Term
often effective for treating superficial mycoses |
|
Definition
Topical miconazole nitrate |
|
|
Term
Prevalent genera of dermatophytes |
|
Definition
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton |
|
|
Term
Common subcutaneous mycoses |
|
Definition
lymphocutaneous sporotrichosis and chromoblastomycosis. |
|
|
Term
Systemic mycoses are caused by primary fungal pathogens such |
|
Definition
Histoplasma capsulatum, Blastomyces dermatitidis, Paracoccidioides brasiliensis, Coccidioides immitis and Cryptococcus neoformans (HBPCC) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Ability of an organism to infect a susceptible host genotype and cause disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The degree of disease caused by a pathogen genotype under appropriate conditions. Akin to aggressiveness. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hospital acquired microbes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. isolate the suspected agent from a disease victim.
2. grow the agent in pure culture.
3. infect a healthy host and show that the organism
produces the classical clinical disease.
4. Isolate the "same" organism from the new victim.
|
|
|
Term
Cytoplasmic membranes are similar to eukaryotic membranes but do not contain steroids (e.g., cholesterol).
Which are the exception to this rule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most have signature teichoic and lipoteichoic acids in the thick peptidoglycan wall
Which type of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of Teichoic acids |
|
Definition
Teichoic acids:
· Strong negative charge.
· Covalently linked to the peptidoglycan
· Strongly antigenic
Generally absent in gram-negative bacteria.
· Believed to aid in concentrating metal ions from the surroundings.
|
|
|
Term
Characteristics of Lipoteichoic acids
|
|
Definition
Lipoteichoic acids:
· Attached to fatty acids and anchored in the cytoplasmic membrane.
· Antigenic, cytotoxic and can be involved in adherence
|
|
|
Term
What actions could result in Gram positive bacteria appearing to be gram negative after test |
|
Definition
Mechanical disruption of the cell wall of Gram-positive organisms or its enzymatic removal with lysozyme
Also, old starved bacteria and those treated with antibiotics. |
|
|
Term
_________ and _________ do not have cell wall and therefore cannot be differentiated by Gram stain.
|
|
Definition
Mycoplasma and Ureoplasma |
|
|
Term
__________ cannot be classified by Gram stain due to the waxy outer shell preventing the entry of the stain. An acid fast stain is used to identify them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Peptidoglycan polysaccharides are made up of repeating disaccharides of ________ and _________
|
|
Definition
N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid |
|
|
Term
· Cross-linking in peptidoglycans occurs between the ______ amino acid and another amino acid at the ______ position of another chain.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In peptidoglycan synthesis passing through the membrane, activated units are attached and assembled in the _________ _________ membrane pivot.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 regions of the Lipopolysaccharide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The region of the LPS that is essential for viability of almost all gram negative bacteria
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which region of the LPS carries the endotoxin activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which region of the LPS allows distinguishing of serotypes (strains) of a bacterial species and is the antigenic portion of the LPS?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sporulation only occurs in some __________ bacteria, such as members of ______ and _____ |
|
Definition
gram positive
Bacillus and Clostridium |
|
|
Term
Cells that lack rigid shape, assume spherical shape.
if gram-negative cell, then _________
If gram-positive, then __________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Stable spheroplasts, grow indefinitely w/o wall, but derived from parents with normal walls. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Group of bacteria that evolved to lack wall. Typically found in environments with high osmotic strength |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Spirochetes are what shape? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The arrangements of bacteria are determined by what? |
|
Definition
The position of the plane of successive cell divisions.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Grape-like clusters of bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
______ t_______
3.3 [logNt -logN0]
or
t/n |
|
|
Term
6 major groups of microorganisms: |
|
Definition
1. Algae
2. Protozoa
3. Fungi
4. Bacteria
5. Archaea
6. Viruses
|
|
|
Term
The minimum requirements for bacterial growth are sources of:
|
|
Definition
Carbon
Nitrogen
Energy
H2O
Ions
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Organisms that obtain energy by the oxidation of electron donors in their environments. |
|
|
Term
Bacterial pathogens are almost always _________.
