Term
what three ways can diabetes be tested for, what levels indicate diagnosis |
|
Definition
blood HBA1C 6.5% and glucosem>125 fasting urine glucose >120 shows glucose in urine - old way |
|
|
Term
what is the best test for nutritional analysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the 4 tests in a lipid panel |
|
Definition
cholesterol, HDL, LDL, TG |
|
|
Term
what are the five parts to a hematology test |
|
Definition
anemia testing PLT/clotting time ESR sickle cell WBC differential |
|
|
Term
what are the four anemia tests |
|
Definition
RBC count hematocrit Hb indices |
|
|
Term
what are the three RBC indices, describe them |
|
Definition
MCV - mean cell volume MCHC - mean corpuscular Hb concentration RDW - red cell distribution width |
|
|
Term
what is the purpose of a ESR, what is another option, which is better |
|
Definition
ESR - measure sedimentation rate which tells about inflammation
C-reactive protien also tells about inflammation and is better because it tells about the action of NSAIDs |
|
|
Term
what cells are examined in a WBC differential, what are their relative percentages |
|
Definition
neutrophils 60% leukocytes 30% monocytes 6% eosinophils 3% beans 1% |
|
|
Term
what is tested for during endocrine testing (4) |
|
Definition
thyroid: T3, T4, TSH B-HCG |
|
|
Term
what blood disorder can be seen from a CBC (4) |
|
Definition
anemia, polycythemia, leukemia, thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
what are the nine immunology lab tests |
|
Definition
IgG IgM titer RA/RF monospot rubella/titer syphillis hepatitis CMV |
|
|
Term
what does a monospot test for |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the three syphillis tests |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
RFR/VDRl how do they work |
|
Definition
use trepillina like antigen which is sensitive but not specific for antibodies to syphilis |
|
|
Term
what is FTA-ABS what does it stand for |
|
Definition
conformation test for syphilis, more specific flourescent trepinemal antigen antibody screen |
|
|
Term
what type of molecules are looked for in a hepatitis test |
|
Definition
anti-HAV, HAV, HBsAg, anti-HBc, anti-HBe, anti-HB |
|
|
Term
what is checked for in blood type matching, why can this be done |
|
Definition
ABO/Rh screen for unsuspected antibodies RBC have no HLA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what blood components are harvested in the clinical lab, what are they used for (4) |
|
Definition
cryopercipitate: concentrated clotting factors (8, hemophelia) fresh frozen plasma: burns packed RBC: trauma platlets |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
level in the blodo when they kidney cannot absorb anymore |
|
|
Term
what 10 things are tested for on urine dip sticks |
|
Definition
specific gravity: hydration pH leukocyte esterase blood nitrate ketones bilirubin: liver function urobilinogen protein glucose (>120 excedes renal threashold and glucose will show in urine - diabetes) |
|
|
Term
define reference range, give some other ways to say this definition |
|
Definition
normal normal distribution: range covers 95% of the people. mena +/- two standard deviations
expecte, healthy, typical, average, natural, regular, standard, gaussian, normal |
|
|
Term
what is the reference range determined by (3), what percautions should be taken (2) |
|
Definition
age, gender, geographical location find out your hospitals ranges and O2 contant in atmosphere |
|
|
Term
what are the ten capsulated bacteria, say something special about the ones that deserve it |
|
Definition
strep pneumonia (#1 communitu acquired) kelbsiella pneumonia haemophilus influenza pseudomonas aeruginosa (CF silme producer, #1 hospital pneumonia) neisseria meningitidis cryptococcus neoformans (fungi)
maningeal E. coli with K1 capsule cacillus anthracis salmonella typhu strep pyogenes with hyalyronic acid capsule |
|
|
Term
what is kosch's postulate (4), what is wrong with it (3), what are the additions to fix it (2) |
|
Definition
approach to lab diagnosis
pathogen present in diseased animal pathogen isolated and grown innoculation of animal isolation from re-innoculation the same
exceptions: viruses, prions, non-culturable microbes
added recovery of pathogen or evidence of its presence in diseased host clinical signs and symptoms compatiable with infection presence |
|
|
Term
what can be assumed when looking at a lab sample from a sterile site, what are the exceptions |
|
Definition
anything that shows up is a concern or a contamination
sometimes you have to pull a sterile sample through a non-sterile region (contamination. respiratory, bladder) |
|
|
Term
what are examples of sterile regions |
|
Definition
blood, csf, pleura, peritoneal, synovial, tissues, lower respiratory, bladder |
|
|
Term
what can be assumed when looking at a lab sample from a non-sterile region, what can you do to fix this |
|
Definition
normal flora will be present, know how to identify them and how much is appropirate |
