensitivity
reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The 3 kinds of MHC class I
genes are… |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The 3 kinds of MHC class II
genes are… |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Fc portion of
immunoglobulins are at the
__?__ terminal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 cytokines are secreted
by macrophages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 kinds of
autoantibodies are specific
for systemic lupus? |
|
Definition
| Anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith |
|
|
Term
What 3 cytokines are
classified as 'acute phase
cytokines'? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 3 ways do interferons
interfere with viral protein
synthesis? |
|
Definition
(1) alpha and beta interferons
induce production of a second
protein that degrades viral
mRNA (2) gamma interferons
increase MHC class I expression
and antigen presentation in all
cells (3) activates NK cells to
kill virus-infected cells. |
|
|
Term
What affect do the acute
phase cytokines have on fat
and muscle? |
|
Definition
mobilization of energy
reserves to raise body
temperature |
|
|
Term
What affect do the acute
phase cytokines have on the
bone marrow? |
|
Definition
Incr. Production of Colony
stim. Factor (CS) which leads
to leukocytosis |
|
|
Term
What affect do the acute
phase cytokines have on the
hypothalamus? |
|
Definition
| increase body temperature |
|
|
Term
What antibody isotype can
cross the placenta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 3 types of antigenpresenting
cells? |
|
Definition
macrophages, B cells, and
dendritic cells |
|
|
Term
What are the maim symptoms
of serum sickness an at what
period of time following Ag
exposure? |
|
Definition
fever, urticaria, arthralgias,
proteinuria, lymphadenopathy
5-10 days after Ag exposure |
|
|
Term
What are the major symptoms
of graft-vs.-host disease? |
|
Definition
maculopapular rash, jaundice,
hepatosplenomegaly, and
diarrhea. |
|
|
Term
What B- and T- cell
deficiency, assoc. with IgA
deficiency, presents with
cerebellar problems and
spider angiomas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes the tissue
damage associated with
Serum sickness? |
|
Definition
formation of immune
complexes of foreign
particles and Abs that deposit
in membranes where they fix
complement |
|
|
Term
What class of MHC proteins
are the main determinants of
organ rejection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What complement
components can cause
anaphylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What components of the
alternative complement
pathway make the C3
convertase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What components of the
alternative complement
pathway make the C5
convertase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What components of the
classic complement pathway
make the C3 convertase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What components of the
classic complement pathway
make the C5 convertase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What components of the
complement pathway are
deficient in Neisseria sepsis? |
|
Definition
The MAC complex--(C5b, C6,
C7, C8, C9) |
|
|
Term
What cytokines attract and
activate neutrophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease is associated
with a X-linked defect in a
tyrosine-kinase gene
associated with low levels of
all classes of
immunoglobulins? |
|
Definition
Bruton's
agammaglobulinemia |
|
|
Term
What disease is associated
with anti-epithelial cell
autoantibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease is associated
with anti-microsomal
autoantibodies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does a deficiency of C1
esterase inhibitor cause (in
the complement cascade)? |
|
Definition
angioedema because of
overactive complement |
|
|
Term
What does a deficiency of C3
cause (in the complement
cascade)? |
|
Definition
can lead to severe, recurrent
pyogenic sinus and
respiratory tract infections. |
|
|
Term
What does deficiency of
decay-accelerating factor
(DAF) in the complement
cascade cause? |
|
Definition
leads to paroxysmal
nocturnal hemoglobinuria
(PNH) |
|
|
Term
What does Job's syndrome
classically present with? |
|
Definition
recurrent 'cold' (noninflamed)
staphylococcal abscesses |
|
|
Term
What does TNF-a stimulate
dendritic cells to do during
the acute phase response? |
|
Definition
