Term
What stabilizes higher order structures in proteins? |
|
Definition
- electrostatic attraction of charged residues (salt bridges/repulsive effects)
- internal H-bonding (specific distance and angle requirements)
- short range Van der Waals interactions and London dispersion forces of neutral charged residues
- entropy driven hydrophobicity (Gibbs free E change)
|
|
|
Term
Amino Acids that are likely to carry charges on side chains at neutral pH |
|
Definition
aspartic acid, glutamic acid, tyrosine, cysteine have negative charges
lysine, arginine, and histidine have positive charges |
|
|
Term
Zinc fingers, kringle domains, and leucine zippers are |
|
Definition
Zinc fingers
loop of 23 AA resulting from Zn ion being complexed to 4 AA, usually cysteines and histidines
Kringle domains
conserves seq that fold into large loops that are stabilized by 3 disulfide linkages. Impt in protein-protein interactions with blood coag factors.
Leucine Zippers
arrangments of leucines along one side of an alpha-helix btwn 2 proteins, so that protein can form dimers leaving basic AA regions to bind DNA |
|
|
Term
Ways Proteins Can Be Denatured
|
|
Definition
- detergents = straightens out protein (Na dodecyl sulfate makes peptide rodlike
- chaotropic agents - remove water to unsolubilize protein
- high temps (50-60 degrees C or higher)
- drastic pH changes
- organic solvents
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
when hydrophobic regions of protein in tertiary structure are moved inward and hydrophilic regions outward |
|
|
Term
In which human organ is myoglobin (Mb) most impt? |
|
Definition
heart b/c rapid O2 supply needed |
|
|
Term
Explain causes and importance of right shift in Hb/O2 binding curve |
|
Definition
right shift caused by:
decreased pH (increased [H+])
increased [CO2]
increased [2,3-BPG]
increased temperature
all factors lead to increased O2 unloading which means that a higher percentage of O2 is delivered to tissues |
|
|
Term
In Hb, how does binding of first oxygen molecule affect binding of next ones? |
|
Definition
Deoxy Hb is usually in taut (T) form where heme groups restricted and hard for O2 to bind
When O2 binds to 1st heme group, the Fe of that heme will shift and pull attached his along.
Movement breaks salt bridges pushing Hb into relaxed (R) state and allow more O2 binding sites to become available
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A right shift when pH decreases (increase in H+ conc.)
O2 release from Hb will increase when pH is lowered or [CO2] is high
Hb has decreased O2 affinity
Raising pH or decreasing [CO2]-shift curve to left |
|
|
Term
Physiological importance of cooperativity in Hb function |
|
Definition
Hb has 4 subunits where binding of O2 at one heme group increases the affinity for O2 of the other heme groups in the same molecule |
|
|
Term
Compare behavior of Mb and Hb with respect to O2, CO2, and H+ |
|
Definition
Mb has a greater affinity at lower [O2] than Hb
Hb can transport more molecules of O2 b/c of cooperative effect of multiple binding sites
Hb can't readily bind 1st O2, but once it does has higher affinity for O2 at other sites
Hb-sigmoidal curve
Mb-hyperbolic
Hb responds more readily to small changes in partial pressures of O2
Mb saturated quicker than Hb at low partial pressure of O2 (doesn't have much flexibility) |
|
|
Term
How does protein (globin) portion of Mb or Hb affect reactivity of heme? |
|
Definition
weaken strength of heme-O2 interaction. Heme binds O2 so strongly it can convert it to a superoxide anion, which can be an unwanted oxidizing agent
prevents interaction of oxy-heme groups with other oxy-heme groups |
|
|
Term
How and where does 2,3-BPG interact with Hb? |
|
Definition
2,3-BPG binds to deoxy Hb-makes it more stable and resistant to oxygenation after O2 delivery
negative charge allows BPG to bind to a site between two alpha chains
causes right shift in O2-dissociation curve (increase O2 release) |
|
|
Term
Where does 2,3-BPG come from? |
|
Definition
product of glycolytic pathway |
|
|
Term
How does fetal Hb (HbF) differ from HbA? |
|
Definition
Fetal Hb has two gamma chains instead of beta chains.