|
|
Term
what are examples of non-sterile regions |
|
Definition
mouth, nose, upper respiratory, skin, GI, urethra |
|
|
Term
what different ways can a culture based test be done (3) |
|
Definition
microscopy: wet mount, stained culture media antibiotic susceptability |
|
|
Term
what things do non-culture based tests examine |
|
Definition
pathogen specific antibodies in serum pathogen antigens or nucleic acids in specimen general or non-specific tests (CBC, flow, chemistry, UA) |
|
|
Term
what are some generalizations to remember which are gram negative |
|
Definition
most pathogens are gram negative rods |
|
|
Term
what is a back to back lancet, what is it mistaken for |
|
Definition
gram positive diplococci - strep pneumonia
not all diplococci are s. pneumonia. it could be staph aureus |
|
|
Term
that does a tzanck smear detect, how is it foemed |
|
Definition
detects multinucleated cells from irritated tissue that sloughed off and clumped |
|
|
Term
what microbes does tzanck find (4) |
|
Definition
HSV1: cold sore HSV2: genital herpes VSV: chicken pox, shingles zinc cells clumped: viral infection |
|
|
Term
what does india ink test for, how does it look, who would you do this test in |
|
Definition
identifies cryptococcus neoformans
polysaccharide capsule make halo in black (ghost cells)
this microbe only shows in immune compormized |
|
|
Term
silver stain: aka, what does it find |
|
Definition
gomori methenamine
pneumoncystis juroveci fungi |
|
|
Term
buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE): what does it show legionella |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how is a sample collected from the throat |
|
Definition
get sample from oropharynx and tonsils avoid lips and cheeks |
|
|
Term
what is ruled out of a throat ample |
|
Definition
strep pyrogenes, group A strep, aka strep throat (B-hemolytic) |
|
|
Term
what are the key select pathogens from teh throat (4) |
|
Definition
S. pneumona (CAP), S. aureus, P, aeruginosa, K. pneumoniae (HAP) |
|
|
Term
how is a sample collected from a wound |
|
Definition
debris completely or it will always be colonized swab center try not to expose to air (first swab put directly into anaerobic container it is toxic) |
|
|
Term
what is ruled out in a wound swab |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the key select pathogens in a wound swab (8) give a general reason for their presence |
|
Definition
B. fragilis S. aureus S. pyogenes (abscess) C. perfingenes (trauma) S. aureus (surgical) pasturella (dog or car bit) barinella (cat scratch) inchinella crodans (human bite) |
|
|
Term
spinal culture, what is ruled out (3), what cannot be ruled out (1) |
|
Definition
meningitis, abscess, subdural empyema
encephalitis |
|
|
Term
spinal culture key select pathogens (3), what relates them |
|
Definition
N. mengitis, s. punemonia, H. influenza capsules |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
entercolitis, dysentery (bloody diarrhea) |
|
|
Term
stool: hey select pathogens (4) |
|
Definition
sigella, salmonalla, campylobacteri, E. coli |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
viruses or toxins (tx could cause collitis, dont treat) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
urine key select pathogenes (4) |
|
Definition
E. COLI enterobacter, proteus, e. faecalis |
|
|
Term
genital rule out (3), how are they categorized |
|
Definition
gonorrhea chlamydia and syphilis - non-gonococcal urethritis. not culturable so cultured for gonorrhea and got nothing. |
|
|
Term
genital key select pathogens (3) |
|
Definition
gonorrhea (culturable) chalydophilia trachomatis treponema pellidum |
|
|
Term
how do you know it is sputum and not spit |
|
Definition
WBC > epithelial cells WBC >10 epithelial cells <10 |
|
|
Term
when do you get the best sputum sample |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the number one community acquired pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the number one hospital acquired pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ichinella crodens infection: how do you get it, how is it identified |
|
Definition
seen in human bite smells like bleach corrodes agar |
|
|
Term
automated E test: how does it work |
|
Definition
new test, better than kirby, no key needed
wuantative
line on strp shows susceptability |
|
|
Term
what is the life cycle of neutrophils, 6 steps |
|
Definition
blast promyelocyte myelocyte metamyelocyte band segmented and polymononuclear |
|
|
Term
explain the 5 steps in RBC life |
|
Definition
pluripotential stem cells > normoblast > nucleated erythocyte > reticulocyte > erythrocyte |
|
|
Term
what are part of the myelolytic cell line |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
myeloblast should make you think |
|
Definition
blast abnormal in the blood myeloblast leukemia |
|
|
Term
how do you differentiate what type of cell a blast is |
|
Definition
