Term
In which human organ is myoglobin (Mb) most impt? |
|
Definition
heart b/c rapid O2 supply needed |
|
|
Term
Explain causes and importance of right shift in Hb/O2 binding curve |
|
Definition
right shift caused by:
decreased pH (increased [H+])
increased [CO2]
increased [2,3-BPG]
increased temperature
all factors lead to increased O2 unloading which means that a higher percentage of O2 is delivered to tissues |
|
|
Term
In Hb, how does binding of first oxygen molecule affect binding of next ones? |
|
Definition
Deoxy Hb is usually in taut (T) form where heme groups restricted and hard for O2 to bind
When O2 binds to 1st heme group, the Fe of that heme will shift and pull attached his along.
Movement breaks salt bridges pushing Hb into relaxed (R) state and allow more O2 binding sites to become available
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A right shift when pH decreases (increase in H+ conc.)
O2 release from Hb will increase when pH is lowered or [CO2] is high
Hb has decreased O2 affinity
Raising pH or decreasing [CO2]-shift curve to left |
|
|
Term
Physiological importance of cooperativity in Hb function |
|
Definition
Hb has 4 subunits where binding of O2 at one heme group increases the affinity for O2 of the other heme groups in the same molecule |
|
|
Term
Compare behavior of Mb and Hb with respect to O2, CO2, and H+ |
|
Definition
Mb has a greater affinity at lower [O2] than Hb
Hb can transport more molecules of O2 b/c of cooperative effect of multiple binding sites
Hb can't readily bind 1st O2, but once it does has higher affinity for O2 at other sites
Hb-sigmoidal curve
Mb-hyperbolic
Hb responds more readily to small changes in partial pressures of O2
Mb saturated quicker than Hb at low partial pressure of O2 (doesn't have much flexibility) |
|
|
Term
How does protein (globin) portion of Mb or Hb affect reactivity of heme? |
|
Definition
weaken strength of heme-O2 interaction. Heme binds O2 so stronglyit can convert it to a superoxide anion, which can be an unwanted oxidizing agent
prevents interaction of oxy-heme groups with other oxy-heme groups |
|
|
Term
How and where does 2,3-BPG interact with Hb? |
|
Definition
2,3-BPG binds to deoxy Hb-makes it more stable and resistant to oxygenation after O2 delivery
negative charge allows BPG to bind to a site between two alpha chains
causes right shift in O2-dissociation curve (lower O2 release) |
|
|
Term
Where does 2,3-BPG come from? |
|
Definition
product of glycolytic pathway |
|
|
Term
How does fetal Hb (HbF) differ from HbA? |
|
Definition
Fetal Hb has two gamma chains instead of beta chains.
2,3-BPG can't bind to fetal Hb and it has greater affinity fo O2 and takes O2 from maternal Hb
HbF is left shifted on O2-dissociation curve compared to maternal Hb
|
|
|
Term
What does Hill Eqn describe? |
|
Definition
importance of cooperativity |
|
|
Term
How does NO interact w/ Hb and what is physiological significance of that interaction? |
|
Definition
Hb binds NO at heme Fe and cys residues in globin chain.
NO relaxant for vascular smooth muscle
Hb can pick up NO, stiffen vascular tissues, and increase BP
NO is strong vasodilator so Hb can be used to mediate vascular tone |
|
|
Term
What is difference btwn HbS and HbA? |
|
Definition
HbA has normal beta chain while HbS has sickly cell hemoglobin. 6th AA for normal beta globin would be a glutamic residue but in HbS that Glu is replaced with a Val. Val is uncharged and allows hydrophobic pockets. The chains bind together and crystallize |
|
|
Term
Physiochemical/Pathological Basis for All Clinical Manifestations of Sickle Cell Disease |
|
Definition
crystallization and stiffening of Hbs causes them to adhere to the endothelium and often obstruct small vessels (capillaries) or cause hemolysis
hemolysis can cause anemia and hyperbilirubinemia, causing pallor and jaundice
Complete vasocclusion can cause ishemia or infarction resulting in organ damage
Stroke, infection and excrutiating pain can result |
|
|
Term
How is Sickle Cell Disease Inherited? |
|
Definition
recessive disorder. Only homozygous HbS cause the disease to become expressed. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a protein catalyst for specific biochem rxns.
It will not undergo chem rxnitself and can be reused for other rxns |
|
|
Term
What does enzyme effect and not effect in rxn?
|
|
Definition
Enzymes reduce activation energy.
Keq and delta G are not affected by enzymes. |
|
|
Term
Name and describe 2 models used to describe enzyme specificity and/or catalytic activity |
|
Definition
lock and key model
describes an enzyme active sites (lock) being specific for binding substrate (key)
describe specificity
induced fit model
active site will conform to fit substrate
describes specificity and catalytic activity |
|
|
Term
What is prosthetic group? |
|
Definition
non-protein organic molecule that is tightly bound to enzyme active site
ex-heme, biotin, or flavin
holoenzyme-prosthetic group attached
apoenzyme-prosthetic group NOT attached |
|
|
Term
Name 6 Classes of Enzymes |
|
Definition
oxidoreductases-catalyze RED/OX reactions
Ex-H+ donor to substrate
transferases-transfer group from one molecule to another
Ex-phosphoylases
hydrolases-hydrolytic cleavage of bond
Ex-peptide bond cleavage
lyases-cleave bonds w/o water to leave double bond or addition of other groups to double bond
Ex-decarboxylase
isomerases-change geometry of molecule
Ex-cis-trans isomerase
ligases-join 2 molecules together though hydrolysis of high energy bond
Ex-carboxylase |
|
|
Term
What is Michaelis-Menton Eqn and what do terms mean? |
|
Definition
V = Vmax[S]/(Km+[S])
V - velocity of rxn
Vmax - max rxn velocity
[S] - substrate concentration
Km - constant value for a specific substrate
|
|
|
Term
In a Michaelis-Menton plot, where is Vmax and how do you find Km? |
|
Definition
Vmax - when [S] is very high
Km - [S] when V = 1/2(Vmax) |
|
|
Term
A Lineweaver-Burk plot is also called a --------- |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is plotted on Lineweaker-Burk plot and what are the x- and y-intercepts of the plot? |
|
Definition
The LB graph plots the inverse of the Michaelis-Menten plot, which is 1/V on the y-axis and 1/[S] on the x-axis
x-intercept - 1/Km
y-intercept - 1/Vmax |
|
|
Term
What are advantages of the Eadie-Hofstee plot? |
|
Definition
The E-H plot gives more evenly spaced data points than the L-B plot. |
|
|
Term
What characteristics distinguish a competitive inhibitor from the other types of inhibitors? |
|
Definition
bind directly to the active site and can be overcome by increased [substrate].
Other inhibitors bind to other sites on enzyme |
|
|
Term
On the Lineweaver-Burk plots are the vertical or horizontal intercepts the same or different for competitively inhibited rxns? |
|
Definition
same y-intercept
different x-intercepts |
|
|
Term
On the Lineweaver-Burk plots are the vertical or horizontal intercepts the same or different for non-competitively inhibited rxns? |
|
Definition
different y-intercepts
same x-intercepts |
|
|
Term
On the Lineweaver-Burk plots are the vertical or horizontal intercepts the same or different for uncompetitively inhibited rxns? |
|
Definition
different y-intercepts
different x-intercepts |
|
|
Term
What does inhibitor react with for competitive inhibition? |
|
Definition
active site of the enzyme |
|
|
Term
What does inhibitor react with for non-competitive inhibition? |
|
Definition
react with enzyme to reduce its effectiveness to bind w/ substrate |
|
|
Term
What does inhibitor react with for uncompetitive inhibition? |
|
Definition
bind with ES complex.
irreversible inhibitors. |
|
|
Term
Sigmoid V versus [S] plot and curved Lineweaver-Burk plots indicate |
|
Definition
allostery and positive cooperativity of the enzyme (n = 2) |
|
|
Term
What factors determine the amount of enzyme activity in serum? |
|
Definition
amount of tissue producing enzyme
rate of enzyme released
rate of enzyme inactivation/elimination from plasma |
|
|
Term
Define: Standard International Unit (SIU) |
|
Definition
1 standard international unit of enzyme activity converts 1 μM of substrate/minute |
|
|
Term
2 most commonly measured serum aminotransferases and describe rxns they catalyze |
|
Definition
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) - catalyzes exhange of amino group between alpha amino acids (aspartate) and alpha keto acids
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) - catalyzes exchange of amino group between alpha amino acids (alanine) and alpha keto acids |
|
|
Term
In which pathological states are the two most commonly measured serum aminotransferases elevated? |
|
Definition
AST - liver damage and myocardial cells,hemolysed blood
ALT - liver damage |
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by γ-glutamyltranspeptidase and how it is used diagnostically? |
|
Definition
Glutathione + amino acids → γ-glutamyl-amino acid + cys-gly
γ-glutamyltranspeptidase found in kidney, intestine, liver, and fetal tissue
GGT levels are elevated and very sensitive in liver damage
|
|
|
Term
2 commonly measured phosphatases and how are they used diagnostically? |
|
Definition
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Hydrolyzez phosphate groups from organic monophosphate at pH~9
Found in liver, bone, intestine, and placental tissue
Elevation of ALP means damage to liver and bone tissue
Elevated in gowing children, bone fractures, and pregnant women
Acid Phosphatase
hydrolyzes phosphate groups from organic monophosphates at pH~5
found in prostate, platelets, and erythrocytes
Elevation found in metastatic prostate cancer and hemolysed blood samples
|
|
|
Term
Diagnostic utility of LDH |
|
Definition
Used to detect MI and hemolysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Most common form is LDH2 (HHHM)
After MI or hemolysis, LDH1 (HHHH) predominates causing a "flipped" LDH b/c LDH1>LDH2 |
|
|
Term
What reaction does LDH catalyze? |
|
Definition
Lactate + NAD → pyruvate + NADH + H
interconversion of pyruvate and lactate |
|
|
Term
Another name for alpha hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase (HBD)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does elevated serum HBD mean? |
|
Definition
damage to myocardial cells due to recent MI |
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by CK (CPK) |
|
Definition
creatine phosphate + ADP → Creatine + ATP |
|
|
Term
Diagnostic meaning of elevated serum CK |
|
Definition
has 2 subunits, M and B
MB-MI or brief ischemia
MM-vigorous exercise, injection, convulsions
BB-neural tissue damage |
|
|
Term
Diagnostic significance of elevated serum amylase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by serum amylase |
|
Definition
starch + H2O → maltose, maltotriose & limit dextrins
digest starch |
|
|
Term
Elevated serum lipase means |
|
Definition
pancreatic pathology
morphine |
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by serum lipase |
|
Definition
trigylceride + H2O → fatty acids + glycerol
fat digestion |
|
|
Term
What are troponins and how are they used in diagnosis? |
|
Definition
proteins that function in the contractile apparatus of the muscle
Cardiac troponin I is increased in plasma 3-6 hours after MI |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme Levels in crush injury |
|
Definition
mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase (healing bone)
elevated creatine kinase MM (skeletal muscle) |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme Levels in vigorous exercise |
|
Definition
elevated creatine kinase MM (skeletal muscle) |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme levels in morphine injection |
|
Definition
elevation of serum amylase and lipase |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme Levels in pregnancy |
|
Definition
mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase (bone growth)
elevated GGT |
|
|
Term
Four Categories of Cell Adhesion Molecules |
|
Definition
integrins
immunoglobulin superfamily
cadherins
selectins |
|
|
Term
Which of the CAM categories would be actively involved in transmitting signals from the inside to the outisde of the cells and vice versa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What CAM category is involved in adherens junction between cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Abbreviations for 3 types of adhesion molecules of Ig suberfamily and tell their origins |
|
Definition
NCAM - neural cell adhesion molecule
PECAM - platelet-endothelial cell adhesion molecule
VCAM - vascular cell adhesion molecule
Named for their similarity in structure to the Igs |
|
|
Term
4 Diseases in which CAMS are involved |
|
Definition
Rheumatoid arthritis - overexpression of VCAMs
Psoriasis - form of an integrin
Pemphigus vulgaris - autoantibodies interacting with desmoglein
von Willebrand disease - expression of P-selectin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
tightly coiled, stabilized by H bonding btwn imido groups and oxygen of carbony groups, many helices (3.6 AA/turn) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
regions of same chain or neighboring chains bond to each other w/ H bonds, the H bonds are perependicular to the long axis of the chain
most stable conformation - antiparallel sheets (one side N→C other side C→N |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
H bonding of AA 3 sequences apart in same chain
results in U turn bend of chain |
|
|
Term
What AA usually phosphoylated in proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Commonly occurring modification of AA found in some proteins |
|
Definition
acetylation of N terminus
carboxylation - add COOH
hydroylation - add OH
glycosylation - add glucose
phosphorylation - add phosphate group
disulfide linkages |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
alpha helix
beta-pleated sheets
beta-turns
random coiling
results from free roation of bonds besides peptide bonds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
secondary structures fold on each other
hydrophobic - inside
hydrophilic - outside |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
multiple polypeptide chains interact by noncovalent bonds to form single structure |
|
|
Term
General Solubility Prop. of Proteins |
|
Definition
fibrous and insoluble
globular and soluble
firbrous and soluble |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
structural roles
enzymes
role in contractile structures
transport (Hb)
hormones
receptors
Abs |
|
|
Term
What are proteins and peptides made of? |
|
Definition
peptides - moderate chain length polymers of amino acids joined by peptide bonds
proteins - polymeric compounds composed of AA joined by peptide bonds |
|
|
Term
What is unique about peptide bond? |
|
Definition
it is rigid b/c tautomerism |
|
|
Term
In ABO blood group, where is difference in oligosaccharide located and how sugars different? |
|
Definition
due to presence or absence of N-acetyl-galactosamine or galactose linked to penultimate galactose by C1-C3 linkage
1 sugar difference |
|
|
Term
Glycosaminoglycans and 2 Ex |
|
Definition
unbranched polysacc w/ repeating disacc - one is AA, other is uronic acid
Ex - hyaluronic acid and heparin |
|
|
Term
3 Impt Disacc and which alpha or beta linked? |
|
Definition
maltose - alpha linked
sucrose - alpha linked
lactose - beta linked |
|
|
Term
3 Most Impt polysacc and what are linkages? Why is linkage impt? |
|
Definition
starch - alpha linked (spiral)
glycogen - 2 types - alpha C1-C4 (linear)
alpha C1-C6 (branched)
cellulose - beta linked (linear)
alpha and beta linkage affects the shape of the compound and humans can't digest cellulose b/c beta linkages |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
anomeric -OH group of sugar reacts w/ another -OH compound
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
compound that attaches to anomeric C of sugar |
|
|
Term
Name and describe 2 commonly found mod. of sugars |
|
Definition
amino sugar - -OH group replaced by amino group
Ex - glucosamine, galactosamine
deoxy sugar - 1 OH group replaced by H
Ex - 2-deoxyribose |
|
|
Term
2 conformation of 6-membered rings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is mutarotation and where does it take place? |
|
Definition
configuration changes in molecule by ring opening and closing
occurs at anomeric C |
|
|
Term
Pyran and furan are named after which sugar structures and how many Cs are in each? |
|
Definition
pyranose - 6 C ring
furanose - 5 C ring |
|
|
Term
Most Impt Monosacc and Polysacc made up of this monosacc |
|
Definition
glucose - most impt monosacc
Polysacc made up of glucose - starch
cellulose
glycogen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
monosaccharides w/ aldehyde group |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
monosaccharides w/ ketone group |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or compounts that can by hydrolyzed to these |
|
|
Term
4 Types of Compounds of which AAs are precursors |
|
Definition
hormones
nucleotides
neurotransmitters
AAs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pvt. Tim Hall
Phe
Val
Thr
Trp
Ile
Met
His
Arg
Leu
Lys |
|
|
Term
What is nucleotide not found in DNA or RNA that has role in energy metabolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patient given adenosine during cardiac arrythmia. EKG during adenosine txt show AV block. If adenosine discontinuation does work, what will? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nucleoside more useful that nucleotide as a drug b/c |
|
Definition
nucleoside does not have phosphate group, which restricts movement inside body |
|
|
Term
Biochemical mechanism that enables coffee-drinking college student to stay awake |
|
Definition
caffeine is competitive antagonist of adenosine receptor.
Blocks depressant action of adenosine-R and is therefore a stimulant |
|
|
Term
What is the modification of a normal base found in mRNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is mod of a normal DNA base that affects gene expression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What happens when DNA exposed to 94 degrees C temperature during PCR? |
|
Definition
denaturation and 2 strands separate |
|
|
Term
What does it mean that DNA strands are "antiparallel"? |
|
Definition
strands run in opposite directions
one strand goes 3'5'
other strand goes 5'3' |
|
|
Term
Number of H bonds between A and T
Number of H bonds between G and C |
|
Definition
A-T : 2 bonds
G-C: 3 bonds |
|
|
Term
Difference between nucleotide and nucleic acid |
|
Definition
nucleotide - 1 molecule w/ phosphate group, base, and sugar
nucleic acid-several nucleotides connected w/ phosphodiester bonds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
adenine
thymine
cystosine
guanine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
adenine
uracil
cytosine
guanine |
|
|
Term
Diff in chemical structure of nucleotide and nucleoside |
|
Definition
no phosphate group is attached to a nucleoside |
|
|
Term
Difference in chemical structure of ribonucleotide and deoxyribonucleotide |
|
Definition
ribose has -OH at 2' C in pentose sugar
deoxy doesn't |
|
|
Term
What is difference in chemical structure of purine and pyrimidine? |
|
Definition
different nitrogenous bases
purine: 2 C-rings
pyrimidine - 1 C-ring |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cytosine, thymine, uracil (CUT) |
|
|
Term
3 components of nucleotide |
|
Definition
nitrogenous base
pentose sugar
phosphate group |
|
|
Term
What purpose does enzyme phosphorylation serve? |
|
Definition
regulation of activity and turn pathways on/off |
|
|
Term
After ATP and GTP cyclized to form cAMP and cGMP, what is their role? |
|
Definition
regulate cellular processes through enzyme activation/deactivation |
|
|
Term
Arsenate can substitute for phosphate of ATP. Arsenate undergoes spontaneous hydrolysis w/o enzymes. What property of ATP as ideal storage does this spoil? |
|
Definition
stability
ability to form high energy phosphate bonds |
|
|
Term
What are [ ] of conjugate acid/base when pH = pK? |
|
Definition
[conjugate acid/base] are equal to each other (50/50) in solution |
|
|
Term
What is Henderson-Hasselback equation? How would a doctor use it? |
|
Definition
pH = pK' + log [base]/[acid]
Doctor could use it to relate [ ] of each of the conjugated acid/base pairs to the pH of its surrounding enviro |
|
|
Term
How are "acid" + "base" described in biological systems? |
|
Definition
acid - proton donor
base - proton acceptor |
|
|
Term
What are pKs of bicarbonate and phosphate systems? |
|
Definition
bicarbonate~6.1
phosphate~6.7 |
|
|
Term
Two most impt. buffer systems in body?
Which buffer system is more impt and why? |
|
Definition
phosphate and bicarbonate
bicarbonate is more important because there is a greater [bicarbonate] in the body |
|
|
Term
How does H+ effect biological systems? |
|
Definition
rate of rxns
membrane permeability
molecule stability and native conformations of proteins and macromolecules
rate of transport through membranes
drug properties
hydrophobicity/hydrophilicity of compound |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Keq = [H+][A-]/ [HA}
relate [ion] w/ [aqueous compound]
measure of dissociation of compound into ionic components
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of H2O responsible for behavior |
|
Definition
dipolar
H bonds
↑ than normal bp for mw
↑ than normal fp
↑ heat capacity
density solid < density liquid (ice floats on liquid H2O) |
|
|
Term
What rxns do proteins containing S- undergo |
|
Definition
sulfahydryl groups oxidized to form disulfide linkages (cysteine) |
|
|
Term
AA-related cause of pellagra |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What AAs have -OH groups on sidechain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Disorders that arise from defects in tyr metabolism? |
|
Definition
tyrosinosis
albinism
alcaptonuria |
|
|
Term
Disorder that arises from defects in phe metabolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Defects in metabolism of which AAs leads to maple syrup urine disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
AAs w/ aromatic sidechains |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
AAs w/ aliphatic sidechains |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Two Ex of Differences Between Identical Twins that Illustrate that Environment plays a role in development and health |
|
Definition
fingerprints are different of two twins - different positions in womb
type I diabetes - if one gets, less than 1/2 the time other twin gets |
|
|
Term
What percentage of live births suffer from a disease causing monogenic defect?