2,3-BPG can't bind to fetal Hb and it has greater affinity fo O2 and takes O2 from maternal Hb
HbF is left shifted on O2-dissociation curve compared to maternal Hb
|
|
|
Term
What does Hill Eqn describe? |
|
Definition
importance of cooperativity |
|
|
Term
How does NO interact w/ Hb and what is physiological significance of that interaction? |
|
Definition
Hb binds NO at heme Fe and cys residues in globin chain.
NO relaxant for vascular smooth muscle
Hb can pick up NO, stiffen vascular tissues, and increase BP
NO is strong vasodilator so Hb can be used to mediate vascular tone |
|
|
Term
What is difference btwn HbS and HbA? |
|
Definition
HbA has normal beta chain while HbS has sickle cell hemoglobin. 6th AA for normal beta globin would be a glutamic residue but in HbS that Glu is replaced with a Val. Val is uncharged and allows hydrophobic pockets. The chains bind together and crystallize |
|
|
Term
Physiochemical/Pathological Basis for All Clinical Manifestations of Sickle Cell Disease |
|
Definition
crystallization and stiffening of Hbs causes them to adhere to the endothelium and often obstruct small vessels (capillaries) or cause hemolysis
hemolysis can cause anemia and hyperbilirubinemia, causing pallor and jaundice
Complete vasocclusion can cause ishemia or infarction resulting in organ damage
Stroke, infection and excrutiating pain can result |
|
|
Term
How is Sickle Cell Disease Inherited? |
|
Definition
recessive disorder. Only homozygous HbS cause the disease to become expressed. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a protein catalyst for specific biochem rxns.
It will not undergo chem rxn itself and can be reused for other rxns |
|
|
Term
What does enzyme effect and not effect in rxn?
|
|
Definition
Enzymes reduce activation energy.
Keq and delta G are not affected by enzymes. |
|
|
Term
Name and describe 2 models used to describe enzyme specificity and/or catalytic activity |
|
Definition
lock and key model
describes an enzyme active sites (lock) being specific for binding substrate (key)
describe specificity
induced fit model
active site will conform to fit substrate
describes specificity and catalytic activity |
|
|
Term
What is prosthetic group? |
|
Definition
non-protein organic molecule that is tightly bound to enzyme active site
ex-heme, biotin, or flavin
holoenzyme-prosthetic group attached
apoenzyme-prosthetic group NOT attached |
|
|
Term
Name 6 Classes of Enzymes |
|
Definition
oxidoreductases-catalyze RED/OX reactions
Ex-H+ donor to substrate
transferases-transfer group from one molecule to another
Ex-phosphorylases
hydrolases-hydrolytic cleavage of bond
Ex-peptide bond cleavage
lyases-cleave bonds w/o water to leave double bond or addition of other groups to double bond
Ex-decarboxylase
isomerases-change geometry of molecule
Ex-cis-trans isomerase
ligases-join 2 molecules together though hydrolysis of high energy bond
Ex-carboxylase |
|
|
Term
What is Michaelis-Menton Eqn and what do terms mean? |
|
Definition
V = Vmax[S]/(Km+[S])
V - velocity of rxn
Vmax - max rxn velocity
[S] - substrate concentration
Km - constant value for a specific substrate
|
|
|
Term
In a Michaelis-Menton plot, where is Vmax and how do you find Km? |
|
Definition
Vmax - when [S] is very high
Km - [S] when V = 1/2(Vmax) |
|
|
Term
A Lineweaver-Burk plot is also called a --------- |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is plotted on Lineweaker-Burk plot and what are the x- and y-intercepts of the plot? |
|
Definition
The LB graph plots the inverse of the Michaelis-Menten plot, which is 1/V on the y-axis and 1/[S] on the x-axis
x-intercept - 1/Km
y-intercept - 1/Vmax |
|
|
Term
What are advantages of the Eadie-Hofstee plot? |
|
Definition
The E-H plot gives more evenly spaced data points than the L-B plot. |
|
|
Term
What characteristics distinguish a competitive inhibitor from the other types of inhibitors? |
|
Definition
bind directly to the active site and can be overcome by increased [substrate].
