Term
Mention 5 diseases that can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus! |
|
Definition
Impetigo, furunculus, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, food poisoning etc |
|
|
Term
Mention 2 toxin-mediated staphylococcal diseases! |
|
Definition
toxic shock syndrome (TSS), scalded skin syndrome, food poisoning |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 toxic products produced by Staphylococcus aureus! |
|
Definition
TSST (toxic shock syndrome toxin), enterotoxin, exfoliatin, leukocidins, hemolysins |
|
|
Term
Which is the most virulent species of Staphylococcus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which enzymatic virulence factor is characteristic exclusively for Staphylococcus aureus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can we identify the source of infection in a staphylococcal food poisoning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antibacterial drug is the first choice in serious infections caused by methycillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) strains? |
|
Definition
glycopeptides (vancomycin, teicoplanin) |
|
|
Term
In which disease is Staphylococcus saprophyticus considered an obligate pathogen! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cell constituents determine the group-specific, and the type specific antigens of Streptococcus pyogenes, respectively? |
|
Definition
group specific: C- polysaccharide type specific: M protein |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 enzymes produced by Streptococcus pyogenes that enhance the spread of the bacterial infection in the body! |
|
Definition
Streptokinase (fibrinolysin), hyaluronidase, streptodornase (DNAse) |
|
|
Term
List 3 diseases caused by Streptococcus pyogenes in the skin or in subcutaneous tissues! |
|
Definition
impetigo (pyoderma), cellulitis, erysipelas, fasciitis, myositis |
|
|
Term
Mention a toxin-mediated streptococcal disease, specify the name of the toxin and its mechanism of action! |
|
Definition
Scarlet fever - erythrogenic toxin – superantigen causing capillary destruction |
|
|
Term
Mention 2 poststreptococcal diseases! |
|
Definition
Glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever, erythema nodosum, chorea minor |
|
|
Term
Which product of Streptococcus pyogenes has a major pathogenic role in poststreptococcal diseases? |
|
Definition
M protein: may induce hypersensitivity reactions |
|
|
Term
How long does immunity against scarlet fever exist? Which immune effector mechanism is involved? |
|
Definition
Life-long immunity. Antitoxic antibodies are involved. |
|
|
Term
What is the drug of first choice in Streptococcus pyogenes infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the patomechanism of post-streptococcal rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic antibodies) |
|
|
Term
What is the patomechanism of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
type III hypersensitivity (immune complexes) |
|
|
Term
Which Streptococcus species plays major role in the meningitis of newborn babies? |
|
Definition
Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae) |
|
|
Term
What is (are) the major causative agent(s) for subacute bacterial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of Enterococci that can be used in their identification? |
|
Definition
D group polysaccharide antigen; tolerance to bile and hydrolysis of esculin (BEA medium: bile esculin agar); growth in the presence of 6,5 % NaCl |
|
|
Term
What are the specific morphologic features of Streptococcus pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
Gram positive diplococcus, lancet shape, capsule. |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 diseases that can be caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae! |
|
Definition
Pneumonia, meningitis, sinusitis, otitis media, sepsis, (ulcus serpens corneae) |
|
|
Term
What fast diagnostic procedure can be used in acute Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection? |
|
Definition
Demonstration of bacteria (intracellular in PMNs) from urethral discharge by Gram or methylene blue stain; PCR amplification of bacterial DNA |
|
|
Term
What kind of immunity develops after Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection? |
|
Definition
Partial immunity of short duration; no protection from reinfection |
|
|
Term
Specify at least 2 of the most important manifestations of disseminated gonorrhoeal infections! |
|
Definition
arthritis, skin eruptions, (endocarditis, meningitis) |
|
|
Term
What is the major manifestation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in newborns? How can it be prevented? |
|
Definition
Blenorrhoea (ophtalmia) neonatorum, silver acetate eye drops or erythromycin ointment |
