Term
Events following the LUCA led to evolution of 3 major lineages of microbial cells |
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Definition
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Term
Cytoplasmic membranes of Bacteria usually exist as phospholipid monolayers. |
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Definition
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Term
The presence of essential genes is necessary for a genetic element to be called a plasmid. |
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Definition
False. a plasmid has no essential genes |
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Term
Sprouts are not considered to be a high-risk food by the FDA |
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Definition
false. (they are high-risk!) |
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Term
Quorum sensing is he mechanism by which bacteria assess their population density |
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Definition
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Term
Enzymes decrease the activation energy required for a reaction to proceed. |
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Definition
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Term
Transformation is a mechanism for genetic transfer that involves cell-to-cell contact |
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Definition
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Term
A microbiological medium containing yeast extract is an example of a defined medium |
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Definition
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Term
The sanger sequencing method relies on the termination of DNA synthesis when a dideoxy nucleotide is incorporated into the DNA molecule |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is true of Louis Pasteur? a)disproved theory of spontaneous generation b)came up with the four postulates for linking a microorganism to a disease c)invented petri dishes d)all of the abouve |
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Definition
a)disproved theory of spontaneous generation |
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Term
What method would you use to measure bacterial gene expression under two different growth conditions? a)sanger dideoxy sequencing b)454 pyrosequencing c)microarray d)all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
A cell that uses carbon dioxide as its carbon source is a(n) a)heterotroph b)autrotroph c)chemoorganotroph d)none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following are processes that involve production of ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation? a)citric acid cycle and glycolysis b)glycolysis and electron transport chain c)citric acid cycle and electron transport chain d)all of the above |
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Definition
a)citric acid cycle and glycolysis |
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Term
Which method measures the release of light each time a dNTP is incorporated into the DNA molecule? a)sanger dideoxy sequencing b)454 pyrosequencing c)microarray d)all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following organisms is NOT a foodborne pathogen routinely tested for at FDA? a)Salmonella spp. b)Listeria monocytogenes c)Vibrio species d)Streptococcus pneumoniae |
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Definition
d)streptococcus pneumoniae |
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Term
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for gliding motility? a)Type IV pili b)Excretion of polysaccharide slide c)Gliding-specific proteins d)Flagellum-assisted movement |
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Definition
D)Flagellum-assisted movement |
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Term
Which of the following membrane-bound organelles does NOT contain its own genome? a)cholorplasts b)mitochondria c)Golgi complex d)none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is a characteristic shared by all microbial life? a)metabolism b)motility c)communication d) all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is the term for a cell containing a functional F plasmid that has been integrated into the chromosome? a)F- cells b)F+ cells c)Hfr cells d) B and C e)none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
List the 3 domains of microbial life defined by rRNA sequencing and identify which domains include prokaryotes and which contain eukaryotes. |
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Definition
1)Prokarya-prokaryotes 2)Archea-prokaryotes 3)Eukarya-Eukaryotes |
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Term
Is the aerobic pathways for energy conseraation more or less efficient than the anaerobic pathway? How many total ATPs are produced per glucose molecule in each pathway? |
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Definition
The aerobic pathway for energy conservation is more efficient than the anaerobic pathway. Aerobic pathway produces a total of 38 ATP and the anaerobic pathway produces 2 ATP. |
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Term
Why did the evolution of cyanobacteria change Earth forever? |
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Definition
Cyanobacteria were the first oxygenic phototrophs, who used carbon dioxide as their carbon source, releasing oxygen into the atmospehere, eventually leading to an oxygenated atmosphere like the earth is today, so humans and animals can exist. |
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Term
What function does an R plasmid confer and how is it transferred among bacterial cells? |
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Definition
A R plasmid functions as a resistance plasmid (such as antibiotic resistance). It is transferred among bacterial cells through conjugation. |
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Term
Describe on a molecular basis how an extracellular signal can lead to movement away from a chemical gradient during regultion of chemotaxis. Include the interactions between the extracellular signal (repellant), MCPs, CheA, CheY, and the flagellar motor. |
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Definition
The extracellular signal (replellant) is received by the transmembrane MCPs, causing the autophosphorylation of CheA. The phosphate is then transferred to CheY, CheY-P binds to the motors, causing the chemotaxis/movement of the flagellar motor, moving the microorganism away from the chemical gradient. |
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Term
Describe the main steps in microbiological analysis of foods at the food and drug administration. |
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Definition
The FDA receives a food sample and then incubates/grows the potential pathogen. The pathogen is then innoculated and tested for screening/isolation followed by identification & confirmation. |
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Term