Other inhibitors bind to other sites on enzyme |
|
|
Term
On the Lineweaver-Burk plots are the vertical or horizontal intercepts the same or different for competitively inhibited rxns? |
|
Definition
same y-intercept
different x-intercepts |
|
|
Term
On the Lineweaver-Burk plots are the vertical or horizontal intercepts the same or different for non-competitively inhibited rxns? |
|
Definition
different y-intercepts
same x-intercepts |
|
|
Term
On the Lineweaver-Burk plots are the vertical or horizontal intercepts the same or different for uncompetitively inhibited rxns? |
|
Definition
different y-intercepts
different x-intercepts |
|
|
Term
What does inhibitor react with for competitive inhibition? |
|
Definition
active site of the enzyme |
|
|
Term
What does inhibitor react with for non-competitive inhibition? |
|
Definition
react with enzyme to reduce its effectiveness to bind w/ substrate |
|
|
Term
What does inhibitor react with for uncompetitive inhibition? |
|
Definition
bind with ES complex.
irreversible inhibitors. |
|
|
Term
Sigmoid V versus [S] plot and curved Lineweaver-Burk plots indicate |
|
Definition
allostery and positive cooperativity of the enzyme (n = 2) |
|
|
Term
What factors determine the amount of enzyme activity in serum? |
|
Definition
amount of tissue producing enzyme
rate of enzyme released
rate of enzyme inactivation/elimination from plasma |
|
|
Term
Define: Standard International Unit (SIU) |
|
Definition
1 standard international unit of enzyme activity converts 1 μM of substrate/minute |
|
|
Term
2 most commonly measured serum aminotransferases and describe rxns they catalyze |
|
Definition
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) - catalyzes exhange of amino group between alpha amino acids (aspartate) and alpha keto acids
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) - catalyzes exchange of amino group between alpha amino acids (alanine) and alpha keto acids |
|
|
Term
In which pathological states are the two most commonly measured serum aminotransferases elevated? |
|
Definition
AST - liver damage and myocardial cells,hemolysed blood
ALT - liver damage |
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by γ-glutamyltranspeptidase and how it is used diagnostically? |
|
Definition
Glutathione + amino acids → γ-glutamyl-amino acid + cys-gly
γ-glutamyltranspeptidase found in kidney, intestine, liver, and fetal tissue
GGT levels are elevated and very sensitive in liver damage
|
|
|
Term
2 commonly measured phosphatases and how are they used diagnostically? |
|
Definition
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Hydrolyzes phosphate groups from organic monophosphate at pH~9
Found in liver, bone, intestine, and placental tissue
Elevation of ALP means damage to liver and bone tissue
Elevated in gowing children, bone fractures, and pregnant women
Acid Phosphatase
hydrolyzes phosphate groups from organic monophosphates at pH~5
found in prostate, platelets, and erythrocytes
Elevation found in metastatic prostate cancer and hemolysed blood samples
|
|
|
Term
Diagnostic utility of LDH |
|
Definition
Used to detect MI and hemolysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Most common form is LDH2 (HHHM)
After MI or hemolysis, LDH1 (HHHH) predominates causing a "flipped" LDH b/c LDH1>LDH2 |
|
|
Term
What reaction does LDH catalyze? |
|
Definition
Lactate + NAD → pyruvate + NADH + H
interconversion of pyruvate and lactate |
|
|
Term
Another name for alpha hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase (HBD)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does elevated serum HBD mean? |
|
Definition
damage to myocardial cells due to recent MI |
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by CK (CPK) |
|
Definition
creatine phosphate + ADP → Creatine + ATP |
|
|
Term
Diagnostic meaning of elevated serum CK |
|
Definition
has 2 subunits, M and B
MB-MI or brief ischemia
MM-vigorous exercise, injection, convulsions
BB-neural tissue damage |
|
|
Term
Diagnostic significance of elevated serum amylase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by serum amylase |
|
Definition
starch + H2O → maltose, maltotriose & limit dextrins
digest starch |
|
|
Term
Elevated serum lipase means |
|
Definition
pancreatic pathology
morphine |
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by serum lipase |
|
Definition
trigylceride + H2O → fatty acids + glycerol
fat digestion |
|
|
Term
What are troponins and how are they used in diagnosis? |
|
Definition
proteins that function in the contractile apparatus of the muscle
Cardiac troponin I is increased in plasma 3-6 hours after MI |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme Levels in crush injury |
|
Definition
mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase (healing bone)
elevated creatine kinase MM (skeletal muscle) |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme Levels in vigorous exercise |
|
Definition
elevated creatine kinase MM (skeletal muscle) |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme levels in morphine injection |
|
Definition
elevation of serum amylase and lipase |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme Levels in pregnancy |