|
|
Term
Mention at least 3 major virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhoeae! |
|
Definition
pilus, outer membrane proteins, LOS (lipooligosaccharide), IgA protease |
|
|
Term
Mention at least 2 major virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis! |
|
Definition
polysaccharide capsule, LPS, IgA protease |
|
|
Term
What is the site of entry of Neisseria meningitidis infection? What diseases are caused by this bacterium? |
|
Definition
The site of entry is the nasopharynx (transmitted by airborne droplets). Meningococcemia (characterized by skin lesions), and acute (purulent) bacterial meningitis. |
|
|
Term
What kinds of prophylactic measurements are available against Neisseria meningitidis infections? |
|
Definition
Chemoprophylaxis: rifampin or ciprofloxacin. Vaccination: capsular polysaccharide (types A, C, Y and W135). No vaccine against type B! |
|
|
Term
Which rapid diagnostic methods can be used in the presumptive diagnosis of purulent bacterial meningitis? |
|
Definition
Gram or methylene blue stain of CSF sediment Demonstration of bacterial capsular antigens by latex agglutination (from CSF) |
|
|
Term
Which capsular serotype is included in the vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which are the portals of entry of Bacillus anthracis? |
|
Definition
Skin, lungs, gastrointestinal tract |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 important bacteria involved in nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections! |
|
Definition
Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus faecalis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli |
|
|
Term
Mention four E. coli pathogenetic groups involved in enteric diseases! |
|
Definition
Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) Enterotoxic E. coli (ETEC) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAggEC) |
|
|
Term
What are the most important extraintestinal infections caused by E. coli? Mention at least 3 of them! |
|
Definition
urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, nosocomial wound infections |
|
|
Term
The most frequent causative agent of urinary tract infections is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which 2 diseases are caused by E. coli O157:H7? |
|
Definition
hemorrhagic colitis +/- HUS (hemolytic uraemic syndrome) |
|
|
Term
What is the reservoir of Salmonella typhi? |
|
Definition
humans (with disease, or healthy carriers) |
|
|
Term
Which bacteria cause most frequently typhoid fever and enteric fever, respectively? |
|
Definition
Salmonella typhi (typhoid) Salmonella paratyphi A, B, C (enteric fever) |
|
|
Term
When typhoid fever is suspected, what kinds of clinical samples should be used to isolate the causative agent in the first 2 weeks of the disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the route of infection in Salmonella gastroenteritis? |
|
Definition
Ingestion of contaminated food (such as eggs, cream, mayonnaise, creamed foods, etc.) containing a sufficient number of Salmonella. |
|
|
Term
Which antibacterial drugs should be administered in gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella? |
|
Definition
Antibiotics are not usually necessary unless the infection is generalised. In case of extraintestinal infection (very young, very old or immunosuppressed patients): ampicillin, gentamicin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, or ciprofloxacin. |
|
|
Term
List the 4 Shigella species causing human disease! |
|
Definition
Shigella dysenteriae, S. flexneri, S. boydii, S. sonnei |
|
|
Term
Mention 2 bacterial species belonging to different genera that cause bacillary dysentery |
|
Definition
Shigella dysenteriae, (Shigella flexneri, Shigella boydii, Shigella sonnei), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 bacterial species belonging to different genera that cause enteritis or enterocolitis! |
|
Definition
Campylobacter jejuni, Escherichia coli, Salmonella enteritidis, Shigella, Yersinia enterocolitica |
|
|
Term
Mention 2 bacteria causing intestinal infections which have animal reservoirs! |
|
Definition
Salmonella (not Typhi and Paratyphi!), Campylobacter jejuni, Yersinia enterocolitica, Listeria monocytogenes, E. coli O157 |
|
|
Term
What are the modes of transmission for the 2 different epidemiologic forms of plague? |
|
Definition
- Bubonic plague is transmitted by the bite of infected rat fleas from rats to humans. - Primary pneumonic plague spreads directly from human to human via respiratory droplets. |
|
|
Term
What are the possible portals of entry of Francisella tularensis? Specify at least 4! |
|
Definition
tick bite, mucous membranes, skin abrasions, resp. tract, gastroint. tract |
|
|
Term
How do humans acquire brucellosis? Where do the bacteria replicate in the human body? |
