Term
1. _____ is the study of microorganisms, including protozoans, fungi, bacteria, and viruses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. _____ was the first person to see microorganisms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. What year did Leeuwenhoek first discover the “little animals” we now call microbes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. This person may legitimately be regarded as the founding father of modern microbiology, and he was the one who described the causes of disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. Louis Pasteur developed a sterilization procedure called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6. Louis Pasteur is famous for discovering the _____ and _____ vaccinations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. 3 things that Robert Koch is famous for. |
|
Definition
7. 1) ISOLATED ANTHRAX BACILLUS, 2) DISCOVERED MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS, 3) DISCOVERED VIBRIO CHOLERA |
|
|
Term
8. _____ states that there are separate diseases, and each disease is caused by a particular microorganism. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. This person is known as the father of epidemiology. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. _____ is used to establish a casual relationship between a microorganism and a disease, and is important for differentiating infection and infectious disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. 4 steps in Koch’s postulates. |
|
Definition
1) ISOLATE THE SUSPECTED AGENT FROM A DISEASE VICTIM, 2) GROW THE ORGANISM IN A PURE CULTURE, 3) INFECT A HEALTHY HOST AND SHOW THAT THE ORGANISM INHERITS THE SAME DISEASE, 4) ISOLATE THE SAME ORGANISM FROM THE NEW VICTIM |
|
|
Term
12. With his knowledge of infectious agents, Koch went on to develop _____. |
|
Definition
. PURE CULTURE TECHNIQUES |
|
|
Term
13. This person was a Hungarian obstetrician and gynecologist, and he advocated washing hands before touching a patients decreased the incidence of childbed fever dramatically. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. This is a condition of childbed fever that is a streptococcal infection inside the uterus, killing the mother within 6 weeks. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. This person was a British army surgeon then a country doctor who invented the small pox vaccine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16. In 1796, Edward Jenner discovered that an inoculation with _____ gave a person immunity to smallpox. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. This person was a British surgeon who adopted aseptic surgery and decreased the post-surgical death. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18. This person was a Scottish surgeon who discovered penicillin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
19. This person discovered the antibiotic streptomycin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
20. What is the first specific agent effective in the treatment of tuberculosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
21. This person invented the petri-dish which is a shallow glass or plastic cylindrical disc that biologists use to culture. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
22. This person is a German medical doctor who invented a cure for syphilis. The antibiotic acted like a “magic bullet” selectively killing the villain and sparing the victim. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
23. _____ is the cure for syphilis discovered by Erlich. |
|
Definition
SALVARSAN OR COMPOUND 606 |
|
|
Term
24. Paul Erlich is also famous for discovering several _____ for bacterial study. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
25. What causes puerperal sepsis? |
|
Definition
A STREPTOCOCCAL INFECTION |
|
|
Term
26. The very first virus was discovered by _____, who was a Russian botanist. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
27. Ivanosky discovered the first virus while studying _____. He found that the agent causing the disease was small enough to pass through ceramic filters that are small enough to trap bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28. This person was an American biologist and physician best known for the research and development of a polio vaccine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
29. _____ is the vaccine used by Salk to kill the polio virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
30. How was the Salk vaccine administered? |
|
Definition
GIVEN IN 2 INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS SPACED ONE MONTH APART, AND REQUIRES BOOSTERS EVERY 5 YEARS |
|
|
Term
31. True or false: the Salk vaccine is safe for those with compromised/weakened immune systems. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
32. This person created the oral polio vaccine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
33. The oral polio vaccine provides both _____ and _____ immunity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
34. How is the Sabin oral vaccine administered. |
|
Definition
GIVEN IN 3 DOSES IN THE FIRST 2 YEARS OF LIFE, AND A BOOSTER IS GIVEN WHEN THE CHILD STARTS SCHOOL |
|
|
Term
35. 4 advantages of the Sabin oral vaccine. |
|
Definition
1) EASE OF ADMINISTRATION, 2) NO SHOTS, 3) GIVES BOTH INTESTINAL AND BODILY IMMUNITY, 4) PRODUCES LIFE LONG IMMUNITY WITHOUT THE NEED FOR BOOSTERS |
|
|
Term
36. The last case of polio was eradicated in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
37. These are the 5 classifications of microorganisms. |
|
Definition
1) BACTERIA, 2) VIRUSES, 3) FUNGI, 4) PROTOZOA, 5) HELMINTHS |
|
|
Term
38. 3 characteristics regarding prokaryotes. |
|
Definition
1) NO DISTINCT NUCLEUS, 2) DNA IS IN THE FORM OF A SINGLE CIRCULAR CHROMOSOME, 3) ADDITIONAL DNA IS CARRIED IN PLASMIDS |
|
|
Term
39. 3 characteristics of eukaryotes. |
|
Definition