|
Definition
mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase (bone growth)
elevated GGT |
|
|
Term
Four Categories of Cell Adhesion Molecules |
|
Definition
integrins
immunoglobulin superfamily
cadherins
selectins |
|
|
Term
Which of the CAM categories would be actively involved in transmitting signals from the inside to the outisde of the cells and vice versa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What CAM category is involved in adherens junction between cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Abbreviations for 3 types of adhesion molecules of Ig suberfamily and tell their origins |
|
Definition
NCAM - neural cell adhesion molecule
PECAM - platelet-endothelial cell adhesion molecule
VCAM - vascular cell adhesion molecule
Named for their similarity in structure to the Igs |
|
|
Term
4 Diseases in which CAMS are involved |
|
Definition
Rheumatoid arthritis - overexpression of VCAMs
Psoriasis - form of an integrin
Pemphigus vulgaris - autoantibodies interacting with desmoglein
von Willebrand disease - expression of P-selectin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
tightly coiled, stabilized by H bonding btwn imido groups and oxygen of carbony groups, many helices (3.6 AA/turn) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
regions of same chain or neighboring chains bond to each other w/ H bonds, the H bonds are perependicular to the long axis of the chain
most stable conformation - antiparallel sheets (one side N→C other side C→N |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
H bonding of AA 3 sequences apart in same chain
results in U turn bend of chain |
|
|
Term
What AA usually phosphoylated in proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Commonly occurring modification of AA found in some proteins |
|
Definition
acetylation of N terminus
carboxylation - add COOH
hydroylation - add OH
glycosylation - add glucose
phosphorylation - add phosphate group
disulfide linkages |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
alpha helix
beta-pleated sheets
beta-turns
random coiling
results from free roation of bonds besides peptide bonds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
secondary structures fold on each other
hydrophobic - inside
hydrophilic - outside |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
multiple polypeptide chains interact by noncovalent bonds to form single structure |
|
|
Term
General Solubility Prop. of Proteins |
|
Definition
fibrous and insoluble
globular and soluble
firbrous and soluble |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
structural roles
enzymes
role in contractile structures
transport (Hb)
hormones
receptors
Abs |
|
|
Term
What are proteins and peptides made of? |
|
Definition
peptides - moderate chain length polymers of amino acids joined by peptide bonds
proteins - polymeric compounds composed of AA joined by peptide bonds |
|
|
Term
What is unique about peptide bond? |
|
Definition
it is rigid b/c tautomerism |
|
|
Term
In ABO blood group, where is difference in oligosaccharide located and how sugars different? |
|
Definition
due to presence or absence of N-acetyl-galactosamine or galactose linked to penultimate galactose by C1-C3 linkage
1 sugar difference |
|
|
Term
Glycosaminoglycans and 2 Ex |
|
Definition
unbranched polysacc w/ repeating disacc - one is AA, other is uronic acid
Ex - hyaluronic acid and heparin |
|
|
Term
3 Impt Disacc and which alpha or beta linked? |
|
Definition
maltose - alpha linked
sucrose - alpha linked
lactose - beta linked |
|
|
Term
3 Most Impt polysacc and what are linkages? Why is linkage impt? |
|
Definition
starch - alpha linked (spiral)
glycogen - 2 types - alpha C1-C4 (linear)
alpha C1-C6 (branched)
cellulose - beta linked (linear)
alpha and beta linkage affects the shape of the compound and humans can't digest cellulose b/c beta linkages |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
anomeric -OH group of sugar reacts w/ another -OH compound
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
compound that attaches to anomeric C of sugar |
|
|
Term
Name and describe 2 commonly found mod. of sugars |
|
Definition
amino sugar - -OH group replaced by amino group
Ex - glucosamine, galactosamine
deoxy sugar - 1 OH group replaced by H
Ex - 2-deoxyribose |
|
|
Term
2 conformation of 6-membered rings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is mutarotation and where does it take place? |
|
Definition
configuration changes in molecule by ring opening and closing
occurs at anomeric C |
|
|
Term
Pyran and furan are named after which sugar structures and how many Cs are in each? |
|
Definition
pyranose - 6 C ring
furanose - 5 C ring |
|
|
Term
Most Impt Monosacc and Polysacc made up of this monosacc |
|
Definition
glucose - most impt monosacc
Polysacc made up of glucose - starch
cellulose
glycogen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
monosaccharides w/ aldehyde group |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
monosaccharides w/ ketone group |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or compounts that can by hydrolyzed to these |