Why is it that direct microscopic counts of natural samples typically reveal far more organisms than those recoverable on viable plates? |
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Definition
Direct microscopic counts of natural samples reveal far more organisms than those recoverable on viable plates because dead cells are usually present. It is also esier for contamination with this method, one may accidentalyl count dirt so much more error is involved. Viable playes are more reliable and give a better/more accurate count because all of the counts are alive and with the proper se of asceptic technique, there is less/no contamination. |
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Term
Which type of penicillin is the most clinically useful? a)biosynthetic penicillins b)natural penicillins c)semisynthetic penicillins d)none of the above |
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Definition
c)semisynthetic penicillins |
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Term
Which of the following processes is the most energetically favorable? a)iron reduction G=-42 b)manganese reduction, G=-98 c)sulfate reduction G=-25 d)methanogeneisis G=-23 |
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Definition
B) manganese reduction, G=-98 |
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Term
proteobacteria include which of the following bacteria? a)lactic acid bacteria b)vibrio c)enteric bacteria d)B and C e) all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the groups of pathogenic E. coli does E. coli 0157:H7 belong to? a)EHEC b)EPEC c)ETEC d)EIEC e)DAEC |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is true about antigenic shift? a)result of subtle mutations in viral nucleic acid b)responsible for the 2009 H1N1 pandemic c)Result of RNA being converted to DNA d)A and B e)A and C |
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Definition
B)responsible for the 2009 H1N1 pandemic |
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Term
Where are endospore-forming bacteria primarily found in nature? a)water b)hyperthermal vents c)soil d)intestinal tract of animals |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is an amino acid used in the production of aspartame? a)phenylalanine b)lysine c)glutamate d)amylase |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following are changes facing antibiotic production? a)most antibiotics fail toxicity and therapeutic tests in animals b)it can take up to 15 years to develop a new antibiotic c)methods for purification and extraction are often elaborate d)B and C e) all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Prions can cause which of the following diseases? a)creutzfeldt-jakob disease b)scrapie c)A and B d) all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following are reasons to study anaerobic metabolism? a) it is the most efficient means of energy production b)it allows for decomposition in anaerobic environments c)Martian life is likely anaerobic d)B and C e) all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Amylases and glucoamylases are used in the production of high-fructose corn syrup |
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Definition
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Term
The antibiotic isolation and cross-streak method is reliant on the observation of inhibition zones. |
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Definition
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Term
Acetic acid bacteria are used to produce acetic acid from lactic acid. |
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Definition
False, ethanol not lactic acid |
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Term
Recombinant bovine somatotropin is used in the dairy industry to increase milk yield. |
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Definition
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Term
Polyomavirus SV40 only causes tumors in permissive cells. |
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Definition
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Term
Wine is produced by fermentation of gains like barley. |
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Definition
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Term
Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Clostridium antrhacis. |
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Definition
False. Bacterium anthracis |
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Term
Bacterial bioluminesecne is produced as a result of quorum sensing. |
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Definition
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Term
Bacillus thurnigiensis is a Gram negative soil-dwelling bacteria that produces a set of insect toxins |
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Definition
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Term
A negative-strand RNA virus does not require the presence of the enzyme RNA replicase. |
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Definition
False, it does not require the presence of RNA polymerase |
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Term
What are the different sources of energy for chemoorganotrophs, chemolithotrophs, and phototrophs? |
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Definition
Chemoorganotrophs oxidate organic chemical compounds for their energy. Chemolithotrophs oxidate inorganic compound for energy. Phototrophs use light as their energy source. |
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Term
I am a Gram-positive nonsporeformer that is a major contributor to the formation of plaque and cavities |
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Definition
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Term
I am a Gram-positive group of bacteria that is associated with tuberculosis in cattle and humans. |
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Definition
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Term
I am an opportunistic pathogen that accounts for about 10% of all nosocomial infections. |
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Definition
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Term
I am a group of anaerobic spore-formers who species can cause diseases such as tetanus and botulism |
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Definition
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Term
I am a group of RNA viruses that causes diseases such as rabies and vesicular stomatitis |
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Definition
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Term
I am a type of RNA virus that is subtyped on the basis of hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. |
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Definition
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Term
I am a retrovirus that infects helper T cells |
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Definition
Human immunodeficiency virus |