|
|
Definition
1/100 or 1% of libe births suffer from a monogenic defect |
|
|
Term
What percentage of live births suffer from a disease-causing chromosomal abnormality? |
|
Definition
1/1000 or 0.1% of live births suffer from a disease-causing chromosomal abnormality |
|
|
Term
How many of the chromosomes are X chromosomes? |
|
Definition
normal female - 2 X chromosomes
normal male - 1 X chromosome |
|
|
Term
How many chromosomes are Y chromosomes? |
|
Definition
normal female - 0 Y chromosomes
normal male - 1 Y chromosome |
|
|
Term
How many of the chromosomes are considered autosomes? |
|
Definition
44 (22 from father, 22 from mother) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a chromosome that is not a sex chromosome |
|
|
Term
4 trisomies for which live birth are possible |
|
Definition
trisomy 13
trisomy 18
trisomy 21
trisomy X
XYY |
|
|
Term
Which of the 4 trisomies produces mild to undetectable symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which trisomy is otherwise known as Down's syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Klinefelter's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
male
testicular failure
can't conceive |
|
|
Term
What is Turner's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
X-
sexually immature
short
web neck
phenotypically female |
|
|
Term
How does x-linked disease inheritance differ from inheritance of an autosomal disease? |
|
Definition
lack of male to male transmission
gender-dependent
x-linked gene comes from mother on X chromosome only, but can affect both males and females, through mostly males show disease
autosomal come from chromosomes other than sex chromosome |
|
|
Term
How does inheritance of a mitochondrial disease differ from the inheritance of an autosomal disease? |
|
Definition
An autosomal disease passes on one allele from the mother and one allele from the father
A mitochrondrial disease has only one allele from the female/mother only and all offspring will show some degree of the disease |
|
|
Term
Which will probably have greatest number of offspring who suffer from an inherited disease (may be more than one):
A. parents both heterozygous for autosomal recessive disease
B. parents both heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disease
C. a father who suffers from an X-linked recessive disease and a mother who is homozygous wild type (has only well type of disease gene)
D. a mother who is heterozygous for an x-linked recessive disease and a father who is wild type hemizygous (has the well form of that disease gene)
E. a father who suffers from a mitochondrial disease and a mother who does not at all have it
|
|
Definition
B. parents both heterozygous for a dominant disease will have greatest # of offspring |
|
|
Term
Of these, which will probably have the least number of offspring who suffer from an inherited disease (may be more than one):
A. parents both heterozygous for autosomal recessive disease
B. parents both heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disease
C. a father who suffers from an X-linked recessive disease and a mother who is homozygous wild type (has only well type of disease gene)
D. a mother who is heterozygous for an x-linked recessive disease and a father who is wild type hemizygous (has the well form of that disease gene)
E. a father who suffers from a mitochondrial disease and a mother who does not have it
|
|
Definition
E. a male who suffers from mitochondrial disease and a female who does not
C. a father who suffers from an x-linked recessive disease and a mother who is homozygous wild type (has only well type of disease gene) |
|
|
Term
Explain how penetrance might mean that individuals with disease symptoms might not be observed in a pedigree |
|
Definition
Just because genotypically the person has the disease doesn't mean they express it phenotypically |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
genotype-genetic makeup
phenotype-physical manifestation |
|
|
Term
How does penetrance affect onset of hereditary hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
used to be thought rare
now known as the most common hereditary disease in the USA |
|
|
Term
What environmental factors affect the onset of hereditary hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
gender - females under 50 not have disease (menstrual cycle expels excess iron)
blood donations
diet - not enough Fe normally and you make most of Fe intake
alcohol consumption
environment |
|
|
Term
Why does an X-linked disease such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy seldom cause symptoms in females? |
|
Definition
X-inactivation and that males with the defect do not reproduce.
Females need both x's to be defective in order the x-recessive diseases to show
females have two x's |
|
|
Term
A newly inherited disease has been discovered in which the disease ocuurs only when the defect is inherited from the father. The disease gene has what pattern of genetic inheritance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is meant by "a genetic disease is never inherited"? |
|
Definition
A defect that if inherited would prevent the survival of the fetus and/or prevent reproduction of the fetus |
|
|
Term
What disease is a genetic disease in which the mutations that cause it often occur after birth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tay Sachs inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
cystic fibrosis inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
sickle cell anemia inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Huntington disease inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
hereditary hemochromatosis type of inheritance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Duchenne muscular dystropy inheritannce type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
familial hypercholesterolemia inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Leber's hereditary optic neutopathy type of inheritance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
genetic defect in Huntington disease |
|
Definition
a triplet repeat of CAG (glutamines) amino acids that encode for polyglutamine tract.
Normally - ≤ 34
Have Disease - ≥ 37 |
|
|
Term
most common inherited disease in the USA |
|
Definition
hereditary hemochromatosis |
|
|
Term
Is hereditary hemochromatosis fatal w/o txt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most common lethal inherited disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What protein in defective in cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is what organ is the defect of cystic fibrosis most problematic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What problem generally causes death in cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
lung infections caused by P. aeroginosa
accumulates in lungs and destroys lining |
|
|
Term
What does the protein involved in cystic fibrosis do to promote the eventually fatal action that happens? |
|
Definition
CFTR used to clear out bacteria from lungs
dysfunctional in CF and can't remove bacteria anymore
lungs get destoyed by inhaled bacteria (P. aeroginosa) |
|
|
Term
2 inherited diseases that protect against infectious disease and what they protect against |
|
Definition
cystic fibrosis - protect from typhoid fever
sickle cell anemia - protects from malaria |
|
|
Term
Enzyme defective in Tay Sachs disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What builds up and where does it build up in Tay Sachs? |
|
Definition
glycosphinogolipids build up in the brain |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of Tay Sachs? |
|
Definition
mental retardation
blindness
paralysis
muscle atrophy
cherry red spot on retina |
|
|
Term
Is hexosaminidase A the only enzyme that is involved in trimming sugars off glycosphinolipids that is defective in disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is class of diseases that involve defective enzymes involved in trimming sugars off of glycosphingolipids? |
|
Definition
sphinogolipid storage disorders |
|
|
Term
3 monogenic or polygenic diseases |
|
Definition
hypertension
cardiovascular disease
type 2 diabetes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
anencephaly
spina bifida
cleft lip/palate
alchoholism
asthma
bipolar disorder
inherited epilepsy
idiopathic gout
obesity
schizophrenizia
type I diabetes |
|
|
Term
3 inherited monogenic diseases that cause hypertension |
|
Definition
glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism
apparent mineralocorticoid excess
Liddle syndrome |
|
|
Term
polygenic syndrome that is generally considered cause of most hypertension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 genes that have been associated with type 1 diabetes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name genes that have been associated with a monogenic disease that may be though of as type 2 diabetes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 genes that have been associated with polygenic type 2 diabetes |
|
Definition
PPAR-gamma
glucokinase
calpain 10 |
|
|
Term
Are all individuals with a defect in one of the genes associated with polygenic type 2 diabetes going to develop the disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these genes associated with type 2 diabetes has been found in 85% of the world population? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following infectious diseases is NOT thought to be protected against by an inherited genetic mutation or deletion (may be more than one):
A. HIV
B. typhoid fever
C. anthrax
D. malaria
E. leprosy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a "snip" and with what frequency are SNPs encountered in human DNA? |
|
Definition
single nucleotide polymorphisms
1:300 bps |
|
|
Term
A patient has the form of the gene that cause Huntington's (20 repeats). The patient asks about a "gray area" in testing and whether the result in certain.
What do you say? |
|
Definition
some people have an intermediate number of repeats (mid-30s) but for someone with 20 repeats the test is certain. |
|
|
Term
You are treating a case of erythroblastosis fetalis, a disease of the fetus in pregnancy. This is most often caused by isoimmune reaction to the D antigen, which is one of the antigens responsible for the Rh blood group. Abs developed by the Rh- mother "attack" an Rh+ fetus's RBCs leading to hemolysis. You want to quickly counsel the expecting couple about the likelihood the offspring will have another Rh+ fetus. The antigen is inherited in autosomal domianant fashion so you know the mother is
homozygous for the genes that make her Rh-. The father knows he is Rh+ so you able to advise them that on avg?
AND
You ask the father if he has previously fathered an Rh- child and he says YES you are able to advise that on avg?
AND
if the father says that has has fathered an Rh- child and he instead says NO you are able to advise that on avg? |
|
Definition
the info given you can't determine the likelihood of the disease for their future offspring
the info given you can't determine the likelihood of the disease for their future offspring
50% of their offspring will suffer from the disease
|
|
|
Term
autosomal recessive homozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
autosomal recessive heterozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
autosomal dominant homozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
autosomal dominant heterozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
x-linked recessive hemizygous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
x-linked recessive heterozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
x-linked recessive homozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mitochondrial, only father has disease
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mitochondrial, only mother has disease
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some ways DNA is obtained from children and adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 forms of prenatal diagnosis of inherited disease that utilized together cover most of period between 10 weeks of gestation through birth and rate of fetal loss associated w/ each? |
|
Definition
chorionic villus sampling (CVS) - 0.5-1.0% loss
ultrasound - 0% loss
cordocentesis- 1-2% loss |
|
|
Term
What does preimplantation diagnosis of in vitro eggs allow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many inherited diseases does FL screen for?
What do these diseases have in common that makes them a good idea to screen for?
What instrument made possible the recent expansion in the number of diseases screened in FL and does it analyze sequences or metabolites? |
|
Definition
35 diseases screened in FL
cause early damage and effective txt exists
tandem mass spectrometry-analyzes metabolites |
|
|
Term
Advantages of screening for genetic diseases by DNA sequencing |
|
Definition
may catch a patient gives a false - by another method
easier, less expensive to do in quantity than biochem assays
heritage and fam history of person gives info about what diseases and mutations to look for
it is predictive (before symptom onset) |
|
|
Term
Disadvantages of screening by DNA sequencing |
|
Definition
false negatives due to gene mutation being in unexpected location in gene
limited coverage of test - only test for specific disease, might miss others
may have added expenses due to patented genes |
|
|
Term
% frequency of two most often occuring mutations in CTFR genes
Any high frequency mutations in familial hypercholesterimia genes? |
|
Definition
70% and 2.5%
no, high freq mutations in FH genes |
|
|
Term
Gene defect that resulted in fava beans causing health problems in Greece and primaquine causing health problems in WW2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Knowledge of person's VKORC1 and CYP2C9 seq can help you decide what about a patient?
What other seq can be screened? |
|
Definition
drug dosage and type
P450 screened also
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
use sequence info to make decisions about a drug |
|
|
Term
A 27 y/o patient's father has been diagnosed with Huntington disease. It would be important to: |
|
Definition
tell the patient there is a test involving DNA seq to show if he will suffer from Huntington disease later in life |
|
|
Term
Is Cushing syndrome characterized as a cancer b/c it involves overgrowth of cells (a tumor) in the adrenal gland that produces cortisol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can be involved in genesis of cancer and which always involved? |
|
Definition
bacteria
viruses
inherited predispositions
gene defects - always involved
enviro causes
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
growth signal transduction genes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why can hEGFR be considered a protooncogene and how might become an oncogene? |
|
Definition
protooncogene b/c it is a growth-stimulating gene
can become oncogene if its activity starts to result in uncontrolled growth
|
|
|
Term
Gene A loses activity w/ certain mutation.
Is the normal gene a tumor suppressor, oncogne, anti-oncogne, or proto-oncogene? |
|
Definition
tumor suppressor and anti-oncogene for both normal and mutant genes |
|
|
Term
characteristics of matrix metalloproteinases and involved in what cancerous process |
|
Definition
protein/enzymes that require a metal (Zn or Ca) ion to break down proteins in ECM of cell
involved in metastasis |
|
|
Term
Tumorigenic cells for cancer therapy |
|
Definition
only some cells in tumor can generate new tumor
if can treat or cut out those cells, then localize tumor and control metastasis |
|
|
Term
Unique Characteristic of PARs |
|
Definition
proteolytically remove N-terminus of receptor itself and new N-terminus is the ligand that activates receptor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
[ligand] for 1/2 max occupancy of receptors
measure affinity of ligand for receptor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
[ligand] for 1/2 max response
effectiveness in eliciting cellular response |
|
|
Term
largest superfamily of receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What family of receptors facilitates addiction to tobacco? |
|
Definition
ionotropic nicotinic Ach-R |
|
|
Term
Differences and Similarities in Intracellular Receptors |
|
Definition
some reside in cytoplasm until encounter ligands-glucocorticoid and aldosterone-Rs
most reside full time in nucleus
receptor ligand complex acts on nucleus by binds to DNA and affecting expression (turn on/off expression) |
|
|
Term
concentration of albumin in serum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 functions of plasma albumin |
|
Definition
fatty acid transport
bilirubin transport
transport of steroid hormones
transport of sulta drugs, penicillin, aspirin |
|
|
Term
Plasma protein degraded randomly at a rate of 100%/day. What is biological half life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most abundant alpha-1 globulin?