|
|
Term
Two Ex of Differences Between Identical Twins that Illustrate that Environment plays a role in development and health |
|
Definition
fingerprints are different of two twins - different positions in womb
type I diabetes - if one gets, less than 1/2 the time other twin gets |
|
|
Term
What percentage of live births suffer from a disease causing monogenic defect?
|
|
Definition
1/100 or 1% of libe births suffer from a monogenic defect |
|
|
Term
What percentage of live births suffer from a disease-causing chromosomal abnormality? |
|
Definition
1/1000 or 0.1% of live births suffer from a disease-causing chromosomal abnormality |
|
|
Term
How many of the chromosomes are X chromosomes? |
|
Definition
normal female - 2 X chromosomes
normal male - 1 X chromosome |
|
|
Term
How many chromosomes are Y chromosomes? |
|
Definition
normal female - 0 Y chromosomes
normal male - 1 Y chromosome |
|
|
Term
How many of the chromosomes are considered autosomes? |
|
Definition
44 (22 from father, 22 from mother) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a chromosome that is not a sex chromosome |
|
|
Term
4 trisomies for which live birth are possible |
|
Definition
trisomy 13
trisomy 18
trisomy 21
trisomy X
XYY |
|
|
Term
Which of the 4 trisomies produces mild to undetectable symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which trisomy is otherwise known as Down's syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Klinefelter's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
male
testicular failure
can't conceive |
|
|
Term
What is Turner's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
X-
sexually immature
short
web neck
phenotypically female |
|
|
Term
How does x-linked disease inheritance differ from inheritance of an autosomal disease? |
|
Definition
lack of male to male transmission
gender-dependent
x-linked gene comes from mother on X chromosome only, but can affect both males and females, through mostly males show disease
autosomal come from chromosomes other than sex chromosome |
|
|
Term
How does inheritance of a mitochondrial disease differ from the inheritance of an autosomal disease? |
|
Definition
An autosomal disease passes on one allele from the mother and one allele from the father
A mitochrondrial disease has only one allele from the female/mother only and all offspring will show some degree of the disease |
|
|
Term
Which will probably have greatest number of offspring who suffer from an inherited disease (may be more than one):
A. parents both heterozygous for autosomal recessive disease
B. parents both heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disease
C. a father who suffers from an X-linked recessive disease and a mother who is homozygous wild type (has only well type of disease gene)
D. a mother who is heterozygous for an x-linked recessive disease and a father who is wild type hemizygous (has the well form of that disease gene)
E. a father who suffers from a mitochondrial disease and a mother who does not at all have it
|
|
Definition
B. parents both heterozygous for a dominant disease will have greatest # of offspring |
|
|
Term
Of these, which will probably have the least number of offspring who suffer from an inherited disease (may be more than one):
A. parents both heterozygous for autosomal recessive disease
B. parents both heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disease
C. a father who suffers from an X-linked recessive disease and a mother who is homozygous wild type (has only well type of disease gene)
D. a mother who is heterozygous for an x-linked recessive disease and a father who is wild type hemizygous (has the well form of that disease gene)
E. a father who suffers from a mitochondrial disease and a mother who does not have it
|
|
Definition
E. a male who suffers from mitochondrial disease and a female who does not
C. a father who suffers from an x-linked recessive disease and a mother who is homozygous wild type (has only well type of disease gene) |
|
|
Term
Explain how penetrance might mean that individuals with disease symptoms might not be observed in a pedigree |
|
Definition
Just because genotypically the person has the disease doesn't mean they express it phenotypically |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
genotype-genetic makeup
phenotype-physical manifestation |
|
|
Term
How does penetrance affect onset of hereditary hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
used to be thought rare
now known as the most common hereditary disease in the USA |
|
|
Term
What environmental factors affect the onset of hereditary hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
gender - females under 50 not have disease (menstrual cycle expels excess iron)
blood donations
diet - not enough Fe normally and you make most of Fe intake
alcohol consumption
environment |
|
|
Term
Why does an X-linked disease such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy seldom cause symptoms in females? |
|
Definition
X-inactivation and that males with the defect do not reproduce.
Females need both x's to be defective in order the x-recessive diseases to show
females have two x's |