This means what?
|
|
Definition
chemoheterotrophs
they are unable to fix carbon and form their own organic compounds |
|
|
Term
Respiration requires ___ as a terminal electron acceptor and is _____ efficient at generating energy
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Coenzyme A structural groups:
|
|
Definition
acetyl group, B-mercapto-ethylamine, pantothenic acid, 3’,5’-ADP. |
|
|
Term
Anaerobic respiration uses compounds other than oxygen (_____. _____. ______) as terminal electron acceptors, produces less ATP per mole of glucose than aerobic respiration
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
NADH is worth __ ATP through ETC, FADH2 is worth __ ATP) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Glycolysis produces ___ ATP and ___ NADH
for a total of ___ ATP after ETC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl CoA yields what? |
|
Definition
2 NADH for a total of 6 ATP after ETC. |
|
|
Term
The Krebs cycle produces ___ GTP, ___ NADH, and ___ FADH2
This yields a total of ___ ATP |
|
Definition
2 GTP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2
Total of 24 ATP. |
|
|
Term
Once θ (theta) DNA replication is completed, the daughter chromosomes are concatenated and must be unlinked by: |
|
Definition
DNA gyrase and topoisomerases |
|
|
Term
Plasmid pTP10 is found in the clinical isolate of which bacteria
|
|
Definition
of Corynebacterium striatum |
|
|
Term
Term for acquisition of naked DNA from environment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Only some species of bacteria have natural ability for DNA uptake, what is this ability called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Diploid for only a portion of the genome is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Phage λ integration into____ chromosome to produce a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the presence of a lysogenic prophage confers a new property to the host bacterium, this is termed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The state of being free of microorganisms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inactivation or elimination of ALL viable organism and their spores. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Process of removing or killing MOST microorganisms on or in a material |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A cleaning process which REDUCES pathogen levels to produce a healthy clean environment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Substance that kills vegetative bacteria and some spores |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Substance used on non-living objects to render them non-infectious; kills vegetative bacteria, fungi, viruses but no spores |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Substance used to prevent multiplication of microorganism when applied to living systems. An antiseptic is bacteriostatic in action but not necessarily bactericidal. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
95% filtration efficiency for 3-5 micron particles desired |
|
|
Term
Example of a secretion pathway that is dedicated to virulence
|
|
Definition
type III secretion (T3S) systems |
|
|
Term
Bacterial adherence is often mediated by adhesins:
|
|
Definition
o Fimbrial adhesins
o Afimbrial adhesins
|
|
|
Term
Streptococcus mutans
Adhesin:
Receptor:
Attachment site:
Disease:
|
|
Definition
glycosyl transferase
salivary glycoprotein
pellicle of tooth
dental caries |
|
|
Term
Streptococcus salivarius
Adhesin:
Attachment:
Disease:
|
|
Definition
lipoteichoic acid
buccal epithelium of tongue
no disease |
|
|
Term
Bacterial invasion factors:
Ex 1: Listeria invasion and cell-to-cell spread is mediated by a protein named ______.
Which other bacteria has a homolog for protien?
|
|
Definition
Internalin
Porphyoromonas gingivalis (Pg) |
|
|
Term
Bacterial invasion factors:
Salmonella uses ____ to secrete effectors that induce “_______ ________” (macropinocytosis) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Endotoxin is released upon lysis or through “_______” of outer membrane vesicles.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Endotoxins bind to specific receptors and stimulate release of ________ (e.g., IFN-g, IL-1, TNF-a, IL-6, histamine, prostaglandins), stimulate growth of _______, and induce ______ followed by ________.
|
|
Definition
Lymphokines, B cells, leukopenia, leukocytosis. |
|
|
Term
Broad classes of exotoxins
2 types of intracellular targets |
|
Definition
o A-B dimeric exotoxins (B, binding; A, active)
o ADP-ribosylation of intracellular target host molecule
|
|
|
Term
Broad classes of exotoxins
Cellular targets |
|
Definition
Cytolytic exotoxins (usually degradative enzymes) or cytolysins
|
|
|
Term
1) Hydrolyze membrane phospholipids (phospholipases).