Function?
Clinical result of its absence? |
|
Definition
alpha-1 antiprotease
protease inhibitor on compounds such as elastase and collagenase
prevents proteolysis in lungs
lung loses ability to recoil after inspiration leading to emphysema and respiratory failure |
|
|
Term
organ albumin is synthesized in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
major class of proteins NOT synthesized in liver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most abundant of plasma proteins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how are fatty acids transported in plasma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
major fetal plasma protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports iron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports cortisol |
|
Definition
cortisol-binding clobulin (alpha-1 globulin)
|
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports vitamin A derivitives |
|
Definition
retinol-binding protein (alpha-1 globulin) |
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports testosterone |
|
Definition
sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)
beta-globulin |
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports bilirubin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What ahppens to free hemoglobin in plasma? |
|
Definition
degraded by reticulothelial cells |
|
|
Term
What would happen to hemoglobin in plasma if haptoglobin were absent? |
|
Definition
iron would be lost due to Hb breakdown.
Hb is lost through the kidney and excreted in urine. |
|
|
Term
blue protein and what is its function |
|
Definition
ceruloplasmin
blue b/c of copper
oxidize Fe 2+ Fe 3+ in plasma
low levels found in Wilson's disease |
|
|
Term
In which human organ is myoglobin (Mb) most impt? |
|
Definition
heart b/c rapid O2 supply needed |
|
|
Term
Explain causes and importance of right shift in Hb/O2 binding curve |
|
Definition
right shift caused by:
decreased pH (increased [H+])
increased [CO2]
increased [2,3-BPG]
increased temperature
all factors lead to increased O2 unloading which means that a higher percentage of O2 is delivered to tissues |
|
|
Term
In Hb, how does binding of first oxygen molecule affect binding of next ones? |
|
Definition
Deoxy Hb is usually in taut (T) form where heme groups restricted and hard for O2 to bind
When O2 binds to 1st heme group, the Fe of that heme will shift and pull attached his along.
Movement breaks salt bridges pushing Hb into relaxed (R) state and allow more O2 binding sites to become available
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A right shift when pH decreases (increase in H+ conc.)
O2 release from Hb will increase when pH is lowered or [CO2] is high
Hb has decreased O2 affinity
Raising pH or decreasing [CO2]-shift curve to left |
|
|
Term
Physiological importance of cooperativity in Hb function |
|
Definition
Hb has 4 subunits where binding of O2 at one heme group increases the affinity for O2 of the other heme groups in the same molecule |
|
|
Term
Compare behavior of Mb and Hb with respect to O2, CO2, and H+ |
|
Definition
Mb has a greater affinity at lower [O2] than Hb
Hb can transport more molecules of O2 b/c of cooperative effect of multiple binding sites
Hb can't readily bind 1st O2, but once it does has higher affinity for O2 at other sites
Hb-sigmoidal curve
Mb-hyperbolic
Hb responds more readily to small changes in partial pressures of O2
Mb saturated quicker than Hb at low partial pressure of O2 (doesn't have much flexibility) |
|
|
Term
How does protein (globin) portion of Mb or Hb affect reactivity of heme? |
|
Definition
weaken strength of heme-O2 interaction. Heme binds O2 so stronglyit can convert it to a superoxide anion, which can be an unwanted oxidizing agent
prevents interaction of oxy-heme groups with other oxy-heme groups |
|
|
Term
How and where does 2,3-BPG interact with Hb? |
|
Definition
2,3-BPG binds to deoxy Hb-makes it more stable and resistant to oxygenation after O2 delivery
negative charge allows BPG to bind to a site between two alpha chains
causes right shift in O2-dissociation curve (lower O2 release) |
|
|
Term
Where does 2,3-BPG come from? |
|
Definition
product of glycolytic pathway |
|
|
Term
How does fetal Hb (HbF) differ from HbA? |
|
Definition
Fetal Hb has two gamma chains instead of beta chains.
2,3-BPG can't bind to fetal Hb and it has greater affinity fo O2 and takes O2 from maternal Hb
HbF is left shifted on O2-dissociation curve compared to maternal Hb
|
|
|
Term
What does Hill Eqn describe? |
|
Definition
importance of cooperativity |
|
|
Term
How does NO interact w/ Hb and what is physiological significance of that interaction? |
|
Definition
Hb binds NO at heme Fe and cys residues in globin chain.
NO relaxant for vascular smooth muscle
Hb can pick up NO, stiffen vascular tissues, and increase BP
NO is strong vasodilator so Hb can be used to mediate vascular tone |
|
|
Term
What is difference btwn HbS and HbA? |
|
Definition
HbA has normal beta chain while HbS has sickly cell hemoglobin. 6th AA for normal beta globin would be a glutamic residue but in HbS that Glu is replaced with a Val. Val is uncharged and allows hydrophobic pockets. The chains bind together and crystallize |
|
|
Term
Physiochemical/Pathological Basis for All Clinical Manifestations of Sickle Cell Disease |
|
Definition
crystallization and stiffening of Hbs causes them to adhere to the endothelium and often obstruct small vessels (capillaries) or cause hemolysis
hemolysis can cause anemia and hyperbilirubinemia, causing pallor and jaundice
Complete vasocclusion can cause ishemia or infarction resulting in organ damage
Stroke, infection and excrutiating pain can result |
|
|
Term
How is Sickle Cell Disease Inherited? |
|
Definition
recessive disorder. Only homozygous HbS cause the disease to become expressed. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a protein catalyst for specific biochem rxns.
It will not undergo chem rxnitself and can be reused for other rxns |
|
|
Term
What does enzyme effect and not effect in rxn?
|
|
Definition
Enzymes reduce activation energy.
Keq and delta G are not affected by enzymes. |
|
|
Term
Name and describe 2 models used to describe enzyme specificity and/or catalytic activity |
|
Definition
lock and key model
describes an enzyme active sites (lock) being specific for binding substrate (key)
describe specificity
induced fit model
active site will conform to fit substrate
describes specificity and catalytic activity |
|
|
Term
What is prosthetic group? |
|
Definition
non-protein organic molecule that is tightly bound to enzyme active site
ex-heme, biotin, or flavin
holoenzyme-prosthetic group attached
apoenzyme-prosthetic group NOT attached |
|
|
Term
Name 6 Classes of Enzymes |
|
Definition
oxidoreductases-catalyze RED/OX reactions
Ex-H+ donor to substrate
transferases-transfer group from one molecule to another
Ex-phosphoylases
hydrolases-hydrolytic cleavage of bond
Ex-peptide bond cleavage
lyases-cleave bonds w/o water to leave double bond or addition of other groups to double bond
Ex-decarboxylase
isomerases-change geometry of molecule
Ex-cis-trans isomerase
ligases-join 2 molecules together though hydrolysis of high energy bond
Ex-carboxylase |
|
|
Term
What is Michaelis-Menton Eqn and what do terms mean? |
|
Definition
V = Vmax[S]/(Km+[S])
V - velocity of rxn
Vmax - max rxn velocity
[S] - substrate concentration
Km - constant value for a specific substrate
|
|
|
Term
In a Michaelis-Menton plot, where is Vmax and how do you find Km? |
|
Definition
Vmax - when [S] is very high
Km - [S] when V = 1/2(Vmax) |
|
|
Term
A Lineweaver-Burk plot is also called a --------- |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is plotted on Lineweaker-Burk plot and what are the x- and y-intercepts of the plot? |
|
Definition
The LB graph plots the inverse of the Michaelis-Menten plot, which is 1/V on the y-axis and 1/[S] on the x-axis
x-intercept - 1/Km
y-intercept - 1/Vmax |
|
|
Term
What are advantages of the Eadie-Hofstee plot? |
|
Definition
The E-H plot gives more evenly spaced data points than the L-B plot. |
|
|
Term
What characteristics distinguish a competitive inhibitor from the other types of inhibitors? |
|
Definition
bind directly to the active site and can be overcome by increased [substrate].
Other inhibitors bind to other sites on enzyme |
|
|
Term
On the Lineweaver-Burk plots are the vertical or horizontal intercepts the same or different for competitively inhibited rxns? |
|
Definition
same y-intercept
different x-intercepts |
|
|
Term
On the Lineweaver-Burk plots are the vertical or horizontal intercepts the same or different for non-competitively inhibited rxns? |
|
Definition
different y-intercepts
same x-intercepts |
|
|
Term
On the Lineweaver-Burk plots are the vertical or horizontal intercepts the same or different for uncompetitively inhibited rxns? |
|
Definition
different y-intercepts
different x-intercepts |
|
|
Term
What does inhibitor react with for competitive inhibition? |
|
Definition
active site of the enzyme |
|
|
Term
What does inhibitor react with for non-competitive inhibition? |
|
Definition
react with enzyme to reduce its effectiveness to bind w/ substrate |
|
|
Term
What does inhibitor react with for uncompetitive inhibition? |
|
Definition
bind with ES complex.
