Term
eight parts of the clinical lab |
|
Definition
routuine chemistry hematology immunology immunohematology endocrine theraputic drug monitoring toxicology urinalysis |
|
|
Term
what are the 10 parts to a rotuine chemisty |
|
Definition
glucose HBA1C pre-albumin kidney function protein C-reactive protein electrolytes cardiac lipid liver function |
|
|
Term
what are the two renal function tests |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what electrolytes are measured during rotuine chemistry |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the three liver function tests, why |
|
Definition
albumin bilirubin prothrobin time
the liver will not produce albumin or clotting factors when failing, it will not remove bilirubin from the blood if damaged |
|
|
Term
what are the three liver damage tests, what type of damage do they indicate, which is the best |
|
Definition
ALT: hepatocyte damage (hepatitis), most sensitive and specific enzyme test for the liver
AST: hepatocyte damage (hepatitis)
ALP: aminotransferase alkalinephospherase. duct damage (stones)
GGT: do if you have elevated ALP to determine where it is coming from. indicates duct damage |
|
|
Term
what are the three cardiac function tests |
|
Definition
CK-MB, troponin, myglobin |
|
|
Term
what do leukocytes and neutrophil levels indicate for, explain |
|
Definition
neutrophils indicate bacterial infection leukocytes indicate viral infection
50% of systemic infection has low leukocytes and neutrophils but the differential will have a high WBC count |
|
|
Term
what is the most common lab and hematologytest |
|
Definition
Complete blood count (CBC) |
|
|
Term
what is tested for in theraputic drug monitoring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what does IgM in a lab indicate |
|
Definition
recent of acute infection (dissipears later in infection) |
|
|
Term
what does IgG in a lab indicate |
|
Definition
past or convalescent infection (replaces IgM) |
|
|
Term
how is a titer done, how is it read |
|
Definition
a patient comes in and you do a titer and see IgM or the antigen and you know they have the disease right now
if you dont see IgM or antigen but you see IgG you dont know if they came in contact in the past or still have it and production just switched over.
do a titer today and obtain the dilution level
do a titer later and if there is a 4x increase in IgG they have the disease now, if there isnt they have just been exposed to it before |
|
|
Term
how is haeatitis diagnosed |
|
Definition
IgM positive or 4 fold change in IgG titer |
|
|
Term
what would a blood test for hep B immunization look like |
|
Definition
hep B surface antigen antibody ONLY (anti-HBsAg) |
|
|
Term
immunohematology two parts |
|
Definition
blood typing and matching blood component harvesting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the best marker for diagnosis of a UTI, how did that marker get there |
|
Definition
leukocyte esterase leukocytes spill over |
|
|
Term
what three things can be tested for on a urine wet prep |
|
Definition
trichomonas and yeast - cervix pregnacy testing |
|
|
Term
finish the statement: if you have acuracy you have.... |
|
Definition
if you have acuracy you have percision you can have percision without acuracy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
is it correct? are the arrows in the center of the target? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
is it reproducable? are the arrows grouped? |
|
|
Term
which is more important, accuracy or percision, why |
|
Definition
percision because the result can be corrected to become accurate if needed |
|
|
Term
why is it bad to do lots of lab tests, give some numbers to qualify your answer |
|
Definition
the more tests the more chance the results will be wrong
1 test 5% chance 2 tests 10% 3 tests 14% 12 tests 46% |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
those with the disease and need treatment how likley the test will detect a sick person |
|
|
Term
how is sensitivity calculated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the two components to sensitivity, define them |
|
Definition
true positive: patient is sick and tests positive
false negative: patient is sick and tests negative |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
measure of those without the disease
how likley does a negative test indicate no disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the two components of specificity, define them |
|
Definition
true negative: patient isnt sick and tests negative
false positive: patient isnt sick and tests positive |
|
|
Term
give four examples of wet preps and what they test for |
|
Definition
cervical swab with saline: trich (strawberry cervix), and candida (yeast)
feces + iodine = fecal parasites like giardia intestinalis, giardia duodenalis
feces + methylene blue = fecal leukocytes like in inflammatory condition (usually low) or INVASIVE condition like shigella
KOH prep = dermatophyte fungi (dissolves all but hyphe) |
|
|
Term
explain the process of a gram stain |
|
Definition
make smear and heat fix add crystal violet and sit 5-10s add iodine (fixing mortant) decolorize with alcohol gram positive cells will retain purple color counterstain with safranin red to stain non-gram postive cells |
|
|
Term
what are some generalizations to remember which are gram positive |
|
Definition
all cocci except neisseria and morxella all sporeforms are gram positive rods |
|
|
Term
what stuff does a giemsa (wright) stain test for (8) |
|
Definition