you dont, its hard. almost undifferentiated. there are some markers than can be stained |
|
|
Term
what are the three steps in a platelet life |
|
Definition
pluripotential stem cell > megakaryoblast > platelet |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
all WBC are low, leukemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how is a CNS disease diagnosed, two methods and how to do them |
|
Definition
brudizinski's neck sign: flexing the pt neck causes flexion of the hips and knees kernig's knee sign: flex kips to 90 deg and extend knee causes pain |
|
|
Term
what used to be the trigger to test for HIV |
|
Definition
patient with PCP infection |
|
|
Term
what does CSF look like, how much needs to be collected, why |
|
Definition
colorless clear fluid with no WBC
2 tubes to go to microbe study for gram stain and culture, chemistry for glucose and protein, cell count and differential |
|
|
Term
how is a direct ELISA done |
|
Definition
antignic sites are labeled by antibodies and a colored substrate is added that binds to antigen antibody complex |
|
|
Term
how does a sanwhich ELISA work |
|
Definition
unknown antibody is taken from the person anti-HCG on a strip. HCG antigen will be captured by antibodies. another anti-HCG will then be added that has a reporter enzyme on it. substrate will be added that changes color when bound to sandwhiches |
|
|
Term
aggultination two definitions definition |
|
Definition
taking particulate antigen and add antibody (can test for antibody or antigen)
soluble antigen + antibody bound to particulate leads to agglutination |
|
|
Term
what areas can be tested via agglutination |
|
Definition
blood, CSF, feces, throat |
|
|
Term
what is the BEST way to claculate CrCl |
|
Definition
((urine Cr) / (serum Cr)) x flor rate
flow rate = (mL of urinein 24h)/(1700 ml/day) |
|
|
Term
is there any other indicator for kidney function other than Cr, is it better or worse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the normal color of urine, what 6 colors or combinations could urine be |
|
Definition
normal: straw yellow amber and clear or cloudy
red, black, white (albinuria), orange, brown, blue/green |
|
|
Term
what medication can turn the urine colors, what is two names for it, what two colors |
|
Definition
phenazopyridine/ piridum
red or orange |
|
|
Term
what two things can turn urine blue |
|
Definition
methlyene blue, amitriptyline (antidepressant) |
|
|
Term
so your patient is on a medication that turns their urine a strange color, what does this mean for your chemical tests |
|
Definition
dont trust dip stick results |
|
|
Term
how can urine color indicate hydration |
|
Definition
ligher = dilute = hydrated dark = concentrated = dehydrated |
|
|
Term
what are the normal values for all the parts of a dip stick urine test |
|
Definition
all negative except specific gravity (1-1.035) and pH (5-8) |
|
|
Term
how do you physically do a dip stick test to get the best result |
|
Definition
run it on the side and blot it so chemicals dont run together |
|
|
Term
significance of a glucose urine test (2) |
|
Definition
tells if there is hyperglycemia or rengal glucosuria |
|
|
Term
what 4 conditions can cause hyperglycemia that shows in the urine |
|
Definition
diabetes mellitus, thyrotoxicosis, cushing syndrome, severe anxiety |
|
|
Term
what condition can cause glycosuria, why |
|
Definition
pregnacy because kidney threashold drops |
|
|
Term
what would interfere with a urine glucose test, give an example |
|
Definition
reducing agents (ascorbic acid) |
|
|
Term
what is the normal renal threashold, what is a renal threashold |
|
Definition
concentration in the blood where you have to spill over into the urine 160-180 mg/dl |
|
|
Term
what is the significance in a bilirubin urine test |
|
Definition
increased direct bilirubin correlates with serum urobilinogen and serum bilirubin and tells about liver function |
|
|
Term
what can mess up a bilirubin urine test |
|
Definition
prolonged exposure of the sample to light |
|
|
Term
what is the differnce between direct and indirect bilirubin, explain the process of production |
|
Definition
indirect bilirubin must travel on albumin because it isnt water soluble. it is taken to the liver where is conjugated with glucronic acid making it water soluble and puts it into a form that can be directly assayed
indirect = unconjungated direct = conjugated |
|
|
Term
what form of bilirubin do we test in urine chemistry, why |
|
Definition
direct because it is conjugated and dosen't stick to albumin and thus can be transferred to urine |
|
|
Term
what is the significance of a ketone urine test (2) |
|
Definition
shows prolnged fasting shows ketoacidosis (diabetic) |
|
|
Term
when is ketoacidosis an emergency, what qualifies it |
|
Definition
diabetic ketoacidosis is an emergency, you can tell it is diabetic because there will be ketones and glucose in the urine. confirm with blood gas showing acidosis |
|
|
Term