|
|
Term
A newly inherited disease has been discovered in which the disease ocuurs only when the defect is inherited from the father. The disease gene has what pattern of genetic inheritance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is meant by "a genetic disease is never inherited"? |
|
Definition
A defect that if inherited would prevent the survival of the fetus and/or prevent reproduction of the fetus |
|
|
Term
What disease is a genetic disease in which the mutations that cause it often occur after birth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tay Sachs inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
cystic fibrosis inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
sickle cell anemia inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Huntington disease inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
hereditary hemochromatosis type of inheritance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Duchenne muscular dystropy inheritannce type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
familial hypercholesterolemia inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Leber's hereditary optic neutopathy type of inheritance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
genetic defect in Huntington disease |
|
Definition
a triplet repeat of CAG (glutamines) amino acids that encode for polyglutamine tract.
Normally - ≤ 34
Have Disease - ≥ 37 |
|
|
Term
most common inherited disease in the USA |
|
Definition
hereditary hemochromatosis |
|
|
Term
Is hereditary hemochromatosis fatal w/o txt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most common lethal inherited disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What protein in defective in cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is what organ is the defect of cystic fibrosis most problematic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What problem generally causes death in cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
lung infections caused by P. aeroginosa
accumulates in lungs and destroys lining |
|
|
Term
What does the protein involved in cystic fibrosis do to promote the eventually fatal action that happens? |
|
Definition
CFTR used to clear out bacteria from lungs
dysfunctional in CF and can't remove bacteria anymore
lungs get destoyed by inhaled bacteria (P. aeroginosa) |
|
|
Term
2 inherited diseases that protect against infectious disease and what they protect against |
|
Definition
cystic fibrosis - protect from typhoid fever
sickle cell anemia - protects from malaria |
|
|
Term
Enzyme defective in Tay Sachs disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What builds up and where does it build up in Tay Sachs? |
|
Definition
glycosphinogolipids build up in the brain |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of Tay Sachs? |
|
Definition
mental retardation
blindness
paralysis
muscle atrophy
cherry red spot on retina |
|
|
Term
Is hexosaminidase A the only enzyme that is involved in trimming sugars off glycosphinolipids that is defective in disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is class of diseases that involve defective enzymes involved in trimming sugars off of glycosphingolipids? |
|
Definition
sphinogolipid storage disorders |
|
|
Term
3 monogenic or polygenic diseases |
|
Definition
hypertension
cardiovascular disease
type 2 diabetes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
anencephaly
spina bifida
cleft lip/palate
alchoholism
asthma
bipolar disorder
inherited epilepsy
idiopathic gout
obesity
schizophrenizia
type I diabetes |
|
|
Term
3 inherited monogenic diseases that cause hypertension |
|
Definition
glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism
apparent mineralocorticoid excess
Liddle syndrome |
|
|
Term
polygenic syndrome that is generally considered cause of most hypertension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 genes that have been associated with type 1 diabetes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name genes that have been associated with a monogenic disease that may be though of as type 2 diabetes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 genes that have been associated with polygenic type 2 diabetes |
|
Definition
PPAR-gamma
glucokinase
calpain 10 |
|
|
Term
Are all individuals with a defect in one of the genes associated with polygenic type 2 diabetes going to develop the disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these genes associated with type 2 diabetes has been found in 85% of the world population? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following infectious diseases is NOT thought to be protected against by an inherited genetic mutation or deletion (may be more than one):
A. HIV
B. typhoid fever
C. anthrax
D. malaria
E. leprosy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a "snip" and with what frequency are SNPs encountered in human DNA? |
|
Definition
single nucleotide polymorphisms
1:300 bps |
|
|
Term
A patient has the form of the gene that cause Huntington's (20 repeats). The patient asks about a "gray area" in testing and whether the result in certain.