blood smear for WBC differential blood borne pathogens malaria thalciprum babesiosis parasitic worms filarial and trichinella giant cell multinucleated viruses |
|
|
Term
malaria: worse kind, second worse, how does it live, how can it be identified |
|
Definition
thalciprum is worst plasmodium is second
hides in RBC and liver
trophozoites show rings |
|
|
Term
thalciprum: what is it, what does it do to the body 3), what disease does it cause |
|
Definition
malaria strain
lyses RBC, pee blood, life threatning
black water fever |
|
|
Term
babesois: where does it come from, how can it be identified |
|
Definition
mouse gets the disease, deer or black leg tick bites mouse, tick bites us
maltease cross on RBC (different from malaria!) |
|
|
Term
what does trichrome test for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what does acid fast mostly test for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what organisms are partially acid fast (4) |
|
Definition
nocardia legionella cryptosporidium isospora cysts (protozoa) |
|
|
Term
explain how an acid fast stain is done, what are the two types |
|
Definition
make smear and fix then add carbolfuschin
if doing siehl nelsen add heat, if doing kinyoun dont
decolorize with acid alcohol and acid fast retain the dye counterstain everything else with methylene blue acid fast cells are "red snappers" |
|
|
Term
what is another name for the acid fast fluorescent stain, what is the benifit, what does it look for, how does it work |
|
Definition
auramine-rhodamine 99% specific mostly for TB
uses acid alcohol to decolorize all by mycolic acid
uses rhodamine instead of carbofuschion |
|
|
Term
how long does a culture take in general |
|
Definition
slow minimum 18 hours / overnight viral cultures take days because hospitals dont do them |
|
|
Term
what are the challenges with cultures |
|
Definition
slow different requirements per microbe some stuff isnt culturable viruses are hard to culture positive culture is more meaningful than negative. |
|
|
Term
what are the microbes that cannot be cultured 93) |
|
Definition
chyamydia, syphilis, leprosy |
|
|
Term
why are viruses hard to culture |
|
Definition
require cells to live in diagnose with sigs and symptoms |
|
|
Term
general purpuse agar: how does it work, what does it grow, 2 examples |
|
Definition
no inhibitors non-fastidious pathogens and flora
tryptic soy and sheep blood |
|
|
Term
enriched bacteria: how does it work, what does it grow, one example |
|
Definition
extra supplements for fastidious bacteria
chocolate agar |
|
|
Term
chocolate agar: what is it made of, what does it do, 2 examples |
|
Definition
selective agar made of charcoal, blood and antibiotics
lysed blood gets rid of inhibitors of growth
grows bordetella pertussis and bordetella parapertussis |
|
|
Term
differential agar; how does it work, one example |
|
Definition
has visual indicators, often selective
sheep agar for hemolysis (grows everything) |
|
|
Term
differential selective agar: how does it work, two types |
|
Definition
inhibits with dyes, antibiotics, or salts
MacConkey, Mannitol salt |
|
|
Term
MacConkey: what does it grow, what does it inhibit |
|
Definition
grows gram negative rods inhibits gram positive cocci detects lactose fermentation in purple
detects lactose fermentation in purple: klevisella pneumpnia, E. coli, enterobaccter colace |
|
|
Term
what is the only gram negative lactose fermenter, what are the two other lactose fermenters that show up on MacConkey |
|
Definition
E. coli
klebsiella pneumpnia, enterobacter cloace |
|
|
Term
mannitol salt: what does it grow, what does it inhibit, how is it interperteted |
|
Definition
grows gram positive cocci inhibits gram negative rods
mannitol fermentrs will turn agar yellow (staph aureus)
coagulase negative staph make clear colonies (cannot ferment mannitol) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
staph aureus turns Mannirol salt yellow then grows on oxicilin to proove resistance |
|
|
Term
charcoal blood agar (regan lowe): what does it show, how is it interperted |
|
Definition
bordetella pertussia a: partial digestion b: total digestion gamma: no digestion, no hemolysis |
|
|
Term
what rules are there for blood collection (6) |
|
Definition
clean with betadine or chlorhexidine) EtOH does nothing) collect from two sites three times collect before starting antibiotics never draw from ports or lines draw distal to port or line COLLECT BEFORE STARTING ANTIBIOTICS |
|
|
Term
what is the most likley blood contaminant |
|
Definition
coagnegative staph (S. epidermiditis) |
|
|
Term
what are the 5 most likley blood pathogens |
|
Definition
s. aureus, S. pneumoniae, E. coli, K. pneumonia, P. aeruginosa |
|
|
Term
compare A and B hemolytic |
|
Definition
B is a pathogen A isnt except for strep pneumo |
|
|
Term
optichin: use, interpertation |
|
Definition
used in cell culture strep pneumo is sensitive other viridans are resistant |
|
|
Term
bacitracin: use, interpertation |
|
Definition
differentiate group A and B strep group a is susceptibe group b is resistant (kills babies) |
|
|
Term
cAMp test: how is it interperted, what is the point |
|
Definition
distinguish between group a and b strep a is negative b is positive arrow head |
|
|
Term
what organism is caralase positive, how can you tell |
|
Definition
staph converts H2O2 to water and O2 making bubbles |
|
|
Term
what organisms are catalase negative |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what organisms are coagulase positive |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what organisms are coagulase negative, where are they found |