irreversible inhibitors. |
|
|
Term
Sigmoid V versus [S] plot and curved Lineweaver-Burk plots indicate |
|
Definition
allostery and positive cooperativity of the enzyme (n = 2) |
|
|
Term
What factors determine the amount of enzyme activity in serum? |
|
Definition
amount of tissue producing enzyme
rate of enzyme released
rate of enzyme inactivation/elimination from plasma |
|
|
Term
Define: Standard International Unit (SIU) |
|
Definition
1 standard international unit of enzyme activity converts 1 μM of substrate/minute |
|
|
Term
2 most commonly measured serum aminotransferases and describe rxns they catalyze |
|
Definition
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) - catalyzes exhange of amino group between alpha amino acids (aspartate) and alpha keto acids
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) - catalyzes exchange of amino group between alpha amino acids (alanine) and alpha keto acids |
|
|
Term
In which pathological states are the two most commonly measured serum aminotransferases elevated? |
|
Definition
AST - liver damage and myocardial cells,hemolysed blood
ALT - liver damage |
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by γ-glutamyltranspeptidase and how it is used diagnostically? |
|
Definition
Glutathione + amino acids → γ-glutamyl-amino acid + cys-gly
γ-glutamyltranspeptidase found in kidney, intestine, liver, and fetal tissue
GGT levels are elevated and very sensitive in liver damage
|
|
|
Term
2 commonly measured phosphatases and how are they used diagnostically? |
|
Definition
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Hydrolyzez phosphate groups from organic monophosphate at pH~9
Found in liver, bone, intestine, and placental tissue
Elevation of ALP means damage to liver and bone tissue
Elevated in gowing children, bone fractures, and pregnant women
Acid Phosphatase
hydrolyzes phosphate groups from organic monophosphates at pH~5
found in prostate, platelets, and erythrocytes
Elevation found in metastatic prostate cancer and hemolysed blood samples
|
|
|
Term
Diagnostic utility of LDH |
|
Definition
Used to detect MI and hemolysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Most common form is LDH2 (HHHM)
After MI or hemolysis, LDH1 (HHHH) predominates causing a "flipped" LDH b/c LDH1>LDH2 |
|
|
Term
What reaction does LDH catalyze? |
|
Definition
Lactate + NAD → pyruvate + NADH + H
interconversion of pyruvate and lactate |
|
|
Term
Another name for alpha hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase (HBD)?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does elevated serum HBD mean? |
|
Definition
damage to myocardial cells due to recent MI |
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by CK (CPK) |
|
Definition
creatine phosphate + ADP → Creatine + ATP |
|
|
Term
Diagnostic meaning of elevated serum CK |
|
Definition
has 2 subunits, M and B
MB-MI or brief ischemia
MM-vigorous exercise, injection, convulsions
BB-neural tissue damage |
|
|
Term
Diagnostic significance of elevated serum amylase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by serum amylase |
|
Definition
starch + H2O → maltose, maltotriose & limit dextrins
digest starch |
|
|
Term
Elevated serum lipase means |
|
Definition
pancreatic pathology
morphine |
|
|
Term
Reaction catalyzed by serum lipase |
|
Definition
trigylceride + H2O → fatty acids + glycerol
fat digestion |
|
|
Term
What are troponins and how are they used in diagnosis? |
|
Definition
proteins that function in the contractile apparatus of the muscle
Cardiac troponin I is increased in plasma 3-6 hours after MI |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme Levels in crush injury |
|
Definition
mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase (healing bone)
elevated creatine kinase MM (skeletal muscle) |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme Levels in vigorous exercise |
|
Definition
elevated creatine kinase MM (skeletal muscle) |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme levels in morphine injection |
|
Definition
elevation of serum amylase and lipase |
|
|
Term
Serum Enzyme Levels in pregnancy |
|
Definition
mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase (bone growth)
elevated GGT |
|
|
Term
Four Categories of Cell Adhesion Molecules |
|
Definition
integrins
immunoglobulin superfamily
cadherins
selectins |
|
|
Term
Which of the CAM categories would be actively involved in transmitting signals from the inside to the outisde of the cells and vice versa? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What CAM category is involved in adherens junction between cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Abbreviations for 3 types of adhesion molecules of Ig suberfamily and tell their origins |
|
Definition
NCAM - neural cell adhesion molecule
PECAM - platelet-endothelial cell adhesion molecule
VCAM - vascular cell adhesion molecule
Named for their similarity in structure to the Igs |
|
|
Term
4 Diseases in which CAMS are involved |
|
Definition
Rheumatoid arthritis - overexpression of VCAMs
Psoriasis - form of an integrin
Pemphigus vulgaris - autoantibodies interacting with desmoglein
von Willebrand disease - expression of P-selectin |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
tightly coiled, stabilized by H bonding btwn imido groups and oxygen of carbony groups, many helices (3.6 AA/turn) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
regions of same chain or neighboring chains bond to each other w/ H bonds, the H bonds are perependicular to the long axis of the chain
most stable conformation - antiparallel sheets (one side N→C other side C→N |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
H bonding of AA 3 sequences apart in same chain
results in U turn bend of chain |
|
|
Term
What AA usually phosphoylated in proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Commonly occurring modification of AA found in some proteins |
|
Definition
acetylation of N terminus
carboxylation - add COOH
hydroylation - add OH
glycosylation - add glucose
phosphorylation - add phosphate group
disulfide linkages |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
alpha helix
beta-pleated sheets
beta-turns
random coiling
results from free roation of bonds besides peptide bonds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
secondary structures fold on each other
hydrophobic - inside
hydrophilic - outside |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
multiple polypeptide chains interact by noncovalent bonds to form single structure |
|
|
Term
General Solubility Prop. of Proteins |
|
Definition
fibrous and insoluble
globular and soluble
firbrous and soluble |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
structural roles
enzymes
role in contractile structures
transport (Hb)
hormones
receptors
Abs |
|
|
Term
What are proteins and peptides made of? |
|
Definition
peptides - moderate chain length polymers of amino acids joined by peptide bonds
proteins - polymeric compounds composed of AA joined by peptide bonds |
|
|
Term
What is unique about peptide bond? |
|
Definition
it is rigid b/c tautomerism |
|
|
Term
In ABO blood group, where is difference in oligosaccharide located and how sugars different? |
|
Definition
due to presence or absence of N-acetyl-galactosamine or galactose linked to penultimate galactose by C1-C3 linkage
1 sugar difference |
|
|
Term
Glycosaminoglycans and 2 Ex |
|
Definition
unbranched polysacc w/ repeating disacc - one is AA, other is uronic acid
Ex - hyaluronic acid and heparin |
|
|
Term
3 Impt Disacc and which alpha or beta linked? |
|
Definition
maltose - alpha linked
sucrose - alpha linked
lactose - beta linked |
|
|
Term
3 Most Impt polysacc and what are linkages? Why is linkage impt? |
|
Definition
starch - alpha linked (spiral)
glycogen - 2 types - alpha C1-C4 (linear)
alpha C1-C6 (branched)
cellulose - beta linked (linear)
alpha and beta linkage affects the shape of the compound and humans can't digest cellulose b/c beta linkages |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
anomeric -OH group of sugar reacts w/ another -OH compound
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
compound that attaches to anomeric C of sugar |
|
|
Term
Name and describe 2 commonly found mod. of sugars |
|
Definition
amino sugar - -OH group replaced by amino group
Ex - glucosamine, galactosamine
deoxy sugar - 1 OH group replaced by H
Ex - 2-deoxyribose |
|
|
Term
2 conformation of 6-membered rings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is mutarotation and where does it take place? |
|
Definition
configuration changes in molecule by ring opening and closing
occurs at anomeric C |
|
|
Term
Pyran and furan are named after which sugar structures and how many Cs are in each? |
|
Definition
pyranose - 6 C ring
furanose - 5 C ring |
|
|
Term
Most Impt Monosacc and Polysacc made up of this monosacc |
|
Definition
glucose - most impt monosacc
Polysacc made up of glucose - starch
cellulose
glycogen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
monosaccharides w/ aldehyde group |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
monosaccharides w/ ketone group |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or compounts that can by hydrolyzed to these |
|
|
Term
4 Types of Compounds of which AAs are precursors |
|
Definition
hormones
nucleotides
neurotransmitters
AAs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Pvt. Tim Hall
Phe
Val
Thr
Trp
Ile
Met
His
Arg
Leu
Lys |
|
|
Term
What is nucleotide not found in DNA or RNA that has role in energy metabolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patient given adenosine during cardiac arrythmia. EKG during adenosine txt show AV block. If adenosine discontinuation does work, what will? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nucleoside more useful that nucleotide as a drug b/c |
|
Definition
nucleoside does not have phosphate group, which restricts movement inside body |
|
|
Term
Biochemical mechanism that enables coffee-drinking college student to stay awake |
|
Definition
caffeine is competitive antagonist of adenosine receptor.
Blocks depressant action of adenosine-R and is therefore a stimulant |
|
|
Term
What is the modification of a normal base found in mRNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is mod of a normal DNA base that affects gene expression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What happens when DNA exposed to 94 degrees C temperature during PCR? |
|
Definition
denaturation and 2 strands separate |
|
|
Term
What does it mean that DNA strands are "antiparallel"? |
|
Definition
strands run in opposite directions
one strand goes 3'5'
other strand goes 5'3' |
|
|
Term
Number of H bonds between A and T
Number of H bonds between G and C |
|
Definition
A-T : 2 bonds
G-C: 3 bonds |
|
|
Term
Difference between nucleotide and nucleic acid |
|
Definition
nucleotide - 1 molecule w/ phosphate group, base, and sugar
nucleic acid-several nucleotides connected w/ phosphodiester bonds |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
adenine
thymine
cystosine
guanine |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
adenine
uracil
cytosine
guanine |
|
|
Term
Diff in chemical structure of nucleotide and nucleoside |
|
Definition
no phosphate group is attached to a nucleoside |
|
|
Term
Difference in chemical structure of ribonucleotide and deoxyribonucleotide |
|
Definition
ribose has -OH at 2' C in pentose sugar
deoxy doesn't |
|
|
Term
What is difference in chemical structure of purine and pyrimidine? |
|
Definition
different nitrogenous bases
purine: 2 C-rings
pyrimidine - 1 C-ring |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cytosine, thymine, uracil (CUT) |
|
|
Term
3 components of nucleotide |
|
Definition
nitrogenous base
pentose sugar
phosphate group |
|
|
Term
What purpose does enzyme phosphorylation serve? |
|
Definition
regulation of activity and turn pathways on/off |
|
|
Term
After ATP and GTP cyclized to form cAMP and cGMP, what is their role? |
|
Definition
regulate cellular processes through enzyme activation/deactivation |
|
|
Term
Arsenate can substitute for phosphate of ATP. Arsenate undergoes spontaneous hydrolysis w/o enzymes. What property of ATP as ideal storage does this spoil? |
|
Definition
stability
ability to form high energy phosphate bonds |
|
|
Term
What are [ ] of conjugate acid/base when pH = pK? |
|
Definition
[conjugate acid/base] are equal to each other (50/50) in solution |
|
|
Term
What is Henderson-Hasselback equation? How would a doctor use it? |
|
Definition
pH = pK' + log [base]/[acid]
Doctor could use it to relate [ ] of each of the conjugated acid/base pairs to the pH of its surrounding enviro |
|
|
Term
How are "acid" + "base" described in biological systems? |
|
Definition
acid - proton donor
base - proton acceptor |
|
|
Term
What are pKs of bicarbonate and phosphate systems? |
|
Definition
bicarbonate~6.1
phosphate~6.7 |
|
|
Term
Two most impt. buffer systems in body?