What do you say? |
|
Definition
some people have an intermediate number of repeats (mid-30s) but for someone with 20 repeats the test is certain. |
|
|
Term
You are treating a case of erythroblastosis fetalis, a disease of the fetus in pregnancy. This is most often caused by isoimmune reaction to the D antigen, which is one of the antigens responsible for the Rh blood group. Abs developed by the Rh- mother "attack" an Rh+ fetus's RBCs leading to hemolysis. You want to quickly counsel the expecting couple about the likelihood the offspring will have another Rh+ fetus. The antigen is inherited in autosomal domianant fashion so you know the mother is
homozygous for the genes that make her Rh-. The father knows he is Rh+ so you able to advise them that on avg?
AND
You ask the father if he has previously fathered an Rh- child and he says YES you are able to advise that on avg?
AND
if the father says that has has fathered an Rh- child and he instead says NO you are able to advise that on avg? |
|
Definition
the info given you can't determine the likelihood of the disease for their future offspring
the info given you can't determine the likelihood of the disease for their future offspring
50% of their offspring will suffer from the disease
|
|
|
Term
autosomal recessive homozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
autosomal recessive heterozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
autosomal dominant homozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
autosomal dominant heterozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
x-linked recessive hemizygous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
x-linked recessive heterozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
x-linked recessive homozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mitochondrial, only father has disease
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mitochondrial, only mother has disease
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some ways DNA is obtained from children and adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 forms of prenatal diagnosis of inherited disease that utilized together cover most of period between 10 weeks of gestation through birth and rate of fetal loss associated w/ each? |
|
Definition
chorionic villus sampling (CVS) - 0.5-1.0% loss
ultrasound - 0% loss
cordocentesis- 1-2% loss |
|
|
Term
What does preimplantation diagnosis of in vitro eggs allow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many inherited diseases does FL screen for?
What do these diseases have in common that makes them a good idea to screen for?
What instrument made possible the recent expansion in the number of diseases screened in FL and does it analyze sequences or metabolites? |
|
Definition
35 diseases screened in FL
cause early damage and effective txt exists
tandem mass spectrometry-analyzes metabolites |
|
|
Term
Advantages of screening for genetic diseases by DNA sequencing |
|
Definition
may catch a patient gives a false - by another method
easier, less expensive to do in quantity than biochem assays
heritage and fam history of person gives info about what diseases and mutations to look for
it is predictive (before symptom onset) |
|
|
Term
Disadvantages of screening by DNA sequencing |
|
Definition
false negatives due to gene mutation being in unexpected location in gene
limited coverage of test - only test for specific disease, might miss others
may have added expenses due to patented genes |
|
|
Term
% frequency of two most often occuring mutations in CTFR genes
Any high frequency mutations in familial hypercholesterimia genes? |
|
Definition
70% and 2.5%
no, high freq mutations in FH genes |
|
|
Term
Gene defect that resulted in fava beans causing health problems in Greece and primaquine causing health problems in WW2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Knowledge of person's VKORC1 and CYP2C9 seq can help you decide what about a patient?