TNF-a stimulates their
migration to lymph nodes
and their maturation for the
initiation of the adaptive
immune response. |
|
|
Term
What elements of the
complement cascade made
the Membrane Attack
Complex (MAC)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Ig is found in secretions
as a monomer or a dimer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Ig is found in secretions
as a monomer or a pentamer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What immune deficiency
disease has an autosomalrecessive
defect in
phagocytosis that results
from microtubular and
lysosomal defects of
phagocytic cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What immune deficiency is
associated with elevated IgA
levels, normal IgE levels, and
low IgM levels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What immune deficiency
presents with tetany owing to
hypocalcemia, congenital
defects of the heart and great
vessels, and recurrent viral,
fungal, and protozoal
infections? |
|
Definition
Thymic aplasia (DiGeorge
syndrome) |
|
|
Term
What immunoglobulin isotype
has the lowest concentration
in serum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What immunoglobulin isotype
is involved in type-I
hypersensitivity reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What immunoglobulin isotype
is produced in the primary
response to an antigen and is
on the surface of B cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What immunoglobulin isotype
mediates immunity to worms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What immunoglobulin isotype
prevents the attachment of
bacteria and viruses to
mucous membranes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What immunoglobulins bind
and activate the classic
complement pathway? |
|
Definition
| IgG and IgM (the Fc portion) |
|
|
Term
What interleukin induces
naive helper T-cells to
become TH1 cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What interleukin induces
naive helper T-cells to
become TH2 cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What interleukin stimulates
the growth of both helper and
cytotoxic T-cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Chronic
mucocutaneous candidiasis? |
|
Definition
T-cell dysfunction specifically
against Candida albicans. |
|
|
Term
What is important about the
CD3 complex? |
|
Definition
It is a cluster of polypeptides
associated with a T-cell
receptor and is important in
signal transduction. |
|
|
Term
What is the cellular process
that causes type I
hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
Ag cross-links IgE on
presensitized mast cells and
basophils, triggering the
release of vasoactive amines. |
|
|
Term
What is the cellular process
that causes type II
hypersensitivity? |
|
Definition
IgM, IgG bind to Ag on
'enemy' cell, leading to lysis
(by complement) or
phagocytosis (its cytotoxic). |
|
|
Term
What is the main antibody in
the secondary immune
response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most abundant
immunoglobulin isotype? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common
selective immunoglobulin
deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the rise in
temperature during the acute
phase response help do (3
things?) |
|
Definition
(1) increase specific immune
response (2) increase antigen
processing (3) decrease viral
and bacterial replication |
|
|
Term
What is the triad of symptoms
seen with Wiskott-Aldrich
syndrome? |
|
Definition
recurrent pyogenic infections,
eczema, and
thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
What kind of autoantibodies
are associated with CREST/
Scleroderma? |
|
Definition
| anti-centromere antibodies |
|
|
Term
What kind of autoantibodies
are known as rheumatoid
factor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kind of immunity
(antibody-mediated or cell
mediated) is involved in
autoimmunity? |
|
Definition
antibody-mediated immunity
(B cells) |
|
|
Term
What kind of immunity
(antibody-mediated or cell
mediated) is involved in graft
and tumor rejection? |
|
Definition
cell mediated immunity (T
cells) |
|
|
Term
What kind of transplant
rejection is reversible with
immunosuppressants such as
cyclosporin and OKT3? |
|
Definition
| acute transplant rejection |
|
|
Term
What kinds of adjuvants are
included in human vaccines? |
|
Definition
| aluminum hydroxide or lipid |
|
|
Term
What kinds of cells have class
II MHC proteins? |
|
Definition
antigen-presenting cells (e.g.
