Term
What microbe is heavily associated with gastric and duodenal ulcers? |
|
Definition
H. pylori is found in 70% of patients with gastric ulcers and roughly 100% of those with peptic ulcers! |
|
|
Term
What are some virulence factors that H. pylori has? |
|
Definition
Urease = neutralizes gastric acid
Flagella
Adhesins = bind Lewis antigens on host
Phospholipases
Vacuolating Toxins
CagA |
|
|
Term
What is important about CagA positive H. pylori strains? |
|
Definition
CagA strains of H. pylori are more likely to cause serious forms of disease, with a greater risk of progression to gastric carcinoma or MALT lymphoma! |
|
|
Term
Who is at an increased risk for candida infections? |
|
Definition
Diabetics (hyperglycemia impairs neutrophil and macrophage function!)
Immunosuppressed individuals (AIDS, transplant patients)
Patients on broad-spectrum antibiotics (removal of normal flora) |
|
|
Term
An AIDS patient presents with odynophagia, dysphagia, and cervical lymphadenopathy. You perform endoscopy of his esophagus and expect to see what organism? |
|
Definition
Candida albicans, which is a cause of esophagitis, especially in AIDS patients in which oral thrush can progress to this more severe condition.
Herpesvirus is also a cause of esophagitis in AIDS patients |
|
|
Term
What organisms cause ginigivitis? |
|
Definition
Prevotella intermedia and Porphyromonas. This infection can progress to periodontitis/ trench mouth in immunocompromised patients, diabetics, smokers |
|
|
Term
2 hours after eating a potato salad lunch at a local diner, a nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal pain. What is the likely causative organism? |
|
Definition
This is likely the result of Staph. aureus. The quick onset means that it was likely a pre-formed toxin. Staph. aureus produces an SE-A, heat stable enterotoxin that acts as a superantigen. It binds neural receptors and triggers the vomiting center!
Staph preformed toxin is most often found in mayonaise and cream-containing foods.
It is SELF-LIMITING |
|
|
Term
What type of toxin does S. aureus produce? |
|
Definition
A pre-formed enterotoxin (SE-A) encoded by a bacteriophage... it is heat-stable and has a short incubation period (1-6 hours)
give symptomatic Tx as it is self-limiting |
|
|
Term
A patient is brought to the emergency room with sudden onset descending paralysis: The history shows blurred vision followed by arm weakness. You suspect a foodborne toxin. What is the likely cause? |
|
Definition
This is likely a case of foodborne botulism. Ingestion of the pre-formed neurotoxin (A, B, E toxins) results in the blockade of Ach release at neruomuscular junctions and causes flaccid paralysis. Adequate heating destroys the botulinum toxin, as it is not heat stable.
Botulinum toxins = "honest ABE" (toxins A, B, E) |
|
|
Term
How do you treat foodborne botulism?
Infant/adult botulism?
Wound botulism? |
|
Definition
Treat foodborne botulism with antitoxin! (it is the pre-formed toxin causing the disease, not the bacteria, so antibiotics aren't necessary.
Treat infant/adult botulism with the antitoxin. DO NOT use antibiotics, as this will only promote further release of the toxin!
Treat wound botulism with antibiotics, antitoxin, and surgical debridement.
in other words: do not give antibiotics in cases of botulism food poisoning, only give them in wound botulism
Patients may need ventilatory support because the flaccid paralysis may lead to respiratory collapse! |
|
|
Term
Why should you not give honey to babies? |
|
Definition
honey is a reservoir for C. botulinum spores, and can cause infant botulism if fed to babies. |
|
|
Term
A man becomes ill in the evening with watery diarrhea. He does not have vomiting. The only thing he ate all day was quickly reheated thanksgiving leftovers in the morning. What do you suspect? |
|
Definition
Because of the long incubation period and the associated food (gravy and inadequately reheated meats), this is likely a case of C. perfringens food toxicity.
C. perfringens produces type A-E enterotoxins after the bacteria is ingested and produces diarrhea but no vomiting. It's incubation period is 8-16hrs. |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between C. perfringens food poisoning and B. cereus preformed toxin poisoning? |
|
Definition
C perfringens produces the enterotoxin after it is ingested, and therefore has a longer incubation (8-16hrs). Much the opposite, B. cereus preformed toxin has a short incubation period of 1-6 hrs.