2) Thiol(-SH)-activated cytolysins alter membrane permeability by binding to cholesterol.
((3) Detergent-like activity on cell membranes; rapid rate of lysis.
These are types of ___________
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 Examples of Two-Component A-B Exotoxins with Intracellular Targets
|
|
Definition
· Anthrax toxin (PA, EF, LF)
· Shiga toxin, A-5B
· Cholera toxin, A-5B
|
|
|
Term
___________ is considered to be the initiating organism and ________ the secondary invader of dental caries.
|
|
Definition
MS (mutans streptococci)
LB (lactobacilli) |
|
|
Term
Treatment of disseminated mycoses frequently is administration of systemic __________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the main targets of antifungal drugs? |
|
Definition
Ergosterols in fungal cell membranes |
|
|
Term
_________ and ________ are active against many Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria |
|
Definition
Tetracycline and carbapenems |
|
|
Term
Penicillin is effective against only _______ ______ bacteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The multidrug resistant Enteric bacteria, mainly ________ and ________, contain a worrisome enzyme called __________ |
|
Definition
E.coli & K. pneumoniae
New Dehli metallo-β-lactamase (NDM) |
|
|
Term
Films of the superficial aspects of plaque and contain non-bacterial debris. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1st colonizers come from saliva:
|
|
Definition
1) Streptococcus sanguinis and Streptococcus mitis (gram +, facultative)
2) Actinomyces (gram +, most are obligate anerobes)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Subsequent colonizer on teeth. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Subsequent colonizer on teeth. |
|
|
Term
Main cause of Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) |
|
Definition
Spirochetes, which are members of the genus Treponema. |
|
|
Term
In pregnancy gingivitis women often suffer from advanced gingivitis associated with high levels of an alleged opportunistic pathogen in the subgingival biofilm:
Which pathogen? |
|
Definition
Prevotella intermedia (Pi) |
|
|
Term
Chronic periodontitis becomes most severe when certain opportunistic pathogens become numerous. Pathogens are: |
|
Definition
Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema species and Tannerella forsythia. |
|
|
Term
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans |
|
Definition
Pathogen associtated with aggressive periodontitis |
|
|
Term
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is the only gram negative rod associated with periodontitis that is a _________ ________.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
HIV-associated gingivitis and periodontitis:
The pocket microbiota is similar to the periodontitis profile with the most distinctive microbial change being an increase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Failed endontically treated teeth usually are dominated by Gram positive facultative anaerobes, and almost always include _______ ________, a species normally found in the human gut.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fungi are Gram _____, mostly ______, and ____ growing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Infection bodies of fungi
Spores which are present on stalk-like projections or other |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Infectious bodies of fungi
Septal fragments of the hyphae which separate to become reproductive entities |
|
Definition
arthroconidia or arthrospores |
|
|
Term
Pathogen causing Histoplasmosis
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Flu and pneumonia like symptoms, eventually, calcified tuberculosis-like lesions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
· Pathogens remain viable in macrophages, which serve as vectors in disseminated disease to various organs
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pathogen causing Blastomycosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Organisms phagocytize alveolar macrophages
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
· Lung infection usually clears, but can form ulcerative skin and bone lesions in immunocompromised patents
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pathogen causing Paracoccidioidomycosis |
|
Definition
Paraccodioides brasiliensis |
|
|
Term
Most prevalent in South America
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Affects men vs women (78:1)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Primary lung infection, but can disseminate and cause mortality (16-25%) in immunodeficient.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Disseminated fungus produces painful ulcers on oral, nasal, and GI muscosa
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pathogen caused by Coccidioides immitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
American southwest, airborne from soil
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lesions on skin or meninges primarily in immunodeficient individuals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pathogen that causes Cryptococcosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pathogenic organism of this disease exists only
in yeast form
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pulmonary symptoms and radiographic lung nodules
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Disseminiation via hematologic spread in healthy/unhealthy patients, often leads to Cryptococcus meningitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Second most common fungal infection in
immunosuppressed patients after candidiasis.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pathogen that causes Aspergillosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Major veterinary pathogen affecting sheep and cattle
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Conidia of the fungus are inhaled from the environment
and produce localized lung infections associated with tubercular growths called mycetomas or “fungus balls”
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pathogen also can spread via the blood and invade blood vessles causing necrosis and thrombosis, or invade organs including the brain.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
· Aflatoxin, an extracellular protein elaborated by A. flavus (in most cases), can contaminate foodstuff, such as peanuts, and may induce hepatocellular carcinoma.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
· It is the most common opportunistic respiratory infection in late stage HIV patients and accounts for a 10-20% mortality rate in these individuals.