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Term
I am a group of mostly obligate intracellular parasites that are transmitted by arthropod vectors, such as fleas and ticks. |
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Definition
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Term
I am primarily found in aquatic environments and some species in my group emit bioluminescence |
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Definition
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Term
I am a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium that is used in the production of yogurt |
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Definition
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Term
What type of product would you carry out malolactic fermentation on? What conversion takes place during this fermentation? |
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Definition
When producing a full-bodied dry wine, a secondary fermentation must take place before bottling. Some grapes are high in malic acid and in their fermentation it is converted into lactic acid, resulting in a less bitter taste. |
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Term
Spore-forming bacteria can be selectively isolated from soil, dust, food, or other materials by heating the sampel to 80C for 10 min. What are the main reasons that we dsicussed in class to explain this mechanism of isolation? |
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Definition
Only spore forming bacteria can resist high temperatures. We can selectively isolate spore forming bacteria because they will be the only bacteria (usually) to survive the heat. |
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Term
Name and describe in words the 5 phases of viral replication (life cycle) common to all viruses, using the terminology discussed in class |
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Definition
1. attachment of virus to host cell 2. Pennetration-virus enters host cell 3.synthesize-nucleic acid and protein synthesize 4. Assembly- assemblage of nucleocapsids 5. Release - of newly formed viruses (usually lysing cell & spreading) |
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Term
During which microbial growth phase are primary metabolites produced? What about secondary metabolites? Give an example of a compound produced as a primary metabolite and a compound produced as a secondary metabolite/ |
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Definition
Primary metabolites are produced during exponential phase, an example of a compound produced is ethanol. Secondary metabolites are produced during stationary phase, an example is most antibiotics, more specifically penicillan. |
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Term
List the types of hosts that the following enteric bacteria may be found in : E.coli, Salmonella, and Shigella |
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Definition
All three are found in all primates and humans. Ecoli & salmonella are in all warm-blooded animals. Salmonella is in cold blooded animals as well. |
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Term
What is the main application of Streptomyces in industrial microbiology? |
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Definition
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Term
lactic acid bacteria may be divided into two main subgroups based on the compounds produced during lactic acid fermentation. Name the two subgroups and list the fermentation producs associated with each. |
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Definition
Homolactofermentation-lactic acid
heterolactrofermentation-lactic acid, ethanol, carbon dioxide |
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Term
What is HA and NA and which one binds to the host cell receptor? |
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Definition
HA: hematoglutinin binds to the host receptor cell "key" NA:neuraminidase-breaks down the host cellreceptor cytoplasmic membrane |
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Term
Indirect host-to-host transmission may involve which of the following? a)insect vectors b)food or water vehicles c)fomites d)A and C e) all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
which of the following is NOT true regarding dinoflagellates? a)have two flagella b)only found in freshwater c)associated with human poisoning d)derive energy from the sun e)none of the above |
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Definition
b)only found in freshwater |
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Term
Which of the following are examples of personal protective equipment (PPE) a)gloves b)safety glasses c)lab coat d)A and B e) all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
4)Which of the following is NOT true of ionizing radiation? a)damages DNA b)causes free radicals c)cannot penetrate surfaces d)used in the food industry e)none of the above |
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Definition
c) cannot penetrate surfaces |
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Term
Which of the following are involved in the life cycle of cellular slime? a)slug migration b)aggregation of amoeba c)fruiting body formation d) A and B e) all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Work with a pathogen that has a high case fatality rate, may be transferred through aersols and has no avaialbe immunization or cure should be carried out at which biosafety level? |
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Definition
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Term
Mycobacterium primarily colonize which site on the human body? a)skin b)upper respiratory tract c)gastrointestinal tract d)urogenital tract e)lower respiratory tract |
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Definition
b) upper respiratory tract |
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Term
Which of the following is NOT true regarding a biosafety cabinet? a)can be sued to work with volatile chemicals b)can be used to work with infectious agents c) required at biosafety level 3 d)utilizes HEPA filters e)none of the above |
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Definition
a) can be used to work with volatile chemicals |
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Term
A disease that is constantly present in a human population, usually at low incidences, is called: a)endemic b)epidemic c)zoonotic d)common-source |
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Definition
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Term
Asexual spores produced by fungi are called: a)hyphae b)mycelia c)conidia d)chitin e) none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
In the competitive ELISA assays, there is a direct relationship between the level of antigen present and the amount of colored product released |
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Definition
False; indirect relationship |
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Term