1) HAVE A DISTINCT NUCLEUS, 2) DNA IS CARRIED ON SEVERAL CHROMOSOMES WITHIN THE NUCLEUS, 3) THE CYTOPLASM IS RICH IN MEMBRANE BOUND ORGANELLES SUCH AS MITOCHONDRIA AND ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM |
|
|
Term
40. _____ are bacteria, fungi, and protozoa that live on or within the bodies of animals and plants, and do not cause disease in healthy individuals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
41. In the normal person, _____, such as _____, _____, and _____ are free of normal flora. |
|
Definition
INTERNAL ORGANS, BLOOD, BRAIN, AND MUSCLE |
|
|
Term
42. This is an example of one of the most prominent normal flora in the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
43. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) ferments carbohydrates into organic acids which inhibit these 5 microbes from infecting our body. |
|
Definition
LISTERIA, CLOSTRIDIUM, E. COLI |
|
|
Term
44. _____ is an infection that is caused by staying in a hospital, and it usually occurs within 48 hours or more after a hospital admission. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
45. _____ describes an illness caused by medical treatments such as radiation, medication, or surgery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
46. _____ is a poison, specifically a protein or conjugated protein produced by some higher plants, certain animals, and pathogenic bacteria that is highly poisonous for other living organisms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
47. This is an example of a toxin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
48. _____ is an insect or other organism capable of transmitting germs or other agents of disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
49. This is an example of a vector illness. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
50. These are 3 vector illnesses spread by mosquitos. |
|
Definition
1) MALARIA, 2) FILARIA, 3) YELLOW FEVER |
|
|
Term
51. _____ is defined as 2 or more organisms living together. It is common that one of the organisms live in or on the other. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
52. 3 types of symbiosis. |
|
Definition
1) COMENSALISM, 2) MUTALISM, 3) PARASITISM |
|
|
Term
53. This type of symbiosis is when only one of the organisms benefits, and the host is not affected either positively or negatively. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
54. This type of symbiosis is when both organisms benefit from the association. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
55. This type of symbiosis is when one benefits, but the host is potentially harmed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
56. 2 examples of prion- associated diseases. |
|
Definition
1) CRUETZFELDT-JACOBS DISEASE, 2) MAD COW DISEASE |
|
|
Term
57. Which organ in the body is most susceptible for a prion attack? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
58. This is an example of a prion disease that is causes by ritual cannibalism of deceased relatives. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
59. 4 modes of prion transmission. |
|
Definition
1) KURU, 2) CONTAMINATED HGH, 3) GRAFTS, 4) CONTAMINATED EQUIPMENT |
|
|
Term
60. This is the hypothesis for prion infections. |
|
Definition
ACCUMULATED ABNORMAL PROTEINS KILL NEURONS OF THE BRAIN, AND THE PRIONS THEN SPREAD TO ADJACENT NEURONS |
|
|
Term
61. What are the 2 components of a virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
62. _____ is an infection agent that is minimally constructed of RNA or DNA and a capsid. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
63. Many viruses have additional structural features called an _____ which is composed of a protein containing lipid bilayer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
64. Viral infection may cause _____ or be _____ or _____. |
|
Definition
CELL LYSIS, PERSISTENT, LATENT |
|
|
Term
65. A virus can exist in the host cell _____, or be incorporated into the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
66. This type of virus exists in the host cell cytoplasm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
67. This type of virus can be incorporated into the host genome. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
68. This type of virus is able to hide within the T cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
69. Some viruses can transform the host cell into a _____ or _____ cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
70. _____ arises from incorporation of host oncogenes into the viral genome during viral replication. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
71. Viruses that can only infect bacteria are called _____, and those that can only infect fungi are called. |
|
Definition
BACTERIOPHAGES, MYCOPHAGES |
|
|
Term
72. 2 living characteristics of viruses. |
|
Definition
1) THEY REPRODUCE, 2) THEY CAN MUTATE |
|
|
Term
73. 3 non living characteristics of viruses. |
|
Definition
1) THEY ARE ACELLULAR, 2) THEY CARRY OUT NO METABOLISM ON THEIR OWN AND MUST REPLICATE WITHIN THE HOST CELL, 3) THEY POSSESS DNA OR RNA, BUT NEVER BOTH |
|
|
Term
74. An intact infection virus particle is called a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
75. The single protein subunits that form a viral capsid is called _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
76. Enveloped viruses get their envelopes from _____ by _____. |
|
Definition
HOST CELL MEMBRANES, BUDDING |
|
|
Term
77. 3 criteria used to define a virus. |
|
Definition
1) CONTAIN DNA OR RNA, BUT NEVER BOTH, 2) TOTALLY DEPENDENT ON THE HOST CELL FOR REPLICATION, 3) VIRAL COMPONENTS MUST ASSEMBLE INTO COMPLETE VIRUSES TO GO FROM ONE HOST CELL TO ANOTHER |
|
|
Term
78. This is a complete virus able to go from one host cell to another. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
79. 5 steps in the cycle of reproduction of a virus. |
|
Definition
1) ATTACHMENT, 2) PENETRATION, 3) REPLICATION, 4) ASSEMBLY, 5) RELEASE |