Additionally, C. perfringens results in watery diarrhea without vomiting whereas, B. cereus preformed toxin results in vomiting without diarrhea.
B. cereus also has a long incubation form, which produces diarrhea. |
|
|
Term
Under what conditions should you suspect Bacillus cereus food poisoning? |
|
Definition
Most commonly this results from ingestion of re-heated rice (ex: fried rice). In these cases it involves a pre-formed toxin, which causes vomiting but no diarrhea within 1-6 hours.
It can also cause a diarrheal form after long incubation. |
|
|
Term
Which E. coli strain is commonly responsible for traveler's diarrhea? |
|
Definition
ETEC (enterotoxigenic)
It adheres to intestinal villi and then secretes its enterotoxin. It is NOT invasive. Therefore it causes watery, NON-bloody diarrhea.
|
|
|
Term
What toxins does ETEC secrete? |
|
Definition
ETEC, a common cause of traveler's diarrhea, secretes LT and ST toxins (heat Labile and heat Stable toxins)
They promote watery diarrhea by increasing adenylyl cyclase activity, which raises cAMP levels, which activates Cl- secretion, which pulls Na+ and water into the lumen. |
|
|
Term
What serotypes of Vibrio cholerae are responsible for the cholera epidemics? |
|
Definition
The O1 serotypes are responsible for cholera epidemics. These are subdivided into classic and "el tor" groupings.
However, in India and Bangladesh the non-O1 serotypes are responsible for cholera. |
|
|
Term
What is a frequent food responsible for vibrio cholerae infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does someone with cholera poisoning present? |
|
Definition
Massive watery diarrhea, rice water stools (mucous flecks), metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia, hypovolemic shock leading to renal failure.
Tx= REHYDRATION!!!
ciprofloxacin antibiotic administration can reduce the duration of the symptoms
there is a vaccine! |
|
|
Term
How does the cholera toxin cause diarrhea? |
|
Definition
The cholera toxin ADP ribosylates adenylyl cyclase, leading to its constitutive activation. This results in increased cAMP levels, overactivation of Cl- transmembrane proteins, and fluid loss into the GIT lumen. |
|
|
Term
What E. Coli strains produce fever? |
|
Definition
The EPEC and EIEC strains (enteropathogenic and enteroinvasive) produce fever.
"the pathology of invasive organisms involves fever!"
They can be distinguished by the fact that EIEC also has fecal WBCs in the stool. |
|
|
Term
After consuming undercooked beef from a burger joint, a child acquires bloody diarrhea without a fever. What disease is this child at increased risk for, especially if antibiotics are prescribed? |
|
Definition
EHEC (enterohemorrhagic E. Coli) is found in undercooked beef. It is also known as Shiga-Toxin producing E. Coli because it contains a bacteriophage that produces shiga-like toxin.
This strain is associated with Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome. If antibiotics are given, the toxin levels increase, as does the likelihood of HUS. So do not give antibiotics!
Shiga toxin damages the vascular endothelium, including that of the kidney, leading to acute renal failure. It also activates platelets, causing thrombocytopenia. |
|
|
Term
How do you differentiate Salmonella from Shigella? |
|
Definition
Both of these are gram negative, lactose NON-fermenting enterobacteriaceae. Shigella is non-motile, whereas Salmonella is highly motile (Salmon migrate upstream annually = motile) |
|
|
Term
How does Shiga toxin work? |
|
Definition
Shiga toxin, produced by Shigella bacteria enters cells and inhibits protein synthesis, resulting in cell death. |
|
|
Term
Which strain of salmonella is capable of systemic dissemination? |
|
Definition
In the young, elderly, or immunocompromised, Salmonella typhi can result in the disseminated infection "Typhoid Fever". People with this condition generally present with "rose-spots" on their body, high sustained fever, and hepatosplenomegally. |
|
|
Term
Which bacterial infection is associated with Guillaine-Barre Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Campylobacter jejuni, especially in patients with the HLA-B27 genotype.
Guillaine-Barre is an autoimmune condition associated with ascending paralysis.