|
|
Definition
Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia |
|
|
Term
The organism does not invade host cells but exists in pulmonary interstitial tissue as a sporocyst (spore case)
|
|
Definition
Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia |
|
|
Term
Death occurs from asphyxiation.
|
|
Definition
Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia |
|
|
Term
Treatment is administration of
trimethoprim-sulfamexoxazole or pentamidine
isethionate (both of which have side-effects) and
oxygen administration.
|
|
Definition
Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia |
|
|
Term
Drugs which impair sterols |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Nystatin and amphotericin B |
|
|
Term
This polyene binds to cholesterol in blood lipoproteins and produces a high rate of side-effects, particularly in kidneys. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
These two drugs form large pores in fungal cell membranes, which allow leakage of vital cell constituents.
|
|
Definition
Nystatin and amphotericin B |
|
|
Term
Drugs which affect ergosterol synthesis
Give two examples |
|
Definition
Azole derivatives
ex:Imidazoles and Triazoles
|
|
|
Term
________ is administered orrally and is taken up by the fungus, converted to 5-fluorouracil and then metabolized into compounds which are inhibitory to either RNA or DNA function.
What is one advantage of this drug over amphotericin B |
|
Definition
5-flurocytosine
This drug is able to enter the CSF, whereas amphotericin B cannot |
|
|
Term
Drug that is administered orally and is active against dermatophytes, not has no effect on systemic mycoses
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inhibits the enzyme UDP-GIcNAc-3-enol-pyruvyltransferase that is involved in the first phase of cell wall synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fairly toxic and is generally only used as a secondary treatment for tuberculosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the two drugs that act on Phase II of cell wall synthesis |
|
Definition
Vancomycin and Bacitracin |
|
|
Term
Name the two drugs that act on Phase I of cell wall synthesis |
|
Definition
Fosfomycis and Cycloserine |
|
|
Term
Binds to the pentapeptide terminus and inhibits both transglycosylation and transpeptidation reactions during peptidoglycan assembly |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug is not effective against gram negative bacteria because of its inability to pass through the cell membrane (due to bulky size) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which antibiotic is used to treat gram positive infections caused by organisms that are resistant to beta-lactams |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Resistance to what antibiotic is mediated by changes in the pentapeptide terminus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A beta-lactam ring consists of 4 atoms, what are they? |
|
Definition
3 carbons and 1 nitrogen. |
|
|
Term
The enzymes involved in this final process of cell wall formation are called |
|
Definition
penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) |
|
|
Term
In cephalosporins, the beta-lactam ring is fused with a _____________ ring. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Beta-lactam antibiotic that is only effective against aerobic gram negative bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A beta-lactam antibiotic that has broad spectrum effects but, with resistance reported in oxacillin-resistant staphylococci and Pseudomonas
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Three general mechanisms of resistance to B-lactam antibiotics |
|
Definition
1) Prevention of the interaction between PBP and the antiobiotic
2) Modification of the interaction between PBP and the antibiotic
3) Hydrolysis of the antibiotic by B-lactamases |
|
|
Term
Drug that is bactericidal against actively replicating Mycobacteria by inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
High-molecular-weight octapeptides that inhibit Gram-negative bacteria by interacting with the membrane and increasing cell permeability.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antibiotic that is only used topically since it can form potent toxins, causing damage to the kidneys and nervous system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is mode of action of Polymyxins |
|
Definition