|
Definition
Via contaminated milk products or through skin abrasions (contact with animals). Organisms spread to the mononuclear phagocytes of the reticuloendothelial system (lymph nodes, liver, spleen, bone marrow). |
|
|
Term
What are the reservoirs of the different Brucella species, respectively? |
|
Definition
B. abortus: cattle B. melitensis: goat, sheep B. suis: swine |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of cholera toxin? |
|
Definition
Cholera toxin activates the adenylate cyclase enzyme in cells of the intestinal mucosa leading to increased levels of intracellular cAMP, and the secretion of large amount of water, Na+, K+, Cl-, and HCO3 - into the lumen of the small intestine. |
|
|
Term
What is the principle of the treatment for cholera? |
|
Definition
Rapid intravenous or oral replacement of the lost fluid and ions. (Administration of isotonic maintenance solution should continue until the diarrhea ceases.) In severe cases: administration of tetracycline (in addition to rehydration). |
|
|
Term
Mention 4 diseases caused by Haemophilus influenzae! |
|
Definition
purulent meningitis epiglottitis (obstructive laryngitis) otitis media and sinusitis pneumonia (cellulitis, arthritis) |
|
|
Term
Which disease is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi? |
|
Definition
Chancroid (soft chancre or ulcus molle) |
|
|
Term
What can serve as source of infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? |
|
Definition
Pseudomonas species are normally present in the environment and can be isolated from the skin, throat, and stool of some healthy persons. They often colonize hospital food, sinks, taps, mops, and respiratory equipment. |
|
|
Term
Mention 4 diseases that are frequently caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa! |
|
Definition
urinary tract infections wound infections (burns) pneumonia, sepsis (immunosupression) otitis externa |
|
|
Term
Mention at least 3 drugs which may be effective to treat infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa! |
|
Definition
certain penicillins: piperacillin/tazobactam combination a 3rd generation cephalosporin: ceftazidim a 4th generation cephalosporin: cefepime certain aminoglycosides: gentamycin, tobramycin, amikacin carbapenems: imipenem, meropenem |
|
|
Term
Which 2 diseases are caused by Legionella pneumophila? |
|
Definition
- legionellosis, legionnairs’ disease (atypical pneumonia) - Pontiac fever (mild, flu like illness without pneumonia) |
|
|
Term
List 3 important virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis! |
|
Definition
filamentous hemagglutinin, pertussis toxin, adenylate-cyclase toxin, tracheal cytotoxin |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 bacterium species causing food poisoning! |
|
Definition
Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium botulinum, Vibrio parahaemolyticus, (Salmonella serotypes causing enterocolitis) |
|
|
Term
Which bacterium has the highest germ number in the colon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mention 4 bacterial genera that are obligate anaerobes! |
|
Definition
Clostridium, Bacteroides, Prevotella, Porphyromonas, Fusobacterium, Actinomyces, Bifidobacterium, Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium |
|
|
Term
Which is the most important gas gangrene Clostridium? What is its main virulence factor? |
|
Definition
Clostridium perfringens alpha-toxin (lecithinase) |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 Clostridium species causing gas gangrene! How are they acquired? |
|
Definition
Clostridium perfringens, C. novyi, C. septicum, C. histolyticum, C. tertium, C. bifermentans, C. sporogenes The site of infection is usually a wound that comes into contact with Clostridium spores that germinate in an anaerobic environment. |
|
|
Term
How can be tetanus prevented in patients who have wounds possibly contaminated with C. tetani spores? |
|
Definition
Wound should be cleaned and debrided; tetanus toxoid booster injection given; tetanus immunoglobulin (TETIG) in previously unvaccinated patients and in case of heavy contamination of wound; penicillin may be added prophylactically |
|
|
Term
What are the main symptoms of tetanus infection? Specify at least 3! |
|
Definition
Spastic paralysis: muscle spasms; lockjaw(trismus), rhisus sardonicus (grimace of the face), opisthotonus (spasm of the back); respiratory paralysis |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of the botulinus toxin? |
|
Definition
Blocks release of acetylcholine in peripheral nerve synapses; |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of botulism? |
|
Definition
flaccid paralysis: diplopia (double vision), dysphagia (difficulty to swallow), dysphonia (hoarseness), respiratory paralysis. |