Viral infections are also implicated |
|
|
Term
Describe the special growth requirements for campylobacter. |
|
Definition
Campylobacter requires a special agar = Skirrow's medium or "Campy's Agar". It also grows best at 42 celcius. |
|
|
Term
What microbe is often responsible for nosocomial diarrhea acquired after broad spectrum antibiotic usage? |
|
Definition
Clostridium difficile. It elaborates two toxins: Toxin A is chemotactic for neutrophils, Toxin B causes cell death by interfering with actin polymerization.
Clostridium dificil is the cause of pseudomembranous colitis, which should be treated with oral metronidazole or oral vancomycin (oral metronidazole is preferred for cost reasons) |
|
|
Term
What bacteria is associated with unpasteurized dairy products ex: cheeses? |
|
Definition
Listeria monocytogenes! This bacteria carries a high mortality rate and is the cause of not only gastroenteritis, but meningitis and fetal stillbirth!
Brucella is also found in these circumstances |
|
|
Term
What is the structure of rotavirus? |
|
Definition
Rotavirus is a naked dsRNA virus
|
|
|
Term
What virus is commonly responsible for watery diarrhea in children? |
|
Definition
Rotavirus is the most common cause of viral diarrhea and vomiting.
it is self limiting, but you must ensure proper hydration. |
|
|
Term
What is the structure of astrovirus? |
|
Definition
Astrovirus is a naked, (+)ssRNA virus
an asterix (*) symbol looks like a (+) |
|
|
Term
How do rotavirus, astrovirus, and adenovirus differ in their incubation periods and symptom duration with respect to GIT infections? |
|
Definition
All of these viruses cause watery diarrhea and nausea predominantly in CHILDREN. Rotavirus has a short incubation, astrovirus has an intermediate incubation (1-4 days) and adenovirus has a long incubation.
Astrovirus has less severe symptoms than rotavirus, and adenovirus has the longest duration of symptoms. |
|
|
Term
What is the structure of adenovirus? |
|
Definition
Adenovirus is a naked dsDNA virus
Adenovirus has DNA i its name... |
|
|
Term
what is the structure of calicivirus? |
|
Definition
Calicivirus (a norovirus) is a naked, (+)ssRNA virus.
*all the GIT viruses are naked! Recall, this allows them to survive longer outside the host and permits fecal-oral transmission! |
|
|
Term
How might one acquire calicivirus infection? What are the signs/symptoms? |
|
Definition
Calicivirus has no age specificity and is therefore a cause of viral diarrhea in adults. It is most often acquired through contaminated drinking water or shellfish on cruise ships. It has a short incubation and short duration of symptoms (1-3days) |
|
|
Term
What forms of hepatitis are enveloped? |
|
Definition
Hepatitis B,C,D are enveloped |
|
|
Term
Which strains of hepatitis virus are naked? |
|
Definition
Hepatitis A and E are naked viruses
recall: hepatitis A and E only cause Acute disease and are transmitted Enterically (fecal-oral, meaning they must be naked)
In your mind, group Hep A and Hep E together! |
|
|
Term
What is the structure of the Hep B virus? |
|
Definition
Enveloped, gapped dsDNA virus
annoying, confusing structure: Hep B is a bitch to remember
or B looks like two D's on top of eachother= dsDNA |
|
|
Term
What are complications of HBV and HCV? |
|
Definition
these hepatitis viruses can lead to chronic viral hepatitis. (HCV has a great risk) Chronic hepatitis carries an increased risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma. HBV is also the most common cause of viral fulminant hepatitis, in which there is rapid progression to liver failure! (hepE can cause fulminant hepatitis in pregnancy) |
|
|
Term
Which hepatitis virus is most likely to progress to the chronic form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which hepatitis viruses have vaccines available? |
|
Definition
only HAV and HBV have vaccines |
|
|
Term
What is the structure of HAV? |
|
Definition
HAV is a naked, (+)ssRNA virus |
|
|
Term
What disease-causing microorganisms can be acquired through shellfish? |
|
Definition
Vibrio cholera
Rotavirus
Calicivirus
Hepatitis A virus |
|
|
Term
What serum immunology would you look for in an HAV infection? |
|
Definition
In the acute infection, you would see anti-HAV IgM. Approximately 3 months later, the serum would contain anti-HAV IgG, which grants lifelong immunity to the virus
recall HAV only causes acute hepatitis |
|
|
Term
Pregnant women that contract HEV are at increased risk for what? |
|
Definition
fulminant hepatitis (10% risk!!) |
|
|
Term
In chronic HBV hepatitis, what are some histological features that can be seen? |
|
Definition
Ground glass nuclei (both chronic and acute)
Bridging fibrosis (chronic) |
|
|
Term
Describe the difference in outcome of HBV acquired when young and when an adult |
|
Definition
The younger you are when you acquire HBV, the more likely it will lead to chronic hepatitis. Therefore, children that acquire it perinatally from an infected mother have a greatly increased risk of chronic HBV infection! this is because the immune system is still developing when the baby is infected, and this may lead to tolerance to the virus. This results in a decreased ability to clear the infection and leads to chronic HBV.