|
|
Term
80. This stage of viral reproduction is when the virus attaches to the host cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
81. This stage of viral replication is when the viral nucleic acid enters the cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
82. This stage of viral replication is when genetic information contained in the viral nucleic acid directs the production of viral proteins and nucleic acids. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
83. This stage of viral reproduction is when the viral proteins and nucleic acids are assembled into virions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
84. This stage of viral replication is when the newly formed virions are released either by lysis or budding. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
85. These 4 viruses can spread through the placenta and infect a developing baby. |
|
Definition
HIV, HERPES, CYTOMEGALOVIRUS, HEPATITIS |
|
|
Term
86. True or false: viruses can be grown in synthetic culture media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
87. How are animal viruses normally grown. |
|
Definition
IN ANIMALS, EMBRYO, OR IN CELL CULTURES |
|
|
Term
88. 6 routes by which viruses enter the body. |
|
Definition
1) ORAL TRANSMISSION, 2) DIRECT SKIN CONTACT, 3) TRANS-PLACENTAL, 4) DROPLET TRANSMISSION, 5) DIRECT INOCULATION, 6) SEXUAL TRANSMISSION |
|
|
Term
89. What virus causes smallpox? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
90. What year was smallpox eradicated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
91. To this day, _____ is the only human infectious disease to have been completely eradicated from nature. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
92. What country was the last case of smallpox found. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
93. This disease is causes by Epstein Barr virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
94. These 2 diseases are caused by HPV. |
|
Definition
BENIGN WARTS AND CERVICAL CARCINOMA |
|
|
Term
95. This disease is caused by Human T cell Leukemia virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
96. This disease is caused by the Hepatitis B or C virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
97. These 2 strains of HPV cause cervical carcinoma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
98. This is the vaccine used to prevent HPV causing cervical carcinoma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
99. These 2 strains of HPV cause genital warts. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
100. This virus is responsible for causing chicken pox. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
101. _____ is an example of a DNA virus that causes simultaneous infections of 2 bodily systems at the same time. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
102. Adenoviruses can cause infections in these 4 places. |
|
Definition
1) OCULAR INFECTIONS, 2) RESPIRATORY INFECTIONS, 3) GI INFECTIONS, 4) UTI’S |
|
|
Term
103. This is a condition caused by the Adenovirus that is an infection of the cornea. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
104. This is a bladder infection caused by the Adenovirus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
105. 5 different types of herpes virus that can infect humans. |
|
Definition
1) HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS TYPE 1 AND 2, 2) VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS, 3) EPSTEIN BARR VIRUS, 4) CYTOMEGALO VIRUS, 5) HUAN HERPES VIRUS 6 AND 8 |
|
|
Term
106. Is the Herpes Virus a DNA or RNA virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
107. This virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
108. This virus is responsible for causing roseola infantum. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
109. This virus is responsible for causing cold sores on the lips. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
110. Herpes Simplex type 1 is a latent virus that hides in the _____, causing cold-sores. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
111. This is a dangerous Herpes Simplex type 1 infection of adolescents that affects the whole mouth. |
|
Definition
HERPES SIMPLEX GINGIOMYELITIS |
|
|
Term
112. This is a condition caused by the Herpes Zoster virus that spreads pustule blisters across a dermatome, and causes extreme pain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
113. What is the mode of transmission of Hepatitis A and E? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
114. What is the mode of transmission of Hepatitis B, C, and D? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
115. Which form of Hepatitis is the only DNA strained virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
116. These 3 strains of Hepatitis are envelope viruses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
117. Without _____, Hepatitis D cannot affect a person. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
118. Hepatitis D is found most commonly in _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
119. _____ is an infectious virus that causes a case fatality rate of babies in 20% of pregnant women. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
120. This is the most common medical condition associated with Epstein Barr Virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
121. Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by these 4 things. |
|
Definition
1) EXTREME FATIGUE, 2) TONSILITIS, 3) TENDER LYMPH NODES IN THE NECK, 4) HIGH FEVER |
|
|
Term
122. _____ is the most common childhood malignancy in equatorial Africa, and it is characteristically located in the jaw. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
123. _____ is inflammation of the parotid gland. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
124. Mumps is a contagious disease caused by the virus _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
125. How are mumps transmitted? |