what limits the accuracy of a urine ketone test |
|
Definition
it only picks up acetoacetate and not the other ketone bodies |
|
|
Term
what can cause metabolic acidosis, what type of anion gap (7) |
|
Definition
methanol poisoning uremia DKA p- iron ischemia lacric acidosis ethylene glycol (antifreeze) silislate poisoning
positive anion gap |
|
|
Term
what is the significance of specific gravity testing (2) |
|
Definition
hydration index diabetes insupidus testing |
|
|
Term
what causes a change in specific gravity in diabetes insipidus (2) |
|
Definition
vasopressing or ADH acting on the kidney |
|
|
Term
what can interfere or cause error in a specific gravity test (2), give an example |
|
Definition
alkaline urine can mess it up does not measure ionized solutes |
|
|
Term
what test is simillar to a specific gravity test, is it better |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the significance of urine blood test (4), give a cause of each |
|
Definition
hematuria - nephritis, trauma hemoglobinuria - hemolysis myoglobinuria - rhabdomyolysis myoglobin shows as blood - comes from trauma / crush injury |
|
|
Term
what can mess up the results to a urine blood test (3) |
|
Definition
reducing agents microbial peroxidase (bleach) cannot distinguish between diseases |
|
|
Term
what is better than a urine blood dip stick test |
|
Definition
urine microscopic examination |
|
|
Term
what are two things that can cause acidic urine |
|
Definition
metabolic acidosis high protein diet |
|
|
Term
what can cause alkaline urine, what about VERY alkaline urine |
|
Definition
bacterial overgrowth causes alkaline urine very alkaline urine has been left out too long (>8) |
|
|
Term
what is the significance of a urine protein test (4) |
|
Definition
shows proteinurie and nephrotic syndrome shows if there is inflammation of the bladder or kidney increases in Ig disease |
|
|
Term
what can interfere with the results of a urine protein test (3) |
|
Definition
trace amounts can be misleading - they dont nessesicarly mean disease alkaline urine can mess it up ultra sensitive to albumin which messes up urine protein electrophoresis |
|
|
Term
what is a warning sign (pre-eclampsia) for eclampsia, when does this condition occur |
|
Definition
protein in urine and HBP, pregnacy |
|
|
Term
define proteinuria. what are the 4 categories of causes |
|
Definition
excess protein in urine functional, renal, pre-renal, post-renal |
|
|
Term
what are three causes of functional proteinuria |
|
Definition
severe muscular exertion pregnacy orthostatic proteinuria |
|
|
Term
what are the three renal causes of proteinuria |
|
Definition
glomerulonephritis nephrotic syndrome renal tumor or infection |
|
|
Term
what are the three causes of pre-renal proteinuria |
|
Definition
fever, renal hypoxia, hypertension |
|
|
Term
what are the three causes of post-renal proteinuria |
|
Definition
cystitis urethritis/prostatitis contamination with vaginal secretions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bilirubin is altered by bacteria into urobilinogen, it should not be in the urine |
|
|
Term
what is the significance of high urine urobilinogen |
|
Definition
increased hepatic processing of bilirubin |
|
|
Term
what is the significance of low urine urobilinogen |
|
Definition
bile obstruction - it never got to the gut to be turned into urobilinogen |
|
|
Term
what can interfere with a urine urobilinogen test, what is a down side to the test |
|
Definition
prolonged urine exposure to oxygen converts urobilinogen to urobilin
cannot detect low levels of urobilinogen |
|
|
Term
what is the significance of a nitrate urine test |
|
Definition
shows presence of gram negative bacteria best show for E. coli |
|
|
Term
what is the best urine dip stick test for a UTI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what can interfere with a nitrate urine test (2) |
|
Definition
bacterial over growth bacteria that dont convert nutrate to nitrite |
|
|
Term
what are the 4 ways to test for a UTI |
|
Definition
leukocyte esterase microscopic examination for bacteria urine culture nitrites in urine |
|
|
Term
what is the significance of leukocyte esterase urine test |
|
Definition
finds pyuria, acute inflammation (damage), renal calculus, most sensitivt UTI test |
|
|
Term
what can cause increased WBC without infection |
|
Definition
kidney damage, kidney stone |
|
|
Term
why is it important to alwasy check the WBC microcope test and compare to the leukocyte esterase test |
|
Definition
WBC have to lyse to release leukocyte esterase so if they didnt lyse you could have false results |
|
|
Term
what are two things that can mess up a leukocyte esterase urine test |
|
Definition
oxidizing agents menstural contamination |
|
|
Term
what 4 things are looked for on a urine how power exam (400x) |
|
Definition
>3 erythrocytes >5 leukocytes >2 renal rubular cells >10 bacteria |
|
|
Term
what 5 things are looked for on a urine low power exam (200x) |