Adults that acquire HBV are more likely to clear the virus and suffer just from the acute disease. |
|
|
Term
HBV with HIV or HDV infection is more likely to progress to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the structure of the HDV virus? |
|
Definition
the HDV virus is an enveloped, (-)ssRNA virus
recall, HDV is special because it requires an HBV infection to be infective itself. (can only infect those with HBV) perhaps the (-)ssRNA structure has something to do with this? |
|
|
Term
What is the structure of the HCV virus? |
|
Definition
HCV is an enveloped (+)ssRNA virus |
|
|
Term
If someone has HCV infection, what other hepatitis virus must you also test for? |
|
Definition
HCV and HBV coinfection is common... HCV infection often overshaddows the HBV infection, so that the HBV infection is occult. Therefore, you must test for these two viruses at the molecular level (PCR).
It is even more important to check for both HCV and HBV because coinfection leads to more severe disease and a higher risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. |
|
|
Term
What change is often seen in the liver of someone with HCV infection? |
|
Definition
Steatosis (fatty change) is often observed in the liver of HCV infected patients. |
|
|
Term
Describe the value of HBsAb, and HBcAb in the diagnosis of HBV infection by serology. |
|
Definition
Greatly simplified:
if HBcAb is up and HBsAb is up there was an infection but it was cleared (Acute)
if HBcAb is up and HBsAb is not up, there is an infection and it's not cleared (Chronic)
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common virus involved in urinary tract infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can polyomaviridae lead to cell transformation? |
|
Definition
polyomaviridae is the naked, dsDNA virus that causes urinary tract infections. If it enters a susceptible cell that is not permissive, that cell gets stuck in S-phase = cell transformation. |
|
|
Term
What is the structure of the papillomaviridae? |
|
Definition
HPV viruses are naked, dsDNA viruses |
|
|
Term
What strains of HPV are high risk? low risk? |
|
Definition
HPV 6 and HPV 11 are 'low risk' viruses that are the cause of genital warts (condyloma acuminata) and laryngeal papillomas.
HPV 16 and HPV 18 are 'high risk' viruses that have a greater chance of producing high grade dysplasias and cervical carcinomas. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of the HPV E6 protein? |
|
Definition
The HPV E6 protein targets p53 for ubiquitination and proteosomal degredation. |
|
|
Term
What is the function of the HPV E7 protein? |
|
Definition
The HPV E7 protein inhibits pRB, thereby causing the release of E2F transcription factor and promoting cell cycle progression.
E7 also inactivates p21, another cell cycle repressor |
|
|
Term
What is the structure of the herpesvirus? |
|
Definition
herpesviridae are enveloped, dsDNA viruses |
|
|
Term
What is the general infection pattern for HSV 1 and HSV 2? |
|
Definition
The general rule of thumb is "HSV1 above the belt (orolabial cold-sores) and HSV2 below the belt (genitals)" according to Hawley.
however, HSV1 also causes genital disease.
The difference is that HSV2 genital lesions are more severe and recur more frequently. According to bergeron "if you're going to get genital herpes, get HSV1" |
|
|
Term
This is just a slide reminding you that open genital lesions, like those caused by herpes, increase the risk of HIV transmission. |
|
Definition
This is just a slide reminding you that HSV is a pregnancy concern, as it can be transmitted (usually during childbirth) to the infant and result in disseminated infection and encephalitis! |
|
|
Term
What is the normal pH of the vagina? Which infections raise the pH? |
|
Definition
The normal vaginal pH is 4.5-5
Trichomoniasis, caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, increases the pH to 5-6
bacterial vaginosis (Gardnerella vaginalis) also causes a slightly increased pH. |
|
|
Term
What leads to an increased risk of vulvovaginal candidiasis in women? |
|
Definition
Diabetes, Aids, Antibiotics, Diaphragms, COCPs and foley catheters are predispose women to vaginal infection by candidiasis.