|
Definition
non staph aureus staph Staph epi: common on skin and blood pathogen staph saprophyticus, UTI |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
minimal inhibitor concentration lowest level that inhibits bacterial replication |
|
|
Term
minimal bacteriacidal concentration: define, how is it done |
|
Definition
lowest level that kills bacteria (homocidial)
take MIC, plate it, at lowest concentration no growth means min level of drug |
|
|
Term
kirby bauer disk: how does it work |
|
Definition
measure diameter of zones of inhibition around antibiotic NEED KEY - zone diameter is dependant on dose etc
not quantative, no sensitivity without key |
|
|
Term
what WBC are granulocytes |
|
Definition
neutrophils eosinophils basophils |
|
|
Term
what WBC are agranulocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the nucleucs like in neutrophils, what are the the two common types of neutrophils |
|
Definition
multilobed polymorphic and segmented |
|
|
Term
what are the functions of neutrophils |
|
Definition
phagocytosis of baceria, debris, bing things. then they die |
|
|
Term
bandemia: aka, what does it mean, what does it suggest clinically |
|
Definition
aka: shift to the left immature neutrophils come into the blood because they die when they eat and the marrow has to replace them (its ok for 2-3% of them to be immature normally) sugests trauma, bactria, leukemia |
|
|
Term
what does lots of segmented neutrophils suggest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
eosinophils: color of granules, functions (4) |
|
Definition
red granules
increase allergies fight parasites (worms) induces histamine release minor phagocyosis |
|
|
Term
basophils: granule color, function |
|
Definition
purple granules contain and release histamine |
|
|
Term
lymphocytes: what types of cells, what do they do, when do you see more lymphocytes |
|
Definition
T cells: immune regulation and cytotoxic functions B cells: make antibodies null cells: cytotoxic cells increase in VIRAL infection |
|
|
Term
monocytes: what do they do |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what does more than 5 segs mean for the neutrophil, what does it mean clinically |
|
Definition
hypersegmented neutrophils megaloblastic anemia - B12 and folate deficiency |
|
|
Term
what does a hematocrit represent |
|
Definition
percent packed RBC vomule |
|
|
Term
what are the three RBC indices, explain them |
|
Definition
mean cell volume (MCV): average RBC size MCH MCHC - mean cell Hb concentration: abverage Hb concentration |
|
|
Term
define leukocytosis, what is the most common cause |
|
Definition
increased WBC - commonly indicates infection neutrophilia is most commonly the cause |
|
|
Term
define lymphocytosis, what does it suggest clinically |
|
Definition
increased lymphocytes points to viral infection |
|
|
Term
define neutrophilia, what does it point to clinically |
|
Definition
increased neutrophils points to bacterial infection |
|
|
Term
define leukopenia, what does it point to clinically |
|
Definition
decreased WBC commonly points to a big bacterial or viral infection moderate decrease: viral large decrease: bacterial (sepsis) or marrow supression
lymphocytopenia, neutrophils |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
define neutropenia, what will this end up leading to |
|
Definition
decreased neutrophils left shift will occur in the future |
|
|
Term
how is total neutropil count determined |
|
Definition
add all the forms of neutropils together, no matter their level of maturation |
|
|
Term
what is flow cytometry, how does it work, what does it look for |
|
Definition
flourescently tagged monoclonial antibodies attach to specific cell membrane proteins to sort, separate, and store them
can stain surface markers to get good counts, especially CD4 for HIV |
|
|
Term
when do we treat HIV, when is AIDS classified, whan does the risk for PCP infection ncrease |
|
Definition
treat at <350 CD4 <200 CD4 diagnosed with AIDs for life and INCREASED PCP RISK |
|
|
Term
what lab tests are done for spinal fluid analysis |
|
Definition
CBC, urine culture (UTI can get to blood and brain), blood cultures, LP |
|
|
Term
how is WBC in CSF interperted |
|
Definition
increased neutrophils: bactreial increased lymphocytes: viral eraly meningitis: strange levels of WBC |
|
|
Term
how is glucose intereperted in CSF analysis |
|
Definition
bacterial infection: CSF glucose < 1/2BG viral: CSF glucose > 1/2BG |
|
|
Term
protein interpertation in the CSF |
|
Definition
meningitis increases CSF protein bacterial will have extremely high protein slightly high in viral |
|
|
Term
what is the general rule for the difference between viral and bacterial meningitis |
|
Definition
viral is more mild, lymphocytes increased |
|
|
Term
where can ALT be found, what does it indicate |
|
Definition
specific to the liver, hepatocyte function |
|
|
Term
where can AST be found, what does it tell us |
|
Definition
liver, muscle, heart tells liver function, heart attack marker, hepatocyte function |
|
|
Term
what is GGT, what does it indicate, where is it found |
|
Definition
gamma-glutamyl transaminase, gives info about the duct liver ductal cells can indicate chronic alcoholism |
|
|
Term
where is ALP found, what does it indicate |
|
Definition
bone, placenta, kidney, liver ductal damage |
|
|
Term
what are the liver damage tests, why do they indicate damage |
|
Definition