|
|
Term
What kind of therapy is used to treat botulism? |
|
Definition
Treatment: respiratory support + trivalent antitoxin |
|
|
Term
Explain whether or not antibiotic treatment is useful in botulism! |
|
Definition
Not, because antibiotics are not effective against preformed toxins. |
|
|
Term
What diseases may be associated with Helicobacter pylori? Specify at least 3! |
|
Definition
Gastritis, peptic and duodenal ulcers, gastric carcinoma, MALT lymphoma |
|
|
Term
What is the most important virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of the diphtheria toxin? |
|
Definition
Inhibits protein synthesis. Inhibits peptide elongation in eukaryotic ribosomes by ADP ribosylation of EF-2 (elongation factor-2) |
|
|
Term
How long does immunity against diphtheria exist? Which immune effector mechanism is involved? |
|
Definition
Antitoxic antibodies, long lasting immunity |
|
|
Term
Which assays should be done in the lab in order to prove diphtheria? |
|
Definition
Smears of the throat swab should be stained with methylene blue or Neisser stain; bacteria are cultured on Löffler’s or tellurite (Clauberg) medium; toxin production must be demonstrated by agar precipitation ( ELEK-test) |
|
|
Term
What feature of Mycobacteria make them acid fast? |
|
Definition
The cell envelope contains a high amount (60 – 70 %) of complex lipids: mycolic acid, cord factor. Once the cells are stained (by carbol-fuchsin) they resist decolorisation by acid-ethanol. |
|
|
Term
Mention 2 atypical Mycobacterium species! |
|
Definition
M. kansasii, M. marinum, M. avium-intracellulare complex, M. fortuitum-chelonei complex |
|
|
Term
How can one demonstrate the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in clinical samples? |
|
Definition
Acid-fast staining (Ziehl-Neelsen) Culture on selective media (Löwenstein-Jensen agar, liquid BACTEC medium) PCR amplification of bacterial DNA |
|
|
Term
Why is multi-drug therapy used for tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
To prevent the overgrowth of drug-resistant mutants during the long treatment period (if bacteria resistant to one drug emerge, they are most probably inhibited by the other drugs). |
|
|
Term
What is the main immune defense mechanism against Mycobacterium tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mention 3 antituberculotic drugs that are of first choice against Mycobacterium tuberculosis! |
|
Definition
isoniazid (INH), pyrazinamid, rifampin, (ethambutol, streptomycin) |
|
|
Term
What disease is caused by Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare? What patients are characteristically susceptible to infection? |
|
Definition
It causes TB, especially in immunosuppressed patients (such as AIDS patients). |
|
|
Term
What is the reservoir of Mycobacterium tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the reservoir of atypical Mycobacteria? |
|
Definition
environment (soil, water) |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 distinct forms of leprosy? |
|
Definition
Tuberculoid, lepromatous forms |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 Gram-negative bacteria belonging to different genera causing zoonosis! |
|
Definition
Brucella, Francisella tularensis, Yersinia pestis, Pasteurella |
|
|
Term
Mention 2 Gram-positive bacteria belonging to different genera causing zoonosis! |
|
Definition
Listeria monocytogenes, Bacillus anthracis, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 bacterial species belonging to different genera that are frequent causes of urinary tract infections! |
|
Definition
E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterococcus faecalis |
|
|
Term
Mention one aerobic and one anaerobic bacterium of the normal flora of the skin! |
|
Definition
aerobic: Staphylococcus epidermidis anaerobic: Propionobacterium acnes |
|
|
Term
Give two genuses for each category of bacteria! Gram positive aerobic: Gram positive anaerobic: |
|
Definition
Gram positive aerobic: Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Bacillus, Corynebacterium,… Gram positive anaerobic: Clostridium, Actinomyces, Propionibacterium, Lactobacillus |
|
|
Term
Give two genuses for each category of bacteria! Gram negativ aerobic: Gram negativ anaerobic: |
|
Definition
Gram negativ aerobic: Vibrio, Neisseria, Haemophilus… Gram negativ anaerobic: Bacteroides, Prevotella, Porphyromonas, Veillonella… |
|
|
Term
Give 2 genuses for each category of bacteria! Gram positive coccus: Gram negative coccus: Gram positive rod: |
|
Definition
Gram positive coccus: Staphylococcus, Streptococcus Gram negative coccus: Neisseria, Veillonella Gram positive rod: Clostridium, Bacillus |
|
|
Term
Give 2 genuses for each category of bacteria! Gram negative rod: Spirochetes: |