Tx = imidazoles or nystatin |
|
|
Term
A female patient has a foul smelling, frothy vaginal discharge. Wet mount reveals flagellated protozoans. What is the diagnosis and treatment? |
|
Definition
This patient has trichomoniasis. Treatment is metronidazole |
|
|
Term
A female patient presents with vaginal discharge. A KOH whiff test is positive. You also notice epithelial cells covered in bacteria on an H&E stained slide. What is the diagnosis? |
|
Definition
This patient has Bacterial vaginosis. Gardnerella vaginalis is a causative agent. "Clue cells" help in the diagnosis, along with the KOH whiff test. |
|
|
Term
What are some serious complications of chlamydial STD infection? |
|
Definition
Chlamydia can cause PID in women that go untreated. This can result in salpingitis, leading to scarring, infertility, and ectopic pregnancy!
Treat chlamydia with Azithromycin or doxycycline |
|
|
Term
What serotypes of chlamydia are found in the STD form? Which are responsible for lymphogranulosum venereum? |
|
Definition
D-K serotypes are sexually transmitted ("a four letter word that starts with a D and ends in a K is involved in sexual transmission" -Hawley)
L1-L3 serotypes are found in lymphogranulosum venereum
(L for lymphogranulosum) |
|
|
Term
A man with penile discharge shows intracellular gram (-) diplococci on gram stain. What is the presumptive diagnosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dissemination of N. gonorrhea produces what signs/symptoms? |
|
Definition
Skin lesions/petechiae and arthritis
a young sexually active woman with arthritis should be checked for lyme disease, disseminated gonorrhea, or juvenile arthritis... |
|
|
Term
What are some serious consequences of Gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
Gonorrhea can lead to PID and infertility/ectopic pregnancy
It can also cause neonatal blindness! |
|
|
Term
How do you culture gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
Gonorrhea requires a special culture medium. This can either be Thayer-Martin chocolate agar or NYC agar.
|
|
|
Term
Describe the 3 stages of syphilis and the way to diagnose/confirm the disease at each stage |
|
Definition
primary syphilis = hard, painless chancres.
diagnose with Darkfield Microscopy
secondary syphilis = condylomata lata/ maculopapular rash
diagnose with Non-Treponemal antibody test (VDRL, RPR), confirm with Treponemal test (FTA-Abs)
tertiary = Gumma, syphilitic aortitis, neurosyphilis
diagnose/confirm same as secondary |
|
|
Term
For syphilis, why do you do a non-treponemal antibody test first, then a treponemal test? |
|
Definition
Because the non-treponemal is cheaper. |
|
|
Term
Why are there both treponemal and non-treponemal antibodies in syphilis infection? |
|
Definition
T. pallidum organisms infect the body and we make antibodies against them. These are treponemal antibodies, and they are the first Abs to appear. Then the microbes damage cells and are coated with mitochondrial antigens. The immune system is not normally exposed to these intracellular antigens, so it makes antibodies against those, too. These are the non-treponemal antibodies. These non-treponemal antibodies also react against cow cardiolipin, which allows for the cheap VDRL test for syphilis infection. Must follow a positive VDRL test with a more specific treponemal test (FTA-Abs) because other infections can give a false positive VDRL, as can lupus! |
|
|
Term
list the ToRCH infections |
|
Definition
Toxoplasmosis
Rubella
CMV
Herpes |
|
|
Term
Which congenital infections cause vision problems? |
|
Definition
Rubella, Syphilis, and Toxoplasmosis |
|
|
Term
Which congenital infection causes heart defects, such as a PDA? |
|
Definition
Congenital rubella can result in heart defects |
|
|
Term
What should toxoplasma (-) pregnant women avoid to decrease the risk of congenital toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
Cat litter boxes and pork |
|
|
Term
Which congenital infection (ToRCH infection) carries an increased risk of developing type I diabetes? |
|
Definition
Rubella infection causes an increased risk of Diabetes Mellitus type I
(as well as cataracts/blindness, deafness, and heart defects) |
|
|