The greatest numbers of bacteria in the human body are found in the oral cavity |
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Definition
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Term
The presence of bacteria in the blood is called bacteremia |
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Definition
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Term
Yeasts are single-celled prokaryotes. |
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Definition
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Term
The lower respiratory tract lacks microflora in healthy individuals. |
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Definition
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Term
Larger organisms are less sensitive to radiation because they are more complex. |
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Definition
False; they are more sensitive |
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Term
Some molds are able to produce harmful compounds called mycotoxins. |
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Definition
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Term
Inhalation of Bacillus anthracis spores can lead to a systemic infection with a high case fatality rate. |
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Definition
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Term
The results of real-time PCR are determined through gel-electrophoresis |
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Definition
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Term
Amoeboid movement involves the use of peritrichous flagella |
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Definition
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Term
Name the three microenvironments of human skin. Which one is associated with the upper chest and face? |
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Definition
1.dry skin 2.moist skin 3.sebaceous sebaceous is associated with the chest and face |
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Term
It it takes 5 minutes at 70 C to reduce the viable microbial population of a sample from 500 CFU/g to 50 CFU/g, what is the D-value? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the meaning of a category A agent in biowarfare? Give two examples mentioned in class of biowarfare agents classified as category A. |
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Definition
Category A is the most dangerous agent in biowarfare. Thwo examples are anthrax and plague. |
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Term
What class of drugs does AZT belong to? What disease is it primarily used to treat and how does it work? |
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Definition
AZT is a nucleoside analog. It is used to treat HIV/AIDS and works by attaching to reverse transcriptase, preventing the virus from incorporation into the DNA. |
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Term
Compare and contrast the large intestine and stomach as sites of microbial colonization on the human body. What are the key characteristics of each that affect microbial colonization? Name one of the key microorganisms associated with the microflora of each environment. In which site are the most microorganisms present? |
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Definition
Most microorganisms are found in the large intestine. An example of microflora in the stomach is Heliobacter Pylori, in the large intestine is e.coli. The stomach environment is aerobic and very acidic. The large intestine has less oxygen (anaeriobic) and is more basic with a higher pH (making it easier to colonize). |
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Term
What is the difference between pasteurization and sterilization in terms of their effects on the microbial load of a sample? Which treatment is able to kill endospores? |
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Definition
Sterilization kills endospores, and kill the entire mirobial load while pasteurization only lowers the microbial load (doesn't kill all) |
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Term
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Definition
Total number of new cases |
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Term
what is the case fatality rate? |
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Definition
number of deaths/incidences |
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Term
describe in detail how bacteria colonization of the oral cavity contributes to plaque formation and development of cavities (also known as tooth decay or dental caries). Include in your answer the main sites of bacterial colonization, the definition of plaque and hte mechanism by which cavities are formed. |
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Definition
bacteria attach to teeth (inbetween and near gums mostly) by connecting to glycoprotein produced by salive. The bacteria colonizes and eventually forms a thick biofilm or plaque. Sugar from food we eat is converted to lactic acid by this bacteria, decalifying teeth, forming cavities. |
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Term
What is the definition of a zoonotic disease? Give and example of one and describe its route of transmission. |
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Definition
A zoonotic disease is a disease that usually is found in animals but may be passed on to humans. An example is lyme disease, which may be transferred through a tick vector. |
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Term
Describe the key steps in the latex bead aggltination asay, using detection of E. coli 0515:H7 in a bacterial sample as an example. What are the antigens being tested for in this example and how is a positive result identified? |
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Definition
The antigens being tested in E.coli are 0157 and H7 antigens. In this aggutination assay a control latex is added to a peper marked withc cirlces, and testing latex is added to the two other cirlces. The testing latex contains the antibodies to find the 0157 and H7 antigens. In a postiive result, antigens wil lattach to the antibodies and clping will result. Negative tests will have no clumping. |
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Term
What is the mechanism of action for amoxicillin? can it be used to treat infection with Gram negative bacteria, gram positive bacteria, or both? |
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Definition
Amoxicillin is used to treat gram negative and positive bacteria. It does this by preventing the formation of cell walls. |
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Term
Is pertussis a zoonotic disease? |
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Definition
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Term
Why is pertussis also known as whooping cough? |
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Definition
Because each cough is followed by a ‘whoop’ sound |