|
Definition
Gram negative rod: E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella Spirochetes: Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira |
|
|
Term
Describe the color and the shape of Clostridia in a Gram stained smear of gas gangrene exudate! |
|
Definition
Gram positive (dark blue) rod (it usually does not form spores in vivo) |
|
|
Term
Mention 2 antibiotics which can be used in the empirical treatment against Gram negative obligate anaerobic bacteria! |
|
Definition
Metronidazol, amoxicillin + clavulanic acid, imipenem |
|
|
Term
Which 3 bacterial species are the most important causative agents of neonatal (< 1 month of age) meningitis? |
|
Definition
Streptococcus agalactiae, E. coli, Listeria monocytogenes |
|
|
Term
Which 3 bacterial species are the most important causative agents of meningitis among babies (> 1 month of age) and children? |
|
Definition
Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of febris undulans (undulant fever)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the precise definition of bacterial food poisoning? |
|
Definition
Acute disease, usually with vomiting and diarrhea, caused by preformed toxins produced by bacteria contaminating the food. The period between consumption of food and the appearance of symptoms is short (< 4-6 hours). |
|
|
Term
What are the main symptoms in the different stages of syphilis? |
|
Definition
Primary syphilis: nontender ulcer (hard chancre) Secondary lesions: maculopapular rash on skin, and condylomata lata on mucous membranes Tertiary stage: granulomas (gummas), central nervous system involvement (tabes dorsalis, paralysis progressiva), cardiovascular lesions (aortitis, aorta aneurysm) |
|
|
Term
When syphilis is diagnosed in the lab, which antigens are used in the non-treponemal and in the specific treponemal antibody tests, respectively? |
|
Definition
Non-treponemal antibody tests: cardiolipin Specific treponemal antibody tests: Treponema pallidum |
|
|
Term
Which are the two different kinds of antibodies which may indicate syphilis? Give examples for tests demonstrating them! |
|
Definition
Reagin (nonspecific antibody) – RPR, VDRL (flocculation tests) Immobilisin (specific antibody) – TPHA (T. pallidum hemagglutination), FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal assay – with antibody absorption), TPI (T. pallidum immobilisation test), |
|
|
Term
What is the advantage and disadvantage of the FTA-ABS syphilis serologic test compared to the VDRL test? |
|
Definition
Specific (treponemal) tests such as FTA-ABS are more specific, but they can not be used to follow the efficacy of treatment (because the specific antibodies persist even after effective eradication of bacteria) |
|
|
Term
What is the drug of first choice in the treatment of syphilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the reservoir and what is the vector for Borrelia recurrentis? |
|
Definition
Reservoir: human; vector: louse |
|
|
Term
What is used for the laboratory diagnosis of relapsing fever? |
|
Definition
Direct demonstration of bacteria from peripheral blood smear by microscopy (Giemsa stain or dark field illumination) |
|
|
Term
What is the first characteristic symptom of Lyme disease? What is the causative agent? |
|
Definition
Erythema (chronicum) migrans. Borrelia burgdorferi. |
|
|
Term
Mention 2 antibacterial drugs that are of first choice in early stage Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
Tetracyclines, amoxicillin, cefuroxim |
|
|
Term
Which symptoms are characteristic for the early and the late phases of disease by Borrelia burgdorferi? |
|
Definition
Early: erythema chronicum migrans Late: arthritis, cardiac (myocarditis, pericarditis) and neurological involvement (meningitis, peripheral neuropathies) |
|
|
Term
What is the reservoir of Leptospira interrogans? |
|
Definition
rodents, household animals (dog, swine etc.) |
|
|
Term
Mention 2 obligate intracellular bacterial genuses! |
|
Definition
Rickettsia, Chlamydia, (Coxiella, Ehrlichia) |
|
|
Term
Mention 4 bacteria causing atypical pneumonia! |
|
Definition
Chlamydia pneumoniae Chlamydia psittaci Coxiella burnetii Mycoplasma pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila |
|
|
Term
What diseases are caused by Rickettsia prowazekii? |
|
Definition
Louse-borne epidemic typhus Recurrent form: Brill-Zinsser disease |
|
|
Term
Mention an antibacterial drug active against rickettsial infections! |
|
Definition
Tetracycline, chloramphenicol |
|
|
Term
What are the reservoir and vector of Rickettsia prowazekii infections? |
|
Definition
reservoir: human; vector: louse |
|
|
Term
What are the reservoir and vector of Rickettsia typhi infections? |
|
Definition