Which buffer system is more impt and why? |
|
Definition
phosphate and bicarbonate
bicarbonate is more important because there is a greater [bicarbonate] in the body |
|
|
Term
How does H+ effect biological systems? |
|
Definition
rate of rxns
membrane permeability
molecule stability and native conformations of proteins and macromolecules
rate of transport through membranes
drug properties
hydrophobicity/hydrophilicity of compound |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Keq = [H+][A-]/ [HA}
relate [ion] w/ [aqueous compound]
measure of dissociation of compound into ionic components
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of H2O responsible for behavior |
|
Definition
dipolar
H bonds
↑ than normal bp for mw
↑ than normal fp
↑ heat capacity
density solid < density liquid (ice floats on liquid H2O) |
|
|
Term
What rxns do proteins containing S- undergo |
|
Definition
sulfahydryl groups oxidized to form disulfide linkages (cysteine) |
|
|
Term
AA-related cause of pellagra |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What AAs have -OH groups on sidechain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Disorders that arise from defects in tyr metabolism? |
|
Definition
tyrosinosis
albinism
alcaptonuria |
|
|
Term
Disorder that arises from defects in phe metabolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Defects in metabolism of which AAs leads to maple syrup urine disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
AAs w/ aromatic sidechains |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
AAs w/ aliphatic sidechains |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Two Ex of Differences Between Identical Twins that Illustrate that Environment plays a role in development and health |
|
Definition
fingerprints are different of two twins - different positions in womb
type I diabetes - if one gets, less than 1/2 the time other twin gets |
|
|
Term
What percentage of live births suffer from a disease causing monogenic defect?
|
|
Definition
1/100 or 1% of libe births suffer from a monogenic defect |
|
|
Term
What percentage of live births suffer from a disease-causing chromosomal abnormality? |
|
Definition
1/1000 or 0.1% of live births suffer from a disease-causing chromosomal abnormality |
|
|
Term
How many of the chromosomes are X chromosomes? |
|
Definition
normal female - 2 X chromosomes
normal male - 1 X chromosome |
|
|
Term
How many chromosomes are Y chromosomes? |
|
Definition
normal female - 0 Y chromosomes
normal male - 1 Y chromosome |
|
|
Term
How many of the chromosomes are considered autosomes? |
|
Definition
44 (22 from father, 22 from mother) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a chromosome that is not a sex chromosome |
|
|
Term
4 trisomies for which live birth are possible |
|
Definition
trisomy 13
trisomy 18
trisomy 21
trisomy X
XYY |
|
|
Term
Which of the 4 trisomies produces mild to undetectable symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which trisomy is otherwise known as Down's syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Klinefelter's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
male
testicular failure
can't conceive |
|
|
Term
What is Turner's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
X-
sexually immature
short
web neck
phenotypically female |
|
|
Term
How does x-linked disease inheritance differ from inheritance of an autosomal disease? |
|
Definition
lack of male to male transmission
gender-dependent
x-linked gene comes from mother on X chromosome only, but can affect both males and females, through mostly males show disease
autosomal come from chromosomes other than sex chromosome |
|
|
Term
How does inheritance of a mitochondrial disease differ from the inheritance of an autosomal disease? |
|
Definition
An autosomal disease passes on one allele from the mother and one allele from the father
A mitochrondrial disease has only one allele from the female/mother only and all offspring will show some degree of the disease |
|
|
Term
Which will probably have greatest number of offspring who suffer from an inherited disease (may be more than one):
A. parents both heterozygous for autosomal recessive disease
B. parents both heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disease
C. a father who suffers from an X-linked recessive disease and a mother who is homozygous wild type (has only well type of disease gene)
D. a mother who is heterozygous for an x-linked recessive disease and a father who is wild type hemizygous (has the well form of that disease gene)
E. a father who suffers from a mitochondrial disease and a mother who does not at all have it
|
|
Definition
B. parents both heterozygous for a dominant disease will have greatest # of offspring |
|
|
Term
Of these, which will probably have the least number of offspring who suffer from an inherited disease (may be more than one):
A. parents both heterozygous for autosomal recessive disease
B. parents both heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disease
C. a father who suffers from an X-linked recessive disease and a mother who is homozygous wild type (has only well type of disease gene)
D. a mother who is heterozygous for an x-linked recessive disease and a father who is wild type hemizygous (has the well form of that disease gene)
E. a father who suffers from a mitochondrial disease and a mother who does not have it
|
|
Definition
E. a male who suffers from mitochondrial disease and a female who does not
C. a father who suffers from an x-linked recessive disease and a mother who is homozygous wild type (has only well type of disease gene) |
|
|
Term
Explain how penetrance might mean that individuals with disease symptoms might not be observed in a pedigree |
|
Definition
Just because genotypically the person has the disease doesn't mean they express it phenotypically |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
genotype-genetic makeup
phenotype-physical manifestation |
|
|
Term
How does penetrance affect onset of hereditary hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
used to be thought rare
now known as the most common hereditary disease in the USA |
|
|
Term
What environmental factors affect the onset of hereditary hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
gender - females under 50 not have disease (menstrual cycle expels excess iron)
blood donations
diet - not enough Fe normally and you make most of Fe intake
alcohol consumption
environment |
|
|
Term
Why does an X-linked disease such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy seldom cause symptoms in females? |
|
Definition
X-inactivation and that males with the defect do not reproduce.
Females need both x's to be defective in order the x-recessive diseases to show
females have two x's |
|
|
Term
A newly inherited disease has been discovered in which the disease ocuurs only when the defect is inherited from the father. The disease gene has what pattern of genetic inheritance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is meant by "a genetic disease is never inherited"? |
|
Definition
A defect that if inherited would prevent the survival of the fetus and/or prevent reproduction of the fetus |
|
|
Term
What disease is a genetic disease in which the mutations that cause it often occur after birth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tay Sachs inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
cystic fibrosis inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
sickle cell anemia inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Huntington disease inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
hereditary hemochromatosis type of inheritance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Duchenne muscular dystropy inheritannce type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
familial hypercholesterolemia inheritance type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Leber's hereditary optic neutopathy type of inheritance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
genetic defect in Huntington disease |
|
Definition
a triplet repeat of CAG (glutamines) amino acids that encode for polyglutamine tract.
Normally - ≤ 34
Have Disease - ≥ 37 |
|
|
Term
most common inherited disease in the USA |
|
Definition
hereditary hemochromatosis |
|
|
Term
Is hereditary hemochromatosis fatal w/o txt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most common lethal inherited disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What protein in defective in cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is what organ is the defect of cystic fibrosis most problematic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What problem generally causes death in cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
lung infections caused by P. aeroginosa
accumulates in lungs and destroys lining |
|
|
Term
What does the protein involved in cystic fibrosis do to promote the eventually fatal action that happens? |
|
Definition
CFTR used to clear out bacteria from lungs
dysfunctional in CF and can't remove bacteria anymore
lungs get destoyed by inhaled bacteria (P. aeroginosa) |
|
|
Term
2 inherited diseases that protect against infectious disease and what they protect against |
|
Definition
cystic fibrosis - protect from typhoid fever
sickle cell anemia - protects from malaria |
|
|
Term
Enzyme defective in Tay Sachs disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What builds up and where does it build up in Tay Sachs? |
|
Definition
glycosphinogolipids build up in the brain |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of Tay Sachs? |
|
Definition
mental retardation
blindness
paralysis
muscle atrophy
cherry red spot on retina |
|
|
Term
Is hexosaminidase A the only enzyme that is involved in trimming sugars off glycosphinolipids that is defective in disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is class of diseases that involve defective enzymes involved in trimming sugars off of glycosphingolipids? |
|
Definition
sphinogolipid storage disorders |
|
|
Term
3 monogenic or polygenic diseases |
|
Definition
hypertension
cardiovascular disease
type 2 diabetes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
anencephaly
spina bifida
cleft lip/palate
alchoholism
asthma
bipolar disorder
inherited epilepsy
idiopathic gout
obesity
schizophrenizia
type I diabetes |
|
|
Term
3 inherited monogenic diseases that cause hypertension |
|
Definition
glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism
apparent mineralocorticoid excess
Liddle syndrome |
|
|
Term
polygenic syndrome that is generally considered cause of most hypertension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 genes that have been associated with type 1 diabetes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name genes that have been associated with a monogenic disease that may be though of as type 2 diabetes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 genes that have been associated with polygenic type 2 diabetes |
|
Definition
PPAR-gamma
glucokinase
calpain 10 |
|
|
Term
Are all individuals with a defect in one of the genes associated with polygenic type 2 diabetes going to develop the disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these genes associated with type 2 diabetes has been found in 85% of the world population? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following infectious diseases is NOT thought to be protected against by an inherited genetic mutation or deletion (may be more than one):
A. HIV
B. typhoid fever
C. anthrax
D. malaria
E. leprosy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a "snip" and with what frequency are SNPs encountered in human DNA? |
|
Definition
single nucleotide polymorphisms
1:300 bps |
|
|
Term
A patient has the form of the gene that cause Huntington's (20 repeats). The patient asks about a "gray area" in testing and whether the result in certain.
What do you say? |
|
Definition
some people have an intermediate number of repeats (mid-30s) but for someone with 20 repeats the test is certain. |
|
|
Term
You are treating a case of erythroblastosis fetalis, a disease of the fetus in pregnancy. This is most often caused by isoimmune reaction to the D antigen, which is one of the antigens responsible for the Rh blood group. Abs developed by the Rh- mother "attack" an Rh+ fetus's RBCs leading to hemolysis. You want to quickly counsel the expecting couple about the likelihood the offspring will have another Rh+ fetus. The antigen is inherited in autosomal domianant fashion so you know the mother is
homozygous for the genes that make her Rh-. The father knows he is Rh+ so you able to advise them that on avg?
AND
You ask the father if he has previously fathered an Rh- child and he says YES you are able to advise that on avg?
AND
if the father says that has has fathered an Rh- child and he instead says NO you are able to advise that on avg? |
|
Definition
the info given you can't determine the likelihood of the disease for their future offspring
the info given you can't determine the likelihood of the disease for their future offspring
50% of their offspring will suffer from the disease
|
|
|
Term
autosomal recessive homozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
autosomal recessive heterozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
autosomal dominant homozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
autosomal dominant heterozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
x-linked recessive hemizygous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
x-linked recessive heterozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
x-linked recessive homozygote
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mitochondrial, only father has disease
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mitochondrial, only mother has disease
male and female
which get disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some ways DNA is obtained from children and adults? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 forms of prenatal diagnosis of inherited disease that utilized together cover most of period between 10 weeks of gestation through birth and rate of fetal loss associated w/ each? |
|
Definition
chorionic villus sampling (CVS) - 0.5-1.0% loss
ultrasound - 0% loss
cordocentesis- 1-2% loss |
|
|
Term
What does preimplantation diagnosis of in vitro eggs allow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many inherited diseases does FL screen for?
What do these diseases have in common that makes them a good idea to screen for?
What instrument made possible the recent expansion in the number of diseases screened in FL and does it analyze sequences or metabolites? |
|
Definition
35 diseases screened in FL
cause early damage and effective txt exists
tandem mass spectrometry-analyzes metabolites |
|
|
Term
Advantages of screening for genetic diseases by DNA sequencing |
|
Definition
may catch a patient gives a false - by another method
easier, less expensive to do in quantity than biochem assays
heritage and fam history of person gives info about what diseases and mutations to look for
it is predictive (before symptom onset) |
|
|
Term
Disadvantages of screening by DNA sequencing |
|
Definition
false negatives due to gene mutation being in unexpected location in gene
limited coverage of test - only test for specific disease, might miss others
may have added expenses due to patented genes |
|
|
Term
% frequency of two most often occuring mutations in CTFR genes
Any high frequency mutations in familial hypercholesterimia genes? |
|
Definition
70% and 2.5%
no, high freq mutations in FH genes |
|
|
Term
Gene defect that resulted in fava beans causing health problems in Greece and primaquine causing health problems in WW2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Knowledge of person's VKORC1 and CYP2C9 seq can help you decide what about a patient?