ALT, AST, GGT, ALP because when the cell dies they are released |
|
|
Term
what are the acute phase proteins |
|
Definition
C reactive protein, fibrinogen, mannan binding lectin (MBL) |
|
|
Term
C reactive protein: what is it, what does it do |
|
Definition
phosphorylchiline binds abcterial surface opsonizes bacteria and activates complement |
|
|
Term
fibrinogen: when does it appear, what does it do |
|
Definition
inflammation increases it and causes stickey RBC which increases ESR |
|
|
Term
mannan binding lectin: what does it do |
|
Definition
binds to bacteria surface mannose and opsonizes them activates complement |
|
|
Term
how are acute phase proteins made |
|
Definition
macrophages make IL-6 which acts on hepatocytes to make them |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
titer Moa, how is it read |
|
Definition
patient comes in and you see IgG so you dont know if they have the disease in the past or just recently moved from IgM to IgG production
acute sera: do a titer now and get dilution level
convalescent sera: do titer later too. if there is a 4x increase then they currently have the disease if there isnt an increase they were just exposed to it before |
|
|
Term
what are the two parts of a titer, explain them |
|
Definition
acute sera: titer taken at time of initial sytpms convalescent sera: titer taken on road to recovery |
|
|
Term
what is the difference between IgM and IgG when thinking clinically, what is their relationship |
|
Definition
IgM shows recent or acute infections IgG shows past infection or vaccine (2-4 weeks later) 4 fold or more increase in IgG = 1 IgM |
|
|
Term
viral window: define, what is the issue ir brings |
|
Definition
time between the appearnce of viremia and synthesis of IgM if you test at this time a positive patient could get a false negative |
|
|
Term
what are the ways to declaire an acute infection |
|
Definition
finding of IgM or a 4 fold or more change in IgG |
|
|
Term
what does ELISA stand for, what is the point |
|
Definition
enzyme linked immunosorbant assay detect or measure immunoglobins or antibodies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
enzyme or reporter molecule is linked to an antibody covalently antigen antibody binding occurs (immunosorbant part) bound reporter gives signal and produces assay |
|
|
Term
what are the three uses of ELISA |
|
Definition
detect antigen (hormone, enzyme, microbe antigen drug) detect antibody (infectious agent of exposure, HIV) tests variety of fluids (blood, spinal fluid, urine, enivrionmental) |
|
|
Term
what are the 3 types of ELISA |
|
Definition
direct, indirect, sandwhich |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
probe for antigen with a single labeled antibody looks directly at the cause of the infection (antigen) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
probe for antibodies to an antigen labeled antibody lebeled antibody binds to unlabeled antibody lookes at antibodies involved |
|
|
Term
how is an indirect ELISA done |
|
Definition
plastic contains bound antigen
we want to see if they have an antibody. so add patient serum to antigenic site (epitpoe)
now we have this antibody bound to antigen but we can't see it. so we need to add anti-human antibodies with an enzyme or something on it that gives a color reaction (reporter enzyme)
add a substrate that changes the color of only bound reporter enzymes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
antigen is sandwiched between two usually looking for antigens |
|
|
Term
percipitatation curve general idea |
|
Definition
depending on the level of antibody in the solution the curve will shift |
|
|
Term
three zones of the percipitation curve, explain each |
|
Definition
prosone: antibody excess, antibodies left over aftr formation of antigen antibody complexes. very high antibodies will produce a negative result
equlivance: no free antigens or antibodies, remain in solution after certerfugation of antigen antibody compled (max percipitation)
antigen excess: high levels of free antigen in solution after formation of anrigen antibody complex |
|
|
Term
what zone of the percipitation curve shows max percipitation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how is the percipitation curve interpertered |
|
Definition
if the screen is negative, dilute the serum down and retest if the pt seems clinically positive
if it is popsitive the first test was false negative due to prozone!! |
|
|
Term
western blot: how does it work, what does it test, |
|
Definition
multi target indirect elisa on nutricelluose paper protein detection HIV test conformation |
|
|
Term
what antibodies will someone who has never been in contact with HebB will that have |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what antibodies will someone with HepB have |
|
Definition
surface antigen plus more parts of hep B antigens |
|
|
Term
what are the three morphologies of gram positive cells |
|
Definition
diplococci, staphlococci, streptococci |
|
|
Term
whiff test: how do you do it, what are the results, what do they tell you |
|
Definition
add KOH to cervical swab if there is a strong amine odor it is trich or more likley bacterial vaginosis (garderella vaginalis) |
|
|
Term
what microbe is mixed up with malaria, what can help distinguish it |
|
Definition
babesia - maltease cross in RBC |
|
|
Term
what is the relationship between MIC and MBC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are three situations where neutrophils are decreased |
|
Definition