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Term
TRUE OR FALSE: A person with a latent TB infection can spread the bacteria to others |
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Definition
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Term
What is the usual length of time that someone should be treated for TB? |
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Definition
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Term
Animals are the only known reservoir of N. meningitidis (True/False)? |
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Definition
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Term
What part of the N. meningitidis bacterium prevents phagocytosis as an immune response by the host? a) nucleus b) outer membrane c) ribosomal subunits d) cell wall e) lysosomes |
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Definition
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Term
If someone with Shigella infects (through direct contact) a person who has never had Chicken Pox, the person infected will likely: a) obtain the varicella-zoster virus b) obtain Shigella c) obtain Chicken Pox and Shigella d) none of the above |
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Definition
a) obtain the varicella-zoster virus |
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Term
2. Which of the following statements about Chicken Pox is false? a) Obtaining Chicken Pox often means lifetime immunity afterward b) Antivirals are sometimes recommended for children over 12 years old c) Getting vaccinated against Chicken Pox means you will never get the disease d) Symptoms include fever, rash, itching, and blisters |
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Definition
c) Getting vaccinated against Chicken Pox means you will never get the disease |
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Term
1. Eating spicy foods creates gastrointestinal ulcers (T/F) |
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Definition
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|
Term
2. Helicobacter pylori is found in
A. The stomach
B. the esophagus
C. The beginning of the small intestine
D. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
1) Which type of Hepatits virus doesn’t have a vaccination? a)Hepatitis A b)Hepatitis B c)Hepatitis C |
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Definition
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Term
2)Which type of Hepatitis virus is usually passed through fecal contaminated food and water? a)Hepatitis A b)Hepatitis B c)Hepatitis C |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the follow is not true about Gonorrhea? A. Gonorrhea is asymptomatic B. Gonorrhea can still be transmitted via fluids even if a man does not ejaculate. C. Gonorrhea can also be spread from an untreated mother to her baby during childbirth. D. People who have had gonorrhea and have been treated may get infected again if they have sexual contact with a person infected with gonorrhea. E. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
What bacteria is responsible for the syphilis infection? |
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Definition
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Term
Which antibiotic is used to treat a syphilis infection? |
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Definition
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Term
1. If untreated, what can chlamydia cause in women? |
|
Definition
infertility due to damage in the fallopian tubes |
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Term
. T/F Chlamydia can be transmitted to the baby congenitally. |
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Definition
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Term
1. True or False: You can get rabies from contact with feces and blood |
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Definition
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Term
True or False: Rabies is most prevalent in Latin America, Asia, and Africa |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the reservoir for hantavirus: |
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Definition
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|
Term
HPS and HFRS are the two human diseases of hantavirus |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of cells does West Nile virus initially infect? a) Adrenal gland cells b) Heart muscle cells c) Skin cells d) Liver cells |
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Definition
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Term
What is not a prevention of the West Nile Virus? a) Apply insect repellent to exposed skin and clothing b) Drain sources of standing water c) Get vaccinated d) stay inside during dawn, dusk, and early evening |
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Definition
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Term
1) What are the 3 forms of the plague? |
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Definition
Answer: pneumonic plague, septicemic plague, and the bubonic plague |
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Term
2) What are "boubons" and where was the word derived from? |
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Definition
Answer: swelling of the lymph nodes (especially in the inguinal area) that turn black; means "groin" in Greek |
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Term
Which of the following is not a symptom of giardiasis? a) diarrhea b) flatulence c) nausea d) vomiting |
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Definition
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Term
: Giardiasis can be transmitted through coughing and sneezing |
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Definition
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Term
(True/False) As a waterborne disease, Legionellosis is primarily contracted from natural environments, such as lakes, ponds, and rivers. |
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Definition
False. Legionellosis is primarily contracted from man-made water environments. |
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Term
: Legionnaires' disease is most commonly caused by which organism? A) Legionella micdadei B) Legionella bozemanii C) Legionella longbeachae D) Legionella pneumophila |
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Definition
: D) Legionella pneumophila |
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Term
T/F Salmonellosis is a food poisoning. |
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Definition
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Term
T/F Salmonellosis always requires treatment. |
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Definition
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Term
Which botulism toxin is used for BOTOX? A) BoNT-A B) BoNT-C C) BoNT-E D) BoNT-D |
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Definition
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