|
Definition
>3 hayline casts >1 granular cast >1 WBC cast >1 RBC cast >10 squamous cells |
|
|
Term
what crystals are seen on a microscopic exam, which are of concern |
|
Definition
AA crystals are not a concern unless its in newborns uric acid is a concern in all because it causes gout |
|
|
Term
what kinds of epithelial cells can be found in the urine (2), what is the significance |
|
Definition
normal: sloughing of normal tissue. too much suggests contaimination
renal tubular epithelial cells: too many means something is wrong with the kidney - glomerulonephritis? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what casts are there allowed to be some of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what does an increase in WBC, RBC, or granular casts mean |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what 4 things are looked for on a urine how power exam (400x) |
|
Definition
>3 erythrocytes >5 leukocytes >2 renal rubular cells >10 bacteria |
|
|
Term
what 5 things are looked for on a urine low power exam (200x) |
|
Definition
>3 hayline casts >1 granular cast >1 WBC cast >1 RBC cast >10 squamous cells |
|
|
Term
what crystals are seen on a microscopic exam, which are of concern |
|
Definition
AA crystals are not a concern unless its in newborns uric acid is a concern in all because it causes gout |
|
|
Term
what kinds of epithelial cells can be found in the urine (2), what is the significance |
|
Definition
normal: sloughing of normal tissue. too much suggests contaimination
renal tubular epithelial cells: too many means something is wrong with the kidney - glomerulonephritis? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what casts are there allowed to be some of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what does an increase in WBC, RBC, or granular casts mean |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is pyelonephritis, what are 6 signs |
|
Definition
kidney infection
bacteria, leukocytes leukocyte, granular and waxy casts renal tubular epithelial cast cells |
|
|
Term
what are the four types of urinary tract infections |
|
Definition
urethritis cystitis polynephritis prostatis |
|
|
Term
what UTI are considered lower |
|
Definition
urethritis, cystitis, prostatitis |
|
|
Term
what UTI are considered upper |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what UTI are always complicated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the two types of UTI patients, what is the main difference in their care plan |
|
Definition
uncomplicated - dip stick test complicated - culture and dip stick |
|
|
Term
what is the rank of UTI in common bacterial infections |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what risk factor can increase UTI in a uncomplicated patient, how can this be avoided (2) |
|
Definition
sexual intercourse: post coital voidiing, prophylactic antibiotics |
|
|
Term
how is renal abscess diagnosed (2) and treated |
|
Definition
CT with contrast, renal ultrasound
surgical drainage |
|
|
Term
explain the two cup test, why is this done |
|
Definition
fill one cup with urine, massage prostate, fill another. organisms dont always come out during urinalysis |
|
|
Term
what are the general symptoms of cystitis (10) |
|
Definition
dysuria, urgency, frequency, bladder fullness, suprapubic tenderness, hematuria, painful urination, urethral burning, blood |
|
|
Term
what conditions cause vaginal discharge (6) |
|
Definition
STi, yeast, vaginosis, urethritis, cervicitis, PID |
|
|
Term
when someone has a UTI what labs will come back positive for sure, which might come back positive (9) |
|
Definition
always: leukocyte esterase, microscopic WBC
sometimes: nitrites, blood, protein, microscope RBC, granular or WBC casts |
|
|
Term
what is a condition that can cause RBC in urine that isnt an infection |
|
Definition
acute glomerular nephritis (immunological) |
|
|
Term
name 4 urine collection methods, who they are used in, which is best |
|
Definition
mid stream catch: wash, rinse, dry, void, collect midstream (flushes flora out, wipe away antiseptic)
foley catheter: any bacteria is significant, lean towards yes for infection
suprapubic aspiration - infants. shoulw be no contamination
perineal urine collection bag - infants. worry lots about contamination |
|
|
Term
what is the timing of culture of a urine sample, what can change this, how can you tell if it sat for too long |
|
Definition
>2h changes reuslts unless there is perservitives
bacteria will be high but leukocyte esterase wont |
|
|
Term
what are 6 incidence when the patient's urine would be cultured |
|
Definition
pyelonephritis repeat uncomplicated UTI men children pregnant women complicated UTI |
|
|
Term
what are the two ways for microbes to be introduced into the urine |
|
Definition
ascending or hematogenous route |
|
|
Term
explain the ascending route to a UTI |
|
Definition
colonization of vagina colonization or urethra entry into the bladder infection sepsis? |