viral infections, overwhelming bacterial infections, some leukemias |
|
|
Term
what do north south and west blots test for |
|
Definition
west: protein north: RNA and mRNA south: DNA |
|
|
Term
pyogenic bacterial meningitis: appearance of CSF, PMN amount, lymph amount, protein amount, glucose amount |
|
Definition
yellow turbid
increased PMN
slight increase or normal lymphs
increased protein
decreased glucose |
|
|
Term
viral meningitis: appearance of CSF, PMN amount, lymph amount, protein amount, glucose amount |
|
Definition
clear CSF
slight increase or normal PMN
increased lymphs
slight increase or normal protein
normal glucose |
|
|
Term
TB meningitis; appearance of CSF, PMN amount, lymph amount, protein amount, glucose amount |
|
Definition
yellowish and viscous CSF
slight increase or normal PMN
increased lymphs
slight increase or normal protein
decreased glucose |
|
|
Term
fungal meningitis: appearance of CSF, PMN amount, lymph amount, protein amount, glucose amount |
|
Definition
yellow and viscous CSF
slight increase or normal PMN
increased lymphs
slight increased or normal proteins
normal or decreased glucose |
|
|
Term
what is the normal amount of urine produced in adults per minute and per day. what is the estimated amounts |
|
Definition
1.2 ml/min and 1700 ml/day
1 ml/min and 1440 ml/day |
|
|
Term
what word describes no urine? what amount qualifies this? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what word describes too little urine? what amount qualifies this? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what word describes too much urine? what amount qualifies this? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what does GFR stand for, what does it tell us |
|
Definition
glomerular filtration rate |
|
|
Term
what two values reflect the GFR |
|
Definition
BUN/creatinine creatinine clearance |
|
|
Term
what does kidney function loss do to the GFR and the two values that reflex GFR |
|
Definition
decreases GFR, increases blood BUN and creatinine |
|
|
Term
define creatinine clearance |
|
Definition
plasma volume cleared of creatinine per minute |
|
|
Term
how is creatinine clearance calculated, explain how this value then relates to renal function |
|
Definition
((140-age) x kg x (0.85 if female)) / (72 x serum Cr)
CrCl ~ % renal function |
|
|
Term
how can creatinine clearance be estimated, why can't you use this all the time |
|
Definition
100 / serum creatinine little old lady exception (because real formula uses age and weight and if it isnt a normal ratio it throws it off too much) |
|
|
Term
calculate the CrCl of a 30 yo diabetic female at 80 kg and serum Cr 1.1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
calculate a 85 yo diabetic female CrCL at 60 kg and serum Cr 1.1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the three types of genitourinary tract analysis |
|
Definition
macroscopic microscopic culture |
|
|
Term
what are the two parts to the macroscopic urine exam |
|
Definition
color and appearance chemical analysis (dip stick) |
|
|
Term
what are the 10 parts to a urine chemical analysis |
|
Definition
glucose bilirubin ketones specific gravity blood pH protein urobillinogen nitrate leukocyte esterase |
|
|
Term
what are the 2 parts of a urine microscopic exam, what three things are they looking for |
|
Definition
high power and low power exam
cells, casts, crystals |
|
|
Term
what urine test show diabetes (all by itself), how |
|
Definition
hyperglycemia on the glucose test |
|
|
Term
what urine test shows liver function |
|
Definition
bilirubin is the crude test for liver function |
|
|
Term
what three things can ketones in the urine tell you |
|
Definition
ketonurie = prolonged fasting or low carb diet diabetic ketoacidosis |
|
|
Term
how is diabetic ketoacidosis diagnosed from urine |
|
Definition
ketones, hyperglycemia, acidic urine |
|
|
Term
what can specific gravity tell us |
|
Definition
high= dehydrated low= hydrated |
|
|
Term
what can acidic urine tell us |
|
Definition
high protein diet, metabolic acidosis |
|
|
Term
what is the normal pH of the urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are 3 causes of proteinuria in urine |
|
Definition
functional renal: glomerulonephritis post renal: cystitis |
|
|
Term
what does urobilinogen in the urine indicate |
|
Definition
increased hepatic processing of bilirubin |
|
|
Term
what do nitrites in the urine indicate |
|
Definition
infection. not all infections make nitrites but all E. coli does |
|
|
Term
what factors of a urine dip stick can tell us about infection |
|
Definition
leukocyte eserase is the most sensitive indicator for UTI
nitrates present when it is E. coli |
|
|
Term
why is leukocyte esterase the most sensitivie indicator for UTI, what is the down fall |
|
Definition
you can have leukocytes without an infection but you cant have an infection without leukocytes
WBC must always be lysed first to release leukocyte esterase so compare with microscopic exam and urine culture |
|
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Term
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Definition
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|
Term
what is found in the urine when someone has pyelonephritis |
|
Definition
leukocyte and granular casts (indicate kidney damage, Tamm horsfall casts are ok to have some)
renal tubular cells indicate kidney damage (it is ok to have epithelial cells) |
|
|
Term
what is the most common form of acute glomerulonephritis |
|
Definition