macrophages and dendritic
cells) |
|
|
Term
What parasites have antigen
variation? |
|
Definition
trypanosomes (programmed
rearrangement) |
|
|
Term
What symptoms characterize
the Arthus reaction and what
causes them? |
|
Definition
edema, necrosis, and
activation of complement due
to the Ag-Ab complexes that
form in the skin following
intradermal injection of Ag. |
|
|
Term
What type of cell secretes
IL-3? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of cells does
gamma interferon stimulate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of hypersensitivity
reaction is the Arthus
reaction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where does the alternative
complement pathway occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where does the classic
complement pathway occur? |
|
Definition
| antigen-antibody complexes |
|
|
Term
| Where is the defect in SCID? |
|
Definition
the defect is in early stemcell
differentiation, leading to
B- and T-cell deficiency |
|
|
Term
Which interleukin causes
fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which interleukin enhances
the synthesis of IgA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which interleukin stimulates
the production and activation
of eosinophils? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which interleukin supports
the growth and differentiation
of bone marrow stem cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the only type of cellmediated
hypersensitivity
reaction, and thus not
transferable by serum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is
a defect in the ability to
mount what immune
response? |
|
Definition
an IgM response to capsular
polysaccharides of bacteria. |
|
|
Term
With what disease are antihistone
autoantibodies
associated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
With what disease are antinuclear
antibodies
associated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Aspiration pneumonia is
usually caused by… |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Atypical pneumonia is usually
caused by… |
|
Definition
- Mycoplasma - Legionella -
Chlamydia |
|
|
Term
Bug Hints: Branching rods in
oral infection = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bug Hints: Currant jelly
sputum = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bug Hints: Dog or cat bite = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bug Hints: Dog or cat bite = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bug Hints: Pediatric Infection
= |
|
Definition
H. influenzae (including
epiglottitis) |
|
|
Term
Bug Hints: Pneumonia in CS,
burn infection = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bug Hints: Pus, Empyema,
Abscess = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bug Hints: Sepsis/Meningitis
in Newborn = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bug Hints: Surgical wound = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bug Hints: Traumatic open
wound = |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Incidence of what cause of
mengitis has decreased with a
vaccine? |
|
Definition
Incidence of H. influenze
meningitis has decreased
greatly with introduction of H.
influenzae vaccine in the last
10-15 years |
|
|
Term
Most osteomyelitis occurs in
what age group? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neonatal pneumonia is
usually caused by… |
|
Definition
- Group B streptococci - E.
coli |
|
|
Term
Nosocomial pneumonia is
usually caused by… |
|
Definition
- Staphylococcus - gramnegative
rods |
|
|
Term
PID includes what disorders
in the body? |
|
Definition
salpingitis, endometritis,
hydrosalpinx, tubo-ovarian
abscess |
|
|
Term
PID is likely caused by what
two organisms? What are the
characteristics of the disease
caused by each organism? |
|
Definition
-Chlamydia trachomatis:
subacute, often undiagnosed
- N. gonorrhoeae:acute, high
fever |
|
|
Term
Pneumonia in
immunocompromised
patients is caused by… |
|
Definition
- Staphylococcus - gramnegative
rods - fungi -
viruses - Pnemumocystis
carinii (with HIV) |
|
|
Term
Pneumonia in the alcoholic/IV
drug user is usually caused
by… |
|
Definition
- S. pneumoniae - Klebsiella
- Staphylococcus |
|
|
Term
Postviral pneumonia is
usually caused by… |
|
Definition
- Staphylococcus - H.
influenzae |
|
|
Term
Salpingitis is a risk factor
for… |
|
Definition
- ectopic pregnancy -
infertility -chronic pelvic pain
- adhesions |
|
|
Term
UTIs are found in men in
which 2 age groups? |
|
Definition
Babies with congenital
defects and Elderly with
enlarged prostates |
|
|
Term
| UTIs are mostly caused how? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the likely cause of
osteomyelitis in a pt where
you have no other
information? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 pathogens likely
cause nosocomial infections
associated with urinary
catherization? |
|
Definition
| E. coli, Proteus mirabilis |
|
|
Term
What 2 pathogens likely
cause nosocomial infections
in the newborn nursery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 3 UTI-causing
organisms are often
nosocomial and drugresistant? |
|
Definition
- Serratia marcescens -
Enterobacter cloacae -
Klebsiella pneumoniae -
Proteus mirabilis -
Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
|
|
Term
What 7 organisms are
associated with UTIs? |
|
Definition
- Serratia marcescens -
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
- E. coli - Enterobacter
cloacae - Klebsiella
pneumoniae - Proteus
mirabilis - Pseudomonas
aeruginosa [HINT: SEEKS PP] |
|
|
Term
What abnormal lab result is
often seen in osteomyelitis
patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 4 clinical findings of
Pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
- fever - chills - flank pain -
CVA tenderness [c/c with UTI] |
|
|
Term
What are 4 clinical findings of
UTIs? |
|
Definition
- diysuria - frequency -
urgency - suprapubic pain [c/
c with pyelonephritis] |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 most common
causes of nosocomial
infections? |
|
Definition
- E. coli causes UTI - S.