reservoir: rodents; vector: flea |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of epidemic typhus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can be Chlamydiae and Rickettsiae cultivated? |
|
Definition
These are obligate intracellular bacteria, can be cultured in experimental animals, embryonated eggs, and cell culture |
|
|
Term
Mention an antibacterial drug active against chlamydial infections! |
|
Definition
Tetracycline, erythromycin, azithromycin |
|
|
Term
List the serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis and the diseases caused by them! |
|
Definition
Types A,B and C: trachoma (chronic conjunctivitis) Types D-K: genital tract infections (NGU, PID), inclusion conjunctivitis Types L1-L3: lymphogranuloma venereum (STD) |
|
|
Term
Mention an antibacterial drug effective against Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections! |
|
Definition
Erythromycin, azythromycin, tetracycline |
|
|
Term
Why are penicillins not effective against Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections? |
|
Definition
Because of the absence of a cell wall, penicillins are ineffective (penicillins inhibit cell wall synthesis) |
|
|
Term
What is the Weil-Felix reaction? |
|
Definition
It is based on the cross-reaction of an antigen present in many rickettsiae with the O antigen polysaccharide found in certain Proteus vulgaris strains (OX19 OX2, OXK). The test is a tube agglutination test in which these Proteus strains are used as antigens to demonstrate antibodies from the patient’s serum sample. |
|
|
Term
mention 4 bacteria frequently causing sexually transmitted diseases (STD)! |
|
Definition
Treponema pallidum, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Haemophilus ducreyi, Chlamydia trachomatis, (Calymmatobacterium granulomatis) |
|
|
Term
Which bacterial species can cause hepatitis (jaundice)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mention 2 bacteria causing aseptic (serous) meningitis! |
|
Definition
Treponema pallidum, Leptospira interrogans, Borrelia burgdorferi |
|
|
Term
Mention a bacterial pathogen which eludes the host immune response by frequent antigenic changes! |
|
Definition
Borrelia recurrentis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of febris recurrens (recurrent fever)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does fungal dimorphism mean? |
|
Definition
The same species is capable of existing in two morphological forms (yeast or mold), depending upon enviromental conditions (temperature, nutrients). |
|
|
Term
Which are the 4 fungal species causing systemic infections? |
|
Definition
Coccidioides immitis, Histoplasma capsulatum, Blastomyces dermatitidis, Paracoccidioides brasiliensis |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 species causing opportunistic fungal infections! |
|
Definition
Candida albicans, Cryptococcus neoformans, Aspergillus fumigatus, Mucor spp., Rhizopus spp. |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 diseases caused by dermatophytons! |
|
Definition
Tinea corporis, tinea capitis, onychomycosis, tinea barbae |
|
|
Term
Mention 3 fungal genera belonging to the dermatophytons! |
|
Definition
Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton |
|
|
Term
What is the route of transmission of Sporothrix schenkii? |
|
Definition
Traumatically introduced into the skin. |
|
|
Term
Mention a Candida infection associated with mucosal surfaces! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which species is the most important causative agent of fungal meningitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mention 3 manifestations of Candida albicans infections that are characteristic in AIDS patients? |
|
Definition
generalised oral candidiasis (GOC), oesophagitis, endocarditis |
|
|
Term
What are the different forms of pulmonary aspergillosis? |
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Definition
1. Aspergillus ball (in preformed cavities) 2. invasive aspergillosis (in immunosuppression) 3. allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis |
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Term
What is the usual source of infection in systemic mycoses? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the usual site of entry of fungi causing systemic mycoses? |
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Definition
respiratory tract (inhalation) |
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Term
Which morphological form of Coccidioides immitis can be found in the human body? |
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Definition
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Term
Which human pathogenic fungus has a capsule? |
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Definition
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