post strep glomerulonephritis in children comes after srep throat or skin strep infection (impetigo) |
|
|
Term
what is the #1 cause of UTI |
|
Definition
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|
Term
what is the #2 cause of UTI |
|
Definition
schistosoma haematobium: parasite that infects bladder and causes hematuria |
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|
Term
what are 5 qualifications to be considered an uncomplicated UTI |
|
Definition
healthy (no acute illness either: fever, nausea, vomit, flank pain) adult (>12 yo) female non-pregnant structurally and functionally normal UT |
|
|
Term
what is the diangosis process of an uncomplicated UTI |
|
Definition
dipstick or urinalysis, no culture or lab tests |
|
|
Term
what type of infection does a uncomplicated UTI get, what is the duration |
|
Definition
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|
Term
what qualifies someone as a complicated UTI (11) |
|
Definition
structural or functionally abnormal UT foley cathater renal caliculi bacteriema cystitis of long deruation hemorrhagic cystitis pregnacy comorbidities all males urosepsis/hospitalization pyelonephritis |
|
|
Term
how is a complitated UTI diagnosed (3) |
|
Definition
urinalysis, urine culture, labs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
what are the 4 symptoms of pyelonephritis, which are the hallmark ones |
|
Definition
fever and chills are hall mark vomiting, headache |
|
|
Term
what is used to diagnose pyelonephritis (4) |
|
Definition
urinalysis, urine culture, CBC, chemistry |
|
|
Term
what are the two complications of pyelonephritis |
|
Definition
renal abscess what wont respond to antibodies nephrolithiasis: stones with severe flank pain |
|
|
Term
when should nephrolithiasis be suspected in a UTI patient |
|
Definition
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|
Term
when should renal abscess be suspected in a UTI patient |
|
Definition
pt not improving with antibiotics |
|
|
Term
what organism can cause kidney stones, how is this organisms identified, how does it cause stones |
|
Definition
proteus mirabilis: makes urease and shifts the pH upward to percipitate Mg-Ammonium-phosphate and produce struvite stones |
|
|
Term
what are symptoms of prostatitis (12) |
|
Definition
pain: perineum, lower abdomen, testicles, penis pain with ejaculation blood in semen bladder obstruction fever, chills, dysuria, malaise, myalgia |
|
|
Term
how is prostatitis diagnosed (6) |
|
Definition
DRE: edematous tender prostate increased PST urinalysis urine culture two cup test |
|
|
Term
how are lab results for clean catch interperted |
|
Definition
>10^5 cfu/mL is infected <10>5 cfu/mL could be contaminated more than one bacteria is probablly contaminated |
|
|
Term
how are lab results for suprabubic or catheter interperted |
|
Definition
any bacteria is infection |
|
|
Term
what are the 2 main bacteria that cause commonity acquired UTI |
|
Definition
E. coli coagulase negative staph saphrociticus |
|
|
Term
what is the main cause of hospital acquired UTI, what is the concern here |
|
Definition
proteus mirabilis
beware of resistance |
|
|
Term
how is proteus mirabilis diagnosed |
|
Definition
when grown on plate it swarms it and grows over the entire thing |
|
|
Term
what is schistoma hematoboium classified as, what does it cayse |
|
Definition
termatode parasite
hematuria which appears in pyleonephritis and cystitis |
|
|
Term
what protozoa cause STIs (1) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what fungi cause STIs (1) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what types of HPV cause warts (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what types of HPV cause cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how are the drips categorized, why |
|
Definition
chlydmia cannot be cultured
so there are gonorrhea and non gonococcal urethritis |
|
|
Term
what are the non-conococcal urethritis (2) |
|
Definition
chalmydia and mycoplasmas |
|
|
Term
what is the number one STI by incidence |
|
Definition
most new cases in a year HPV |
|
|
Term
what is the number one STI by prevelence |
|
Definition
most poeple with the disease: HPV |
|
|
Term
what is the number one bacterial cause of STI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the rule for categorizing HPV |
|
Definition
all warts are caused by HPV, not all HPV causes warts. HPV that causes cancer does not cause warts |
|
|
Term
what is the most cause of an abnormal pap, why is this not a super huge concern |
|
Definition
HPV. most people come in contact with HPV and most will auctally clear it. so it is only life long in theory |
|
|
Term
what are the 3 signs of HPV |
|
Definition
asymptomatic - most common warts cancer: cervical, anal, penile |
|
|
Term
what types of HPV does gardisil protect against, what symptoms are you avoiding by that |
|
Definition
16, 18: anogenital cancer 6, 11: anogenital warts 6, 16: oropharyngeal warts |
|
|
Term
what are the causes of nongonoccal urethritis and gonococcal urethritis (full names) |
|
Definition
chlamydia trachomatis genital mycoplasmas: ureaplasma, mycoplasma genitalium
gonogoccal: neisseria gonorrhea |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
thayer margin agar: antibiotics and chocolate agar. inhibits normal flora, selects for gonorrhea (gram negative intracellular diplococci) |
|
|
Term
chlamydia: full name, symptoms in names (3), symptoms in females (4) |
|
Definition
chlamydia trachomatis
males: watery discharge, painful urination, 50% asymptomatic!!