What other seq can be screened? |
|
Definition
drug dosage and type
P450 screened also
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
use sequence info to make decisions about a drug |
|
|
Term
A 27 y/o patient's father has been diagnosed with Huntington disease. It would be important to: |
|
Definition
tell the patient there is a test involving DNA seq to show if he will suffer from Huntington disease later in life |
|
|
Term
Is Cushing syndrome characterized as a cancer b/c it involves overgrowth of cells (a tumor) in the adrenal gland that produces cortisol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can be involved in genesis of cancer and which always involved? |
|
Definition
bacteria
viruses
inherited predispositions
gene defects - always involved
enviro causes
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
growth signal transduction genes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why can hEGFR be considered a protooncogene and how might become an oncogene? |
|
Definition
protooncogene b/c it is a growth-stimulating gene
can become oncogene if its activity starts to result in uncontrolled growth
|
|
|
Term
Gene A loses activity w/ certain mutation.
Is the normal gene a tumor suppressor, oncogne, anti-oncogne, or proto-oncogene? |
|
Definition
tumor suppressor and anti-oncogene for both normal and mutant genes |
|
|
Term
characteristics of matrix metalloproteinases and involved in what cancerous process |
|
Definition
protein/enzymes that require a metal (Zn or Ca) ion to break down proteins in ECM of cell
involved in metastasis |
|
|
Term
Tumorigenic cells for cancer therapy |
|
Definition
only some cells in tumor can generate new tumor
if can treat or cut out those cells, then localize tumor and control metastasis |
|
|
Term
Unique Characteristic of PARs |
|
Definition
proteolytically remove N-terminus of receptor itself and new N-terminus is the ligand that activates receptor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
[ligand] for 1/2 max occupancy of receptors
measure affinity of ligand for receptor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
[ligand] for 1/2 max response
effectiveness in eliciting cellular response |
|
|
Term
largest superfamily of receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What family of receptors facilitates addiction to tobacco? |
|
Definition
ionotropic nicotinic Ach-R |
|
|
Term
Differences and Similarities in Intracellular Receptors |
|
Definition
some reside in cytoplasm until encounter ligands-glucocorticoid and aldosterone-Rs
most reside full time in nucleus
receptor ligand complex acts on nucleus by binds to DNA and affecting expression (turn on/off expression) |
|
|
Term
concentration of albumin in serum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 functions of plasma albumin |
|
Definition
fatty acid transport
bilirubin transport
transport of steroid hormones
transport of sulta drugs, penicillin, aspirin |
|
|
Term
Plasma protein degraded randomly at a rate of 100%/day. What is biological half life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most abundant alpha-1 globulin?
Function?
Clinical result of its absence? |
|
Definition
alpha-1 antiprotease
protease inhibitor on compounds such as elastase and collagenase
prevents proteolysis in lungs
lung loses ability to recoil after inspiration leading to emphysema and respiratory failure |
|
|
Term
organ albumin is synthesized in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
major class of proteins NOT synthesized in liver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most abundant of plasma proteins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how are fatty acids transported in plasma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
major fetal plasma protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports iron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports cortisol |
|
Definition
cortisol-binding globulin (alpha-1 globulin)
|
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports vitamin A derivitives |
|
Definition
retinol-binding protein (alpha-1 globulin) |
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports testosterone |
|
Definition
sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)
beta-globulin |
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports bilirubin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What ahppens to free hemoglobin in plasma? |
|
Definition
degraded by reticulothelial cells |
|
|
Term
What would happen to hemoglobin in plasma if haptoglobin were absent? |
|
Definition
iron would be lost due to Hb breakdown.
Hb is lost through the kidney and excreted in urine. |
|
|
Term
blue protein and what is its function |
|
Definition
ceruloplasmin
blue b/c of copper
oxidize Fe 2+ Fe 3+ in plasma
low levels found in Wilson's disease |
|
|