What other seq can be screened? |
|
Definition
drug dosage and type
P450 screened also
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
use sequence info to make decisions about a drug |
|
|
Term
A 27 y/o patient's father has been diagnosed with Huntington disease. It would be important to: |
|
Definition
tell the patient there is a test involving DNA seq to show if he will suffer from Huntington disease later in life |
|
|
Term
Is Cushing syndrome characterized as a cancer b/c it involves overgrowth of cells (a tumor) in the adrenal gland that produces cortisol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can be involved in genesis of cancer and which always involved? |
|
Definition
bacteria
viruses
inherited predispositions
gene defects - always involved
enviro causes
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
growth signal transduction genes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why can hEGFR be considered a protooncogene and how might become an oncogene? |
|
Definition
protooncogene b/c it is a growth-stimulating gene
can become oncogene if its activity starts to result in uncontrolled growth
|
|
|
Term
Gene A loses activity w/ certain mutation.
Is the normal gene a tumor suppressor, oncogne, anti-oncogne, or proto-oncogene? |
|
Definition
tumor suppressor and anti-oncogene for both normal and mutant genes |
|
|
Term
characteristics of matrix metalloproteinases and involved in what cancerous process |
|
Definition
protein/enzymes that require a metal (Zn or Ca) ion to break down proteins in ECM of cell
involved in metastasis |
|
|
Term
Tumorigenic cells for cancer therapy |
|
Definition
only some cells in tumor can generate new tumor
if can treat or cut out those cells, then localize tumor and control metastasis |
|
|
Term
Unique Characteristic of PARs |
|
Definition
proteolytically remove N-terminus of receptor itself and new N-terminus is the ligand that activates receptor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
[ligand] for 1/2 max occupancy of receptors
measure affinity of ligand for receptor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
[ligand] for 1/2 max response
effectiveness in eliciting cellular response |
|
|
Term
largest superfamily of receptors |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What family of receptors facilitates addiction to tobacco? |
|
Definition
ionotropic nicotinic Ach-R |
|
|
Term
Differences and Similarities in Intracellular Receptors |
|
Definition
some reside in cytoplasm until encounter ligands-glucocorticoid and aldosterone-Rs
most reside full time in nucleus
receptor ligand complex acts on nucleus by binds to DNA and affecting expression (turn on/off expression) |
|
|
Term
concentration of albumin in serum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4 functions of plasma albumin |
|
Definition
fatty acid transport
bilirubin transport
transport of steroid hormones
transport of sulta drugs, penicillin, aspirin |
|
|
Term
Plasma protein degraded randomly at a rate of 100%/day. What is biological half life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most abundant alpha-1 globulin?
Function?
Clinical result of its absence? |
|
Definition
alpha-1 antiprotease
protease inhibitor on compounds such as elastase and collagenase
prevents proteolysis in lungs
lung loses ability to recoil after inspiration leading to emphysema and respiratory failure |
|
|
Term
organ albumin is synthesized in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
major class of proteins NOT synthesized in liver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most abundant of plasma proteins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how are fatty acids transported in plasma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
major fetal plasma protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports iron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports cortisol |
|
Definition
cortisol-binding clobulin (alpha-1 globulin)
|
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports vitamin A derivitives |
|
Definition
retinol-binding protein (alpha-1 globulin) |
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports testosterone |
|
Definition
sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)
beta-globulin |
|
|
Term
plasma protein that binds and transports bilirubin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What ahppens to free hemoglobin in plasma? |
|
Definition
degraded by reticulothelial cells |
|
|
Term
What would happen to hemoglobin in plasma if haptoglobin were absent? |
|
Definition
iron would be lost due to Hb breakdown.
Hb is lost through the kidney and excreted in urine. |
|
|
Term
blue protein and what is its function |
|
Definition
ceruloplasmin
blue b/c of copper
oxidize Fe 2+ Fe 3+ in plasma
low levels found in Wilson's disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
molecules transported simultaneously in opposite directions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
molecules transported simultaneously in same direction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
one molecule type is transported |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
driven directly by release of energy
ATP hydrolysis |
|
|
Term
secondary active transport |
|
Definition
driven by large favorable gradient but the molecule described moves against a small unfavorable gradient
uses energy derived from pumping other ions to fuel its own movement |
|
|
Term
passive facilitated diffusion |
|
Definition
driven by a favorable gradient and uses a transport protein to get across the membrane |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
driven by a favorable gradient and does not require a transport protein to get through the membrane |
|
|
Term
Give an example of a hormone that is released in response to sensing a condition by the same tissue that synthesizes and secretes the hormone |
|
Definition
insulin is released by the pancreas in response to low blood sugar |
|
|
Term
Some hormones involve a complicated stimulation, a cascade involving sensing of the stimulus, release of a factor from one tissue, the hormone stmulates release of another factor from another tissue. Name a hormone that is an example of this, the tissue the hormone is secreted from, and its stimulus. |
|
Definition
cortisol is released by the adrenal cortex in response to stress |
|
|
Term
Two hormones that largely control blood glucose.
Which is released in response to high blood glucose?
Which is released in response to low blood glucose? |
|
Definition
insulin and glucagon
insulin is released in response to high blood glucose and brings blood glucose levels down
glucagon is released in response to low blood glucose levels and brings blood glucose levels up |
|
|
Term
What is circulating form of carbs in animals?
Storage form of carbs in animals?
Aerobic pathway of carb degradation that produces energy?
Anaerobic pathway pathway of carb degradation that produces energy?
Pathway of glucose synthesis? |
|
Definition
glucose
glycogen
glycolysis accompanied to TCA cycle coupled with oxidative phosphorylation
glycolysis diverted to form lactic acid
gluconeogenesis
|
|
|
Term
Which of the following NOT directly required for synthesis of nucleotides?
A. carbohydrate
B. amino acid
C. fatty acid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pathway that is involved in degrading carboxylic acid group group on amino acids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chem process by which energy is obtained from biological fuels such as the carbon skeletons of carbs, fatty acids, or amino acids (or any fuel)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Organ that is the "brain" of metabolism
Organ that has priority over all others for supply of fuel
Why other tissues called extrahepatic tissues with respect to metabolism? |
|
Definition
liver
brain
b/c liver is so impt to metabolism |
|
|
Term
Organ that is king of metabolism |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fatblox is a drug that cannot be absorbed by cells in dig tract or cells lining blood vessels. Fatblox binds fats, thus preventing their absorption. When Fatblox is taken as a pill, you find that it prevents fats from being absorbed by the intestine, but the adipose tissues of those who take it shrink only a little. When Fatblox is given by IV into the circulation, adipose tissue shrinks drastically.
Explain and what are drawbacks to its use in IV form. |
|
Definition
Other organs can interconvert molecules to make fats
Fatblox can inhibit the transport of lipid signaling molecules by binding to them, preventing them from reaching their targets, could cause problems |
|
|
Term
Why can't brain use fatty acids as fuel for energy? |
|
Definition
blood brain barrier blocks them |
|
|
Term
What organ is most responsible for uptake and disposal of glucose from circulation and uses most glucose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What metabolic pathways used for energy skeletal muscles at rest and during contractile activity? |
|
Definition
In order of work rate (from high to low):
free ATP
Creatine Pi
glycolysis
fatty acids
|
|
|
Term
Where does glycolysis take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where does TCA cycle take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where does urea cycle take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are many components of plasma membrane synthesized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Multi-Drug Resistance gene, which encodes a protein known as p-glycoprotein, is often turned on in cancer cells. P-glycoprotein is a transporter that has the capability of pumping certain cancer drugs such as doxorubicin, daunorubicin, vinblastine and vincristine is a process driven by hydrolysis of ATP. Thus, the cancer cell is able to evade being killed by the cancer drug, even when the drug concentation outise the cell are high. This process would best be described as
A. primary active transport
B. secondary active transport
C. passive facilitated diffusion
D. simple diffusion
E. cannot be determined from info given |
|
Definition
A. primary active transport |
|
|
Term
What are difficulties in transducing a signal outside cell into cellular response inside cell? |
|
Definition
cell must be able to respond to signal and molecules causing the signal generally need to be impermeable to the cell membrane |
|
|
Term
Two major classifications of signal transduction (due to two major places receptors are found)? |
|
Definition
membrane receptors-cause intracellular stimulation
intracellular receptors-affect gene regulation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
extracellular protein that is able to bind to a specific receptor |
|
|
Term
What is the property of ligands that accounts for two major classifications of signal transduction? |
|
Definition
permeability of the ligand |
|
|
Term
Two differences between three histamine receptors in their response to histamine |
|
Definition
H1 located in endothelium and smooth muscle and causes a vasodilation effect when acted upon by an antagonist (Claritin Allegra)
Acts on sinus and allergy
H2 receptor is located in the stomach and causes a decrease in gastric acid secretion when acted upon by an antagonist (Zantac) |
|
|
Term
Ciproxifan is a potent and specific histamine H3 receptor antagonist. Would it be expected that ciprofan would alleviate allergy symtoms or suppress gastric acidity? |
|
Definition
It would not be expected to do either because the H3 receptor is located in the brain and neurons |
|
|
Term
2 major types of molecular switches for intracellular signaling and how is their action reversed? |
|
Definition
cAMP formation and phosphorylation
cAMP turned on by cyclases
turned off by phosphodiesterases
phosphorylation by kinases
turned off by phosphatases |
|
|
Term
3 ways to make a cell less responsive to adenosine receptor action even when adenosine is present in adequate amounts |
|
Definition
receptor inactivation by phosphorylation
receptor internalization
receptor degradation |
|
|
Term
Role of proto-oncogene ras in intracellular signal transduction |
|
Definition
small GTPase, hydrolyzes GTP |
|
|
Term
How do cytokines alter gene expression? |
|
Definition
bind to cytokine receptors which activate secondary messengers that activate gene expression |
|
|
Term
The effect of cholera toxin on signal tranduction |
|
Definition
the toxin enters the cells by riding in on a ganglioside and enters by endocytosis and inducing ADP ribosylation of G-protein. This K/O the GTPase activity that would have shut off the cyclase. Results in increases secretion, diarrhea, and death. |
|
|
Term
Molecule that is precursor for lipid involved in signal mediation of inflammation, blood clotting, control of vascular tone, pain, and fever is released from membranes by a phospholipase? |
|
Definition
arachidonic acid is cleaved which is a precursor for eicosanoids |
|
|
Term
Are all signal transduction pathways independent of each other?
What do they do or not do to account for this? |
|
Definition
No, pathways are independent on each other
They inhibit one pathway and pick up slack on other pathway |
|
|
Term
Where does glycolysis take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Starting substrate for glycolysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ending products for glycolysis |
|
Definition
aerobic - pyruvate
anaerobic - lactate |
|
|
Term
What must every cell that metabolizes glucose do first?