females: vaginal discharge, burning, itching, 75% asymptomatic!! |
|
|
Term
what happens if you dont treat chlamydia (7) |
|
Definition
PID and infertility!! cervicitis urethritis venereum bubos and abscess on groin rectum pharynx |
|
|
Term
why does chlamydia cause infertility (3) |
|
Definition
causes PID, scars fallopian tube, inflammation |
|
|
Term
what are concerns for a pregnant mother with chlamydia (2) |
|
Definition
can give conjunctivitis or pneumonia to the baby |
|
|
Term
what is a sign on the physical exam for chylamidia in a female (2) |
|
Definition
mucopurulent cervicitis (friable cervix) |
|
|
Term
what are the signs of gonorrhea in man (3) and women (4) |
|
Definition
men: 50% asymptomatic, yellow pus, painful urination
females: 80% asymptomatic, vaginal discharge, painful urination, PID |
|
|
Term
how do you test for gonorrhea (4) |
|
Definition
bacterial culture: men and women gram stain: men nucleic acid hybridization DNA amplification assay |
|
|
Term
why can only men be gram stained for diplococci, what does it look like |
|
Definition
gram negative intracellular diplococci is diagnostic for gonorrhea in males
women have normal flora (neisseria lactima, neisseria other) intra and extracellularly |
|
|
Term
what can PID be secondary to (2) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the non-STI vaginal discharges (3), why are they called this |
|
Definition
could be STI but can come from other sources too
trichomonis, candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis |
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|
Term
trichomonis: is there an odor, is there vaginal tenderness, is there discharge, what does it look like |
|
Definition
sometimes there is an odor there is vaginal tenderness frothy yellow-green discharge |
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|
Term
candidiasis: is there an odor, is there vaginal tenderness, is there discharge, what does it look like |
|
Definition
no odor vaginal tenderness white curdy discharge |
|
|
Term
bacterial vaginosis: is there an odor, is there vaginal tenderness, is there discharge, what does it look like |
|
Definition
fishy amine odor no vaginal tenderness homogenous gray discharge |
|
|
Term
trhciomonas: pH changes, epithelial cell changes, wep prep findings |
|
Definition
pH > 4.7 normal epithelial cells swimmers on wet prep |
|
|
Term
candidisis: pH changes, epithelial cell changes, wep prep findings |
|
Definition
pH <4.5 normal epithelial cells budding yeast on wet prep |
|
|
Term
bacterial vaginosis: pH changes, epithelial cell changes, wep prep findings |
|
Definition
pH > 4.7 clue cells: glittery bacilli sticking to epithelium |
|
|
Term
what is the whiff test, how is it done, what does it tell you |
|
Definition
add a drop of KOH to vaginal sample. strong fishy amine loke odor beans bacterial vaginosis 70% of the time and the rest is trich |
|
|
Term
what is the normal vaginal pH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
trichomonas: full name, appearance |
|
Definition
trichomonas vaginalis microscopic pear shaped flagellated ptotozoa |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
discharge: smelly, green-yellow, foamy itching |
|
|
Term
how does someone get secondary syphilis, when does it happen, how long does it last, what are the signs (3) |
|
Definition
systemic dissemination of sphirochetes
2-8 weeks after chancere, lasts 2-10 weeks
lymphadenopathy, rash on palms and soles, mucous patches |
|
|
Term
how does someone get tertiary syphilis, what are the signs |
|
Definition
latency of 1-30 years
paralytic dementia, aortic anrueysm, aortic insuffiency, tabes dorsalis, gummas |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
large internal and external sores seen in syphilis |
|
|
Term
syphilis: incubation time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the signs of primary syphilis (4), what is the concern in this time |
|
Definition
early: macule (visble) > papule (palpable) > ulcer later: painless indurated ulcer with smooth firm borders (VERY INFECTIOUS) |
|
|
Term
what are the symptoms of genital herpes (4) |
|
Definition
vesicles > painfil ulcers > crusting likley reoccurance |
|
|
Term
what type of herpes causes genital ulcers |
|
Definition
if you have HSV1 in genital region it is more mild and will likley only show up once than come back
HSV2 is more common and more symptomatic |
|
|
Term
what type of herpes causes oral ulcers |
|
Definition
HSV2 is more mild and will likley only show up once than come back
HSV1 is more symptomatic and reoccurs more |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
what are the complications of herpes (3) |
|
Definition
neonatal transmission: to C section enhanced Hiv transmission: more spreading to others psychosocial issues |
|
|
Term
which STDs cause cancer (3) |
|
Definition
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|
Term
which STDs have a vaccine (2) |
|
Definition
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|
Term
which STDs can be prevented by a condomn |
|
Definition
all can be prevented but not eliminated |
|
|
Term
what are 6 things that can cause acquired immunodeficiency |
|
Definition
burns iatrogenic: corticosteroids, chemotherapy malignancies malnutrtion HIV |
|
|
Term
what parts does HIV need to attach to people, how does it work |
|
Definition
GP160 splits into GP41 and GP120
GP120 attaches to the CD4 receptor. GP41, CXR/CXCR stabilize and pull the virus in
GP41 injects the virons in like a syringe |
|
|
Term
how do we identify HIV (2) |
|
Definition
we look for antibodies to P24 core capsid antigen find GP160 |
|
|
Term