aureus causes wound
infection |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 most common
causes of UTI in young
ambulatory women? |
|
Definition
1. E. coli (50-80%) 2.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
(10-30%) 3. Klebsiella
(8-10%) |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of hospital-acquired UTIs? |
|
Definition
- E. coli - Proteus - Klebsiella
- Serratia - Pseudomonas |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of meningitis in 6-60y/o? |
|
Definition
- N. MENINGITIDIS -
Enteroviruses - S.
pneumoniae - HSV |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of meningitis in 60+ y/o? |
|
Definition
- S. PNEUMONIAE - Gramnegative
rods - Listeria |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of meningitis in children
(6mo-6y/o)? |
|
Definition
- S. pneumoniae - N.
meningitidis - H. influenzae B
- Enteroviruses |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of meningitis in HIV pts? |
|
Definition
- Cryptococcus - CMV -
toxoplasmosis (brain abscess)
JC virus (PML) |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of meningitis in newborns
(0-6mos)? |
|
Definition
- GROUP B STREPTOCOCCI -
E. COLI - Listeria |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of osteomyelitis in those with
prosthetic replacements? |
|
Definition
| S. aureus and S. epidermidis |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of pneumonia in adults
18-40 y/o? |
|
Definition
- Mycoplasma - C.
pneumoniae - S. pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of pneumonia in adults
40-65 y/o? |
|
Definition
- S. pneumoniae - H.
influenzae - Anaerobes -
Viruses - Mycoplasma |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of pneumonia in children
(6wk-18y)? |
|
Definition
- Viruses (RSV) - Mycoplasma
- Chlamidia pneumonia S.
pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
What are the common causes
of pneumonia in the elderly? |
|
Definition
- S. pneumoniae - Anaerobes
- Viruses - H. influenzae -
Gram-neg. rods |
|
|
Term
What are the CSF finings in
bacterial meningitis
(pressure, cell type, protein
and sugar levels)? |
|
Definition
- Pressure: incr. - Cell type:
incr. PMNs - Protein: incr -
Sugar: decr |
|
|
Term
What are the CSF finings in
bacterial meningitis
(pressure, cell type, protein
and sugar levels)? |
|
Definition
- Pressure: nl or incr. - Cell
type: incr. lymphocytes -
Protein: nl - Sugar: nl |
|
|
Term
What are the CSF finings in
fungal/TB meningitis
(pressure, cell type, protein
and sugar levels)? |
|
Definition
- Pressure: incr. - Cell type:
incr. lymphocytes - Protein:
incr - Sugar:decr. |
|
|
Term
What are the dominant
normal florae in the colon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the dominant
normal florae in the vagina? |
|
Definition
Lactobacillus, colonized by E.