|
|
Term
explain the hematogenous route to a UTI |
|
Definition
spread from blood to body check urine when someone has meningitis |
|
|
Term
what are common pathogens that cause urethritis, which is #1 (4) |
|
Definition
1. chalmydia trachomatis neisseria gonorrhea, mycoplasma, uroplasma |
|
|
Term
what are the common pathogens that cause cystitis (6) |
|
Definition
E. coli, staph saphrophiticus, proteus mirabilis, klebsiella, enterococcus, adenovirus (hemorrhagic) |
|
|
Term
what are the common pathogens that cause pyelonephritis (6) |
|
Definition
E. coli, staph saphrophiticus, proteus mirabilis, klebsiella, enterococcus, mycoplasma |
|
|
Term
what are the common pathogens that cause prostatitis (6) |
|
Definition
E. coli, staph saphrophiticus, proteus mirabilis, klebsiella, enterococcus, uroplasma |
|
|
Term
what does schistoma hematobium do when it gets in the body, where can it be acquired |
|
Definition
it burrows into the bladder wall and causes a form of cystitis it deposits eggs and causes inflammatory response via eosinophils
seen overseas |
|
|
Term
what causes hemorrhagic cystitis |
|
Definition
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Term
what is the microbe that causes infection in young sexually active women, how can it be identified in the lab |
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Definition
coagulase negative staphlyococcis saphrophyticus |
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Term
what is the most common cause of urethritis in men |
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Definition
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Term
what are the two types of STI |
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Definition
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Term
what are the acellular STIs (4) |
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Definition
herpes, papilloma, hepb, HIV |
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Term
what are the three types of cellular STIs |
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Definition
arthropods bacteria protozoa |
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Term
what arthropods cause STIs (2) |
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Definition
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Term
what bacteria cause STIs (5) |
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Definition
chylamydia, gonorrhea, haemophilus ducreyi, mycoplasmas, syphilis, BV |
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Term
what STIs cause sores/ulcers (4) |
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Definition
syphilis, genital herpes (HSV1/2), lymphogranuloma venereum, canceroid |
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Term
crab lice: official name, appearance, how to get |
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Definition
phthirus pubis pinhead sized light brown insects intimate contact or fomites (dont jump) |
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Term
where do crab lice like to go, what do they do with their life |
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Definition
moist coarse hair (pubic, beart, eyebrows, eyelashes) lay eggs (nits) at the base of the hair |
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Term
what are the 4 signs of crab lice |
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Definition
itching, burning, irritation, worse at night |
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Term
what is the treatment for crab lice (2) |
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Definition
wash linnens and clothes in hot water, Rx |
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Term
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Definition
they spit and their spit causes an allergic reaction |
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Term
scabes: official name, appearance, how to get |
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Definition
sarcoptes scabiei microscopic burrowing insects that lay eggs in skin intimate contact or fomites (dont jump) |
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Term
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Definition
intense itching, often in crevices, worsens at night, small insect bites |
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Term
how do you diagnose scabes |
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Definition
skin scraping for mites or eggs |
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Term
how is scabes treated (2) |
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Definition
permethrin, wash hot linnens and clothes |
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Term
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Definition
sex, other (plantar warts etc) |
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Term