|
Definition
THROUGH AIRBORNE DROPLETS FROM THE COUGHS AND SNEEZES OF INFECTED PEOPLE |
|
|
Term
126. 6 complications of having mumps. |
|
Definition
126. 1) ORCHITIS, 2) MENINGITIS/ENCEPHALITIS, 3) PANCREATITIS, 4) DEAFNESS, 4) PAROTITIS, 5) OOPHORITIS, 6) SPONTANEOUS ABORTION |
|
|
Term
127. _____ is having swollen, painful testicles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
128. This is inflammation of the ovaries. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
129. The measles virus is an example of a _____ virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
130. Paramyxoviruses can cause these 3 diseases. |
|
Definition
1) MEASLES, 2) MUMPS, 3) RUBEOLA |
|
|
Term
131. How many deaths are there per year due to the measles virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
132. _____ are unique to a measles infection, and they consist of tiny white dots on a reddish bump inside the mouth. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
133. This is a measles complication that consists of a severe progressive demyelinating neurological illness. |
|
Definition
SUB-ACUTE SCLEROSING PAN ENCEPHALITIS (SSPE) |
|
|
Term
134. This is an example of a single stranded RNA virus that is enveloped. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
135. When rubella is contracted by a pregnant woman, it can cause _____ which is a resulting rubella virus in a developing fetus. |
|
Definition
CONGENITAL RUBELLA SYNDROME |
|
|
Term
136. A woman contracting rubella infection in the _____ has a 15-50% chance of having a severely affected child. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
137. The risk for CRS becomes negligible when maternal infection occurs after the _____ week of pregnancy. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
138. Congenital rubella syndrome may cause these 6 things. |
|
Definition
1) SPONTANEOUS ABORTION, 2) STILLBIRTH, 3) BLINDNESS, 4) DEAFNESS, 5) HEART DAMAGE, 6) MENTAL RETARDATION |
|
|
Term
139. Yellow fever is a _____ transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected mosquito. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
140. This is the classification of the yellow fever virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
141. Yellow fever causes _____, which gives yellow fever its name. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
142. _____ is a viral zoonotic neuroinvasive disease that causes encephalitis in mammals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
143. The rabies virus is a _____virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
144. Rabies produces _____ in the infected neurons of the brain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
145. Is the rabies virus RNA or DNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
146. If one is infected with rabies, how much time can pass between onset and onset of symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
147. This phase of the rabies virus consists of a fever, vomiting, and a loss of appetite. Also the infected person with have a headache, pain at the site of the bite, copious salivation, and weeping. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
148. This phase of the rabies virus may cause paralysis, spasms in the throat, and hydrophobia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
149. Once visible symptoms of the rabies virus have developed, the mortality rate is almost _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
150. The WHO estimates that between _____ and _____ people die each year as a result of being bit by a rabid animal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
151. The common cold virus is caused by a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
152. Is the rhinovirus an RNA or DNA virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
153. How many different stereotypes of rhinovirus are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
154. This type of common cold virus is responsible for causing 10-30% of all acute respiratory infections in humans. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
155. Infants and young children most at risk for severe RSV infection include these 5 stereotypes. |
|
Definition
1) THOSE WITH A HISTORY OF PREMATURITY, 2) YOUNGER THAN 6 WEEKS, 3) THOSE WITH CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE, 4) THOSE WITH CHRONIC LUNG CONDITIONS, 5) THOSE WHO SUFFER FROM AN IMMUNODEFICIENCY |
|
|
Term
156. What is the genus of the respiratory syncytial virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
157. The CDC considered _____ to be the most common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia among infants and children under 2 years of age. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
158. The influenza virus is a _____ virus of the family _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
159. _____ is due to mutation in the virus RNA. This allows sporadic outbreaks, and limited epidemics. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
160. This is due to reassortment in the virus RNA. This allows little immunity to be present, and an epidemic/pandemic is seen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
161. This is the most common and most dangerous strain of the flu virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
162. Antigenic shifts occur in the _____ virus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
163. Why do we not have influenza B pandemics? |
|
Definition
THERE IS ONLY HUMAN RESIVOIRS AND NO ANIMAL RESIVOIRS |
|
|
Term
164. Primary influenza virus can cause _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
165. _____ is a condition that seems to follow certain viral infections such as influenza, especially if they are in the young and if they have been treated with aspirin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