coli and group B strep |
|
|
Term
What are the predisposing
factors of UTIs? |
|
Definition
- flow obstruction - kidney
surgery - catherization -
gynecologic abnormailities -
diabetes - pregnancy |
|
|
Term
What infections are
dangerous in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
- Toxoplasma - Rubella -
CMV - HSV/HIV -Syphilis
[HINT: ToRCHeS] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cervical motion tenderness
associated with PID |
|
|
Term
What is the 2nd leading cause
of community-acquired UTI in
sexually active women? |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus saprophyticus |
|
|
Term
What is the characterisitc of
Trichomonas on a slide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common cause of
osteomyelitis in drug addicts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common cause of
osteomyelitis in most people? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common cause of
osteomyelitis in sickle cell
pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common cause of
osteomyelitis in the sexually
active? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common cause of
osteomyelitis in the vertebra? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the dominant normal
flora contributes to dental
plaque? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the dominant normal
flora in the nose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the dominant normal
flora in the oropharynx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the dominant normal
flora on the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common
STD in the U.S.? |
|
Definition
Chlamydia trachomatis
causes 3-4 million cases per
year |
|
|
Term
What organism can you
presume is causing a
nosocomial infection if
respiratory equipment or
burns are involved? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What organism is the leading
cause of UTI and shows a
metallic sheen on EMB agar? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What pathogen is associated
with hyperalimentation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What pathogen is associated
with water (ie. aerosols)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What pathogen likely causes
nosocomial infections in the
renal dialysis unit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What population does not
have any flora? |
|
Definition
Neonates delivered by
csarean section have no flora
but are rapidly colonized
after birth |
|
|
Term
What population does not
have any flora? |
|
Definition
Neonates delivered by
csarean section have no flora
but are rapidly colonized
after birth |
|
|
Term
What ratio is UTIs found more
in women vs. men? Why? |
|
Definition
10 to 1 because women have
short urethrae more likely to
be colonized by fecal flora |
|
|
Term
What STD is associated with
Argyll-Robertson pupil? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What STD is associated with
clue cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What STD is associated with
Genital warts and loilocytes?
What is the causative agent? |
|
Definition
- Condylomata acuminata -
HPV 6 and 11 |
|
|
Term
What STD is associated with
jaundice? What is the
causative agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What STD is associated with
opportunistic infections,
Kaposi's sarcoma, lymphoma?
What is the causative agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What STD is associated with
painful penile, vulvar or
cervical ulcers? What's the
causative agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What STD is associated with
painful ulcers,
lymphadenopathy, rectal
strictures? What is the
causative agent? |
|
Definition
- Lymphogranuloma
venereum - Chlamydia
trachomatis |
|
|
Term
What STD is associated with
urethritis, cervicitis,
conjuntivitis, Reiter's
syndrome PID? What is the
causative agent? |
|
Definition
Chlamydia - Chlamydia
trachomatis |
|
|
Term
What STD is associated with
vaginitis? What is the
causative agent? |
|
Definition
-Trichomoniasis -
Trichomonas vaginalis |
|
|
Term
What STD is characterized by
painful genital ulcer? What is
the causative agent? |
|
Definition
- chancroid - Haemophilus
ducreyi |
|
|
Term
What STD is likely in a patient
with a painless chancre? What
causes it? |
|
Definition
- 1' Syphilis - Treponema
pallidum |
|
|
Term
What STD is likely in a patient
with fever, lymphadenopathy,
skin rashes, condylomata
lata? What causes it? |
|
Definition
- 2' Syphilis - Treponema
pallidum |
|
|
Term
What STD is likely in a patient
with gummas, tabes dorsalis,
general paresis, aortitis,
Argyll-Robertson pupil? What
causes it? |
|
Definition
- 3' Syphilis - Treponema
pallidum |
|
|
Term
What STD is likely in a patient
with urethritis, cervicitis, PID,
prostatitus, epididymitis,
arthritis? What organism
causes it? |
|
Definition
- Gonorrhea - Neisseria
gonorrhoeae |
|
|
Term
What UTI-causing organism
has a bue-green pigment,
fruity odor and is usually
nosocomial and drugresistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What UTI-causing organism is
characterized by a large
mucoid capsule and viscous
colonies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What UTI-causing organism is
mobile, causing 'swarming'
on agar and also produces
urease and is associated with
struvite stones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What UTI-causing organism
sometimes produces a red
pigment, is often nosocomial
and drug-resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