what types of cells does HIV attach to(4) |
|
Definition
macrophages, monocytes, dendeitic cells and CD4 cells all have CD4 receptors or Fc gamma receptors that are very simillar |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cell that can make viruses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the AIDS defining diseases we need to know |
|
Definition
candidiasis of the esophagus, bronchi, trachea, or lungs
cryptococcus in the CNS
Karposki's sarcoma
pneymocystis juvoreci pneumonia (PCP) |
|
|
Term
what is the most common way for a male to get HIV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the most common way for a female to get HIV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how can HIV get into the blood (4) |
|
Definition
open cuts breaks in skin breaks in mucous membranes direct injections |
|
|
Term
what are the three routes of transmission of HIV |
|
Definition
sexual contact, blood exopsure, perinatal |
|
|
Term
what are the sexual contact ways to get HIV (3) |
|
Definition
male to male male to female female to female |
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|
Term
what are the three ways to het HIV through blood exposure |
|
Definition
sharing drug needles occupational exposure transfusion of blood products |
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|
Term
how can HIV be transmitter perinatally (3) |
|
Definition
in utero during delivery breast milk |
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|
Term
what has a higher risk of transmission through blood than HIV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
where is HIV found in the body (7) List from fluid with highest to fluid with lowest concentration |
|
Definition
blood, semen, vaginal secretions, amniotic fluid, saliva, urine, breast milk |
|
|
Term
what is the most common route of HIV transmission |
|
Definition
80% through unprotected intercourse (vaginal, anal, oral, genital) |
|
|
Term
why is someone with HIV and STDs more HIV infective |
|
Definition
someone with STDs sheds more HIV (increased semen viral load) due to inflammation increasing CD4 count |
|
|
Term
what are the initial symptoms of HIV, when do they show up (14) |
|
Definition
brief flu like symptoms: fever, muscle ache, rash, loss of appetite, swollen nodes if more immune supressed: fever, night sweats, weight loss, chronic fatigue, bruising, headaches, cough, diarrhea, bloody stool |
|
|
Term
when do HIV antibodies show up |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how long does it take HIV to turn into AIDs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the most common disease and cause of death in AIDs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
positive HIV test + AIDs defining illness or CD4<200 |
|
|
Term
when do you begin to treat HIV/AIDs |
|
Definition
positive HIV test + one of these
1. AIDS defining illness 2. CD4 <200 3. CD4 200-350 offer treatment 4. viral load >100,000 offer treatment |
|
|
Term
what are 4 AIDs defining illnesses |
|
Definition
candidiasis of the esophagus, bronchi, trachea, or lungs
cryptococcus, extrapulmonary
karposi sarcoma
pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
early time where macrophages are targeted |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
period of time where an infected person tests negative for the anti-HIV virus |
|
|
Term
what is the timline for getting acurate tests, avoiding the viral window (3) |
|
Definition
10% test positive within 3-6mo of exposure!! 70% test positive within 3 weeks of exposure 90% test positive within 3 months of exposure |
|
|
Term
why does it take time for someone with HIV to test positive |
|
Definition
seroconversion takes time |
|
|
Term
what are the diagnostic parts of HIV (4) |
|
Definition
gp160 (needed) gp41 and gp120 OR p24 |
|
|
Term
what is the rapid HIV test, what kind of test is it |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the conformation test for HIV (2), how are they read |
|
Definition
western blot: need one gp160 and either gp12-+41 or p24. no bands is negative, 1-2 bands is inderterminate (test again in 2-4 months)
PCR is becoming the new standard, it can test smaller samples and you don't have to wait 2-4 months |
|
|
Term
you do a western blot and the pt has less than 3 bands but has one now what |
|
Definition
indeterminate, do a PCR or wait and do it later. probablly were in viral widow |
|
|
Term
what will replace western blot as gold standard for HIV test |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
splits into GP120 and GP41 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
attaches to CD4 receptor and pullsHIV close to cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
attaches to CD4 receptor and pullsHIV close to cell injects viral particles into the cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
binds to gp120 and pulls it close to stabilize it |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
core capsid antigen of HIV |
|
|
Term
wwhat three enzymes does HIV have what do they do |
|
Definition
reverse transcriptase: turns viral RNA into DNA
integrase: puts viral DNA into host genome
protease: fit and trim viron particles |
|
|
Term
what are the symptoms of HIV in immune supression (8) |
|
Definition
fever night sweats weight loss chronic fatigue bruising hedache coough diarrhea bloody stool |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
rash from kaposkis sarcoma |
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
chalmydia effect on cervix |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
babesia in RBC showing maltease cross |
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