166. _____ are second to RS as the common cause of lower respiratory tract disease in young children. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
167. The most distinctive clinical feature of HPIV-1 AND HPIV-2 is _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
168. _____ is breathing difficulty accompanied by a barking cough. It is caused by swelling around the vocal cords, and is common in infants and children, and can have a variety of causes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
169. _____ is the most common type of croup. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
170. 75% of the time croup is caused by _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
171. Poliovirus is an example of a _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
172. How many different stereotypes of the poliovirus are there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
173. The poliovirus is rapidly activated by these 4 things. |
|
Definition
1) HEAT, 2) FORMALDEHYDE, 3) CHLORINE, 4) UV LIGHT |
|
|
Term
174. The _____ virus causes polio. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
175. The entry of the polio virus is through the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
176. The poliovirus eventually affects and destroys the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
177. _____ is the most common cause of severe diarrhea among children. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
178. Is rotavirus RNA or DNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
179. The incubation period for the rotavirus disease is approximately _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
180. _____ of coxsackie viruses tend to infect the skin, and mucous membranes causing herpangina, acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis, and hand-foot-and mouth disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
181. _____ of coxsackie viruses tend to infect the heart, pleura, pancreas, and liver causing pleurodynia, myocarditis, pericarditis, and hepatitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
182. _____ is caused by coxsackie virus A, and causes a vascular rash in the oral cavity and on the pharynx, along with high fever, sore throat, malaise, and often dysphagia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
183. _____ is a common viral illness of infants and children. It is spread from person to person by direct contact with the infectious virus. |
|
Definition
HAND, FOOT, AND MOUTH DISEASE |
|
|
Term
184. Hand foot and mouth disease is caused by an _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
185. These are 4 tumor producing viruses. |
|
Definition
1) HEPATITIS B AND C, 2) EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS, 3) HHV TYPE 8, 4) HPV |
|
|
Term
186. _____ is the amount of new cases occurring in a given population at any time. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
187. How does one calculate the incidence rate? |
|
Definition
INCEDENCE RATE = NUMBER OF NEW CASES OF A DISEASE WITHIN A POPULATION / NUMBE OF PERSONS EXPOSED TO THE RISK OF DEVELOPING THE DISEASE X 1000 |
|
|
Term
188. Incedence rate is expressed per _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
189. Maternal morality rate is expressed per _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
190. What is the equation used to find the perinatal mortality rate? |
|
Definition
NUMBER OF PERINATAL DEATHS / TOTAL NUMBER OF LIVE BIRTHS X 1000 |
|
|
Term
191. _____ is a slice through a population at a given point in time that determines who has the disease, and who has not. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
192. This determines the amount of people who have new cases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
193. _____ refers to an aggregate of cases in a given area over a particular period of time, without regard to whether the number of cases is greater than expected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
194. _____ is a disease or pathogen present in a given population or geographic region at all times. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
195. _____ is an endemic in most of the children in a population, with the adults in the same population being less often affected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
196. _____ is a disease occurring suddenly in numbers far exceeding those attributable to endemic diseases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
197. _____ is a widespread epidemic, distributed through a region, country, continent, or globally. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
198. _____ is a rapidly spreading and widely diffused disease affecting large numbers of animals in a given region. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
199. The _____ level of prevention seeks to prevent new cases of a disease from developing in the population. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
200. _____ level of prevention is a process of classifying people as to whether they are likely to have a disease, seeking to reduce the number of existing cases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
201. _____level of prevention is a retard or block on the progression of a condition. It seeks to limit the disability resulting from disease and improve function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
202. This type of epidemic is when everyone is exposed at the same time. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
203. This type of epidemic is when the exposure to the source occurs at once. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
204. This type of epidemic is when the exposure to the source occurs over a period of time. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
205. This source of disease spreads gradually from person to person. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
206. This source of disease is a common source + person to person spread. |
|
Definition
|
|