Interact with the cell membrane, leading to increased cell permeability. |
|
|
Term
One of the most widely used class of antibiotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of quinolones |
|
Definition
They are a synthetic agents that inhibit gyrase (usually gram -)or topoisomerase IV (usually gram +)thereby interfering with DNA replication, recombination, and repair. |
|
|
Term
Newer fluoroquinolones such as ________, have broader spectrum against both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nitroimidazols only inhibit _______ ________and ________ by causing breaks in strands of DNA. |
|
Definition
Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa |
|
|
Term
__________ is one of the most commonly used nitroimidazols
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gram negative bacteria are intrinsically resistant to the hydrophobic drug ________, because of decreased uptake of the drug
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mode of action for Rifamycins? |
|
Definition
Rifamycins (Rifampin, Rifabutin) bind to bacterial RNA polymerase and inhibit initiation of RNA synthesis
|
|
|
Term
_________ is bactericidal for M. tuberculosis and active against many Gram positive bacteria
|
|
Definition
Rifampin (a rifamycin drug) |
|
|
Term
Streptomycin is a member of which group of drugs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which group of drugs work synergistically with B-lactams |
|
Definition
Aminoglycosides
B-lactams increase their uptake. |
|
|
Term
Aminoglycosides are effective against many _________ and some ___________ bacteria
|
|
Definition
Gram-negative, Gram-positive |
|
|
Term
Tetracyclines are __________ (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) because they bind __________ to the 30S subunit. |
|
Definition
Bacteriostatic, reversibly |
|
|
Term
Tetracyclines block binding of __________ to the 30S ribosomal subunit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which family of drugs are broad spectrum
Used to treat a wide variety of infections caused by:
Chlamydia
Mycoplasma
Rickettsia
And a variety of other Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which classes of drugs inhibit the 30S ribosomal subunit |
|
Definition
Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines |
|
|
Term
Which classes of drugs target the 50S ribosomal unit |
|
Definition
Oxazolidinones, Lincosamides, Chloramphenicol,
Macrolides, Streptogramins
|
|
|
Term
Linezolid is the most commonly used _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which drug is active against gram positive cocci, including those resistant to penicillins, vancomycin, and aminoglycosides. |
|
Definition
Oxazolidinones (linezolid)
|
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action for Lincosamides |
|
Definition
Block protein elongation by binding to the 50S subunit of the ribosome |
|
|
Term
Lincosamides are active against _________ and anaerobic ____________ rods. |
|
Definition
Staphylococci, Gram-negative |
|
|
Term
Which antibiotics show cross-resistance with macrolides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are two examples of Lincosamide drugs. |
|
Definition
Lincomycin and its derivative Clindamycin |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action for Chloramphenicol
|
|
Definition
Binds reversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunit
(Bacteriostatic) |
|
|
Term
Which drug has a broad similar spectrum to tetracyclines, but is not commmonly used in America?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic (acetylation) is a resistance mechanism against which antibiotic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action for the macrolides
|
|
Definition
Binds reversibly to the 23S RNA component of the 50S ribosomal subunit
(bacteriostatic) |
|
|
Term
Most gram negative bacteria are resistant to this class of drugs that is primarily used to treat pulmonary infections
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin are drugs from which class |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Macrolides show cross-resistance which group of antibiotics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which class of drugs are cyclic peptides that are administered as a combination of two components.
Group A and Group B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For steptogramins
Group A component binds to the ______________ and facilitates binding of the _____________.