what are the two types of HPV, which do we have no vaccines against |
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Definition
mucosal dermal: no vaccines |
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Term
what are the four most common atypical bacteria, why |
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Definition
require weird growth, have to act like a virus
mycoplasma, ureaplasma, chylmidia, reckittsia |
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Term
when you treat someone for chlamydia, what do you always do |
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Definition
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Term
how do yu diagnose chlamydia (4) |
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Definition
it is unculturable
urethram smear: >5 polymorphic neutrophils
tissue culture: costly, time consuming
nucleic acid hybridization (gen-probe): tests for gonorrhea and chlamydia
DNA amplication test (NAT) |
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Term
what are the symptoms of PID (5) |
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Definition
uterine adnexal tenderness, cervical motion tenderness, endocervical discharge, fever, lower abdominal pain |
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Term
what are the complications of PID (3) |
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Definition
chronic pelvic pain in 18% 7x risk of ectopic pregnacy with 1 PID episode 15% risk of infertility with 1 PID episode |
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Term
how do we categorise STIs that cause sores |
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Definition
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Term
what are the three types of STI that cause painless sores, what are their full names |
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Definition
syphilis: treponema pallidum lymphogranumoma venereum (clymatic bubo): chlamydophila trachomatis granuloma inguinale: klebsiella granulomatis |
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Term
what two things cause painfil genital sores, what are their full names |
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Definition
canceroid: hamophlius ducreyl (soft cancer)
genital herpes simplex |
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Term
what is the initial test done for syphilis, how is it done, what is the concern |
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Definition
RPR/VDRL (prodrome): non trepinemal antigen used for agglutinating tests
you can have lots of antibody and get a negative test. cannot detect positive until you dilute the antibody way down |
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Term
what is the conformation test for syphilis |
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Definition
FRA-ABS (floursecent treponimal antigen) |
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Term
how do you get genital herpes (2) |
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Definition
asymptomatic shedding, sexual contact |
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Term
how is herpes diagnosed (2) |
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Definition
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Term
what are some outdated ways to say HIV |
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Definition
gay related immunodeficiency disease lymphadenopathy associated virus human t lymphocyte virus III |
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Term
what is the centraldogma of biology |
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Definition
dna is transcribed into rna which is translated into protein |
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Term
what is the central dogma in HIV |
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Definition
reverse transcriptase turns RNA into DNA DNA is transcribed into RNA which is translated into protein |
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Term
what is the difference between HIV1 and HIV2 |
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Definition
HIV1 is more prevalent and virulent HIV2 isnt as bad but can cause AIDS of untreated |
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Term
after HIV attaches what does it do in the cell |
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Definition
reverse transcriptase turns viral RNA into DNA
integrase puts the DNA into the genome (makes a provirus)
DNA is transcribed into RNA which is translated into protein (viral particles)
baby HIV buds out |
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Term
begining with the primary infection explain the timeline or HIV |
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Definition
primary infection acute HIV syndrome: dissemination and arrival at lymphoid organs clinical latency constitutional symptoms opportunistic diseases death |