Group B component inhibits _____ _______. |
|
Definition
50S ribosomal subunit
chain elongation |
|
|
Term
Which class of antibiotics is most commonly used against staphylococci, streptococci and Enterococcus faecium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Folic acid is composed of which 3 components |
|
Definition
Pteridine, PABA, Glutamic acid |
|
|
Term
What is the main function of antimetabolites |
|
Definition
Interfere with folic acid synthesis |
|
|
Term
Two examples of antimetabolites are: |
|
Definition
Sulfonamides and Trimethoprims |
|
|
Term
Sulfonamides and Trimethoprims are __________ (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and have _______ range. |
|
Definition
Bacteriostatic
Broad range |
|
|
Term
The antimetabolite, ______________, p-aminosalicylic acid –is often used in combo with others (usually ________) for treatment of mycobacterial infections |
|
Definition
-p-aminosalicylic acid
isoniazid |
|
|
Term
Sulfonamides and Trimethoprims inhibit different steps of ____ ____ synthesis, and therefore, can be used ___________. |
|
Definition
folic acid
synergistically |
|
|
Term
One form of resistance is decreased affinity of dihydrofolate reductase for the drug, ________.
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Definition
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Term
Enterococci can use exogenous thymidine and are intrinsically resistant to which class of drugs
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Definition
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Term
Which method would be effective on materials that would be destroyed by heat (e.g. petri dishes, gloves, syringes)
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Definition
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Term
Which cleaning method is used only to clean, and does NOT sterilize materials. |
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Definition
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Term
Which method cleans through cavitation bubbles which losen attached materials. |
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Definition
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Term
Which cleaning method removes microorganisms from liquids that would be destroyed by heat
What are some examples of these liquids |
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Definition
Filtration
ex: enzymes, vaccines, antibiotics |
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Term
What is the approximate size of pores used in filtration |
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Definition
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Term
What are the 3 methods of sterilization monitoring.
Give an example of each
Which is most accurate? |
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Definition
Mechanical, Chemical, and Biological
Mechanical: monitor cycle length, pressure, or temperature
Chemical: use external or internal chemical indicators
Biological: Directly assess killing of known highly resistant microorganisms once per week mininimum.
Biological is only one that proves sterility |
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Term
What would be typical settings for an autoclave. |
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Definition
15 lbs/sq inch pressure for 15-20 min at 121oC
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Term
What are typical settings for hot air sterilization |
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Definition
160 degrees Celcius for 1-4 hrs. |
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Term
Alcohols are not effective against __________ bacteria. |
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Definition
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Term
disruption of cellular membranes, solubilization of lipids, and denaturation of proteins by acting directly on S-H functional groups are modes of action for what chemical |
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Definition
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Term
What are the recommended vaccines for health care workers |
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Definition
Influenza, MMR, VZV (live virus vaccine), HBV |
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Term
What is the change of getting HBV after a skin-puncture with a needle |
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Definition
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Term
Which organisms/proteins can survive autoclaving and most chemical treatments |
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Definition
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Term
One time use of critical instruments
Don't allow tissue to dry on instruments
Completely clean instruments and autoclave at 134 degrees Celcius for 18 minutes
These are precautions for which disease? |
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Definition
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Term
A word for the ability to cause fever. |
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Definition
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Term
Thrombosis: Formation of blood clot (thrombus) in heart or blood vessel
Thrombocytopenia: Abnormally low numbers of blood platelets
These are effects cause by what?
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Definition
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Term
The anthrax toxin contains 3 separate proteins: |
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Definition
Protective antigen (PA)
Edema factor (EF)
Lethal factor (LF) |
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Term
For which toxin does
B-subunit binds to Gb3 glycolipid receptor
A -subunit prevents binding of aminoacyl-transfer RNA by cleaving 28S rRNA from 60S ribosomal subunit resulting in inhibition of protein synthesis |
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Definition
Shiga toxin, from bacterium
Shigella dysenteriae |
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Term
Which toxin has an A-subunit that migrates to the CNS pre-synaptic nerve endings, builds up in vesicles and leads to continuous stimulation of muscles |
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Definition
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Term
Which toxin has an A-subunit that inhibits the release of acetylcholine at myoneural junctions resulting in flaccid paralysis and death |
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Definition
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Term
Which toxins inhibits leukocyte chemotaxis and activity |
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Definition
Adenylate cyclase toxin and Pertussis toxin from Bordetella sp. |
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Term
Phase variation is always ________ |
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Definition
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Term
Promoter inversions for E. coli type I pili and Salmonella flagellar genes are examples of what
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Definition
Site-specific recombination |
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