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Term
how long is the clinical latency of HIV |
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Definition
can be 10 years if not injected into the blood (2 years) |
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Term
what are some of the constitutional symotoms of HIV (5), what is the CD4 count |
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Definition
CD4 500 oral candidiasis, shingles, oral thrush, vaginal thrush, HSV-1 |
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Term
before the constitutional symptoms, what symptoms are there of HIV in the latency or acute HIV syndrome phases (4) |
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Definition
acute pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, pulmonary TB |
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Term
what are the opportunistic infections of HIV, when do they appear |
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Definition
CD4 400 kaposkis sarcoma (HSV8) CD4 300 oral hairy leukoplakia, EBV, disseminated TB CD4 200 PCP, cryptococcus, toxoplasmosis CD4 50 MAC, CMV, lymphoma |
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Term
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Definition
CD4 <200 or AIDS asociated illness along with a positive HIV test |
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Term
what is standard percuation |
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Definition
assume everyone is infected, if you glove for someone with HIV then you glove for everyone |
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Term
what is the treatment for HIV (2) |
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Definition
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Term
what does HAART stand for, what is the 4 ways it helps |
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Definition
highly active antiretroviral therapy combination drug therapy that slows the replication, reduces viral load, improves immune function, delays progression |
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Term
what is the success of HAART dependent on (2) |
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Definition
compliance despite... complex redigmen adverse side effects |
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Term
when on HAART what is HIV doing |
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Definition
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Term
why does presence of other STD increase risk of HIV (2) |
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Definition
displays risk behavior increases susceptability (sores give route for contamination) |
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Term
what is the best solution for HIV (7) |
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Definition
avoid sex especially with sex workers, multiple partners, high risk people, anal intercourse
use condoms dont share needles do not share razor bladers/toothbrushes |
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Term
explain the new ag/ab combo test |
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Definition
helps close the viral window a little. if they have enough antibody the antigen load drops a lot so their HIB test may not detect the antigen. this test accounts for both |
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Term
what are the three parts of the western blot stip, what are they coding for |
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Definition
ENV: viral envelope
POL: polymerase, protease (cuts viral particles), integrate (integrates DNA into genome forming provirus), RT
Group specific antigen: capsid, matrid |
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Term
what is a low budget way to test for HIV/disease progress, explain how it works |
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Definition
candidal skin test: everyone should have a positive test. if you do it on a HIV person and they are positive than their type 4 (T cell mediated) hypersensitivity is still good enough to work. when it becomes negative they have the disease and their CD4 is relativly low (anergic sign) |
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Term
what are the three clinical categories of HIV, what defines them |
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Definition
A: asymptomatic: Acute HIV (POL)
B: symptomatic
C: AIDS |
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Term
what puts someone into category B HIV (10) |
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Definition
persistant PID hairy leukoplakia oral recurrant shingles cervical dysplasia/carcinoma idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura fever/diarrhea > 1mo neuropathy oropharyngela candidiasis bacillary angiomatosis |
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