What enzymes do this? |
|
Definition
phosphorylate glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
enzyme - hexokinase (in all tissues)
or
glucokinase (only in liver) |
|
|
Term
Enzyme Substrate and Product for Committed Step of glycolysis?
Is ATP generated or used in this reaction? |
|
Definition
enzyme - phosphofructokinase-1
step is phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
ATP is not generated in this step, but is used to transfer Pi to fructose-6-phosphate |
|
|
Term
Control factors that affect glycolysis? |
|
Definition
Phosphofructokinase-1 is committed step and heavily regulated by enzymes.
IN MUSCLE
In muscle, phosphofructokinase-1 is inhibited by citrate and increased levels of ATP.
AMP, ADP, cAMP, and Pi reverse the inhibitory affects of ATP on PFK-1.
Another control is from the synthesis of pyruvate and ATP from PEP and ADP. In muscle, pyruvate kinase is feedback inhibited by ATP.
IN LIVER
fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase will remove phosphate from f-1,6-bisphosphate, converting it backwards into fructose-6-phosphate. Phosphatase is also monitored.
Fructose-2,6-Phosphate (vasopressin and phenylephrine promote its synthesis) will inhibit this enzyme from removing the phsophate, thus activating PFK-1 when blood glucose is low. Fructose-2,6-Bisphosphate acts as a competitive inhibitor of fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, inhibiting it from deposphorylating F-1,6-Bisphosphate and increasing the flux of F-6 Phosphate through PFK-1. Glucagon controls F-2,6-bisphosphate, stopping glycolysis and enhancing gluconeogenesis.
Another control is from the synthesis of pyruvate and ATP from PEP and ADP. In liver, pyruvate kinase feedback is inhibited by ATP and positively affected by fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
|
|
|
Term
In what steps are ATP generated? |
|
Definition
2 steps:
1) conversion of 1,3-bisphoshoglycerate by phosphoglycerate kinase, 1 ATP produced.
2) Second ATP generated by conversion of PEP to pyruvate by pyruvate kinase. A total of 4 ATP (2 net ATP are produced) from glycolysis. 2 ATP are used up during the glycolysis process. |
|
|
Term
What steps of the glycolysis pathway cannot be reversed for use in gluconeogenesis? |
|
Definition
3 steps:
1) phosphorylation of pyruvate to give phosphoenol pyruvate
2) Dephosphorylation of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to furctose-6-phosphate.
3) dephosphorylation of glucose-6-phosphate into glucose. |
|
|
Term
2 types of approaches that are used to get around barriers encountered in reversing glycolytic pathway |
|
Definition
gluconeogenesis uses enzymes specific to glucose synthesis
Certain processes are localized to certain cellular compartments |
|
|
Term
Subcellular organelles involved in gluconeogenesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Malate shuttle and where does it take place? |
|
Definition
Mitochondrial matrix.
After pyruvate converted to oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxylase, it must be transported out to cytosol. Mitochondrial membrane doesn't allow oxaloacetate to pass through membrane so it is converted to malate, by malate dehydrogenase.
Malate is then transported across membrane to cytosol.
Malale dehydrogenase is both in the cytosol and mitochondrial matrix. The cytosolic enzyme converts malate back into oxaloacete.
The shuttle also transports NADH as well as oxaloacetate. Mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase uses up mitochondrial NADH for the conversion. The cytosolic malate dehydrogenase will produce NADH in the reverse reaction, replenishing cytosolic NADH.
Aspartate Amino Transferase used as an alternative method for transporting oxaloacetate when cytosolic NADH is high. |
|
|
Term
How does glucose-6-phosphate get converted into glucose? |
|
Definition
conversion of glucose-6-phosphate occurs in the lumen of the ER.
There is a series of transporter proteins that play an integral role in the conversion of glucose.
1) T1 translocase pumps G-6-Phosphate into the lumen of the ER. The phosphatase for converting G-6-Phosphate lies in the lumen.
2) After dephosphorylation, the dissociated Pi is removed from the lumen into the cytosol by T2 translocase. T2 requires Ca to pump out Pi. A separate channel allows Ca to flow in the ER lumen.
3) glucose is pumped out of ER to cytosol by T3 translocase.
|
|
|
Term
Enzyme used in gluconeogeneis both inside mitochondria and outside cytosol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tissues capable of carrying out ALL STEPS of gluconeogenesis? |
|
Definition
liver and cortex of kidney |
|
|
Term
Is ATP or NADPH utilized or produced in the petose phosphate pathway?
What rxns produce/utilize ATP or NADPH? |
|
Definition
PPP does not produce or utilize any ATP, but NADPH (reducing agent) is produced which is why PPP occurs requently is tissues where high amounts of oxidative damage can occur (RBCs and leucocytes) or tissues where lipid or catecholamine synthesis occur also involve PPP for NADPH production (liver, adipose, lactating mammary, adrenal cortex, nervous system. Tissues with high nucleotide synthesis (bone marrow, skin, gastric mucosa) depend on PPP too.
NADPH produced in oxidative reactions of G6P and 6-phosphogluconate. |
|
|
Term
What are functions of the pentose phosphate pathway? |
|
Definition
1) produce reducing agents, NADPH, for cytosolic rxns
2) produce ribulose-5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis
3) provide alternative method for metabolizing glucose
4) allow for interconversion of pentoses and hexoses |
|
|
Term
Possible starting materials for pentose phosphate pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Enzymes , substrate, and product for rate limiting step of pentose phosphate pathway? |
|
Definition
Rate limiting step
glucose-6-phosphate converted to 6-phosphoglucono-δ-lactone by glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
Glucose-6-dehydrgoenase is inhibited by NADPH and activated by ↑ NADP+ (substrate availability) |
|
|
Term
How can glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency be related to hemolytic anemia? |
|
Definition
Reduced glutathione in RBCs react with peroxides to form glutathionedimers. Glutathione can prevent oxidative damage to RBCs. NADPH is used to break up glutathione dimer in the cell and restore glutathione levels to react with other peroxides.
A deficiency in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase can't produce enough NADPH to restore glutathione levels.
This has 2 effects:
1) peroxides build up and damage RBC membranes
2) Heinz bodies (cross linkings of Hb) will reduce Hb flexibility, causing rupture of now fragile hemoglobin that is passed through small vesssels.
Weakened membranes and Heinz bodies will lead to acute hemolytic anemia, black urine, and increased urine flow (compensation to reduce renal damage from lysed RBCs) |
|
|
Term
In what kinds of tissues is this pathway most active?
In what part of the cell is it carried out? |
|
Definition
Carried out in tissues with high amts of oxidation such as erythrocytes and leukocytes. Essential is nucleotide synthesis (gastric mucosa, bone marrow, and skin). Frequently occurs in tissues heavily involved in lipid and catecholamine synthesis (adipose, liver, lactating mammary, adrenal cortex, nervous system)
Takes place in the cytoplasm. |
|
|
Term
What tissues require ribose phosphate for high rates of nucleotide synthesis? |
|
Definition
skin cells
bone marrow
gastric mucosa
generally tissues with a high rate of turnover of cells |
|
|
Term
What tissues require NADPH for lipid and catecholamine synthesis? |
|
Definition
liver
adrenal cortex
lactating mammary
adipose
nervous system |
|
|
Term
What tissues require NADPH for protection against oxidative damage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What categories of rxns are utilized in the pentose phosphate pathway? |
|
Definition
3 categories
1) oxidative rxns
2) isomerization or epimerization rxns
3) rxns that require C-C bonds to be cleaved or formed
|
|
|
Term
Fatty acid synthesis occurs in what compartment of the cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A hormone that stimulates fatty acid synthesis is? |
|
Definition
insulin stimulates fatty acid synthesis in the liver |
|
|
Term
Acetyl CoA carboxylase has a covalently bound prosthetic group called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Substrates that are required by acetyl CoA carboxylase to form malonyl CoA |
|
Definition
ATP
bicarbonate
acetyl CoA |
|
|
Term
Describe how mitochondrial acetyl CoA is made available in the cytosol |
|
Definition
acetyl CoA in mitochondrial matrix combined with OAA to form citrate
citrate is transported via a transporter from the mitochondria into the cytosl
citrate lyase using CoA cleaves citrate, into OAA and acetyl CoA
|
|
|
Term
Redundant that is required for fatty acid synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Substrate and products of malic enzyme |
|
Definition
malate catalyzed by malic enzyme into pyruvate and CO2 |
|
|
Term
vitamin derivative that is part of the ACP portion of the fatty acid synthesis complex? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Starting from acetyl CoA and malonyl CoA, describe the steps that are involved in the synthesis of palmitate |
|
Definition
1) acetyl CoA + enzyme → acetyl-Enz by acetyl transferase
2) malonyl CoA + ACP → Malonyl-ACP by malonyl transferase
3) acetyl-enz+malonyl-ACP → acetoacetyl-ACP by keto synthase or condensing enzyme
4) acetocetyl-ACP → beta-hydroxybutyryl-ACP by beta-ketoacyl ruductase
5) beta-hydroxybutyryl-ACP → crotonyl-ACP by dehydratase
6) crotonyl-ACP → butyryl-ACP by enoyl reductase
7) butyryl-ACP → palmitoyl-ACP using 6 more malonyl coA in 6 rounds of steps 1-6
8) palmitoyl-ACP → palmitic acid by thioesterase |
|
|
Term
name enzyme domain that releases palmitate from the fatty acid synthase complex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
name the enzyme that is expressed during lactation in mammary glands that is relevant to fatty acid synthesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name fatty acids that are released by thioesterase II |
|
Definition
capric (C10)
lauric (C12)
myristic (C14)
easier to digest compared to palmitate for sucking infants |
|
|
Term
Name 2 essential fatty acids |
|
Definition
linoleic (18:2)(9,12)
linolenic (18:3)(9,12,15) |
|
|
Term
All naturally occurring double bonds of fatty acids are of cis configuration?
true or false |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Linoleic acid is the precursor for the biosynthesis of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Storage form of fatty acid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Triglycerides are stored in what tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Precursors for the synthesis of triglycerides |
|
Definition
fatty acids are acylated by condensing with CoA to form Fatty acyl CoA
3 fatty acyl CoAs are then esterified to glycerol-3-phosphate to eventually form triglycerides (also called triacylglycerol) |
|
|
Term
backbone compound on which fatty acids are esterified to form triglycerides are |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Before beta-oxidation, activated fatty acids are esterified to THIS compound so that it can be transported from cytosol to mitochondria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name 3 energy related compounds that are produced upon beta-oxidation of fatty acids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name enzyme in mitochondrial matrix that cleaves fatty acylc carnitine |
|
Definition
carnitine acyltransferase II (CPT II) |
|
|
Term
Complete oxidation of stearic acid, myristic acid, and lauric acid, leads to the formation of how many moles of ATP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name a methylated fatty acid that is derived from dairy products |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
name an enzyme that uses vitamin B12 derivative as a coenzyme in the enzyme catalysis |
|
Definition
methyl malonyl CoA mutase |
|
|
Term
Name a 3 carbon compound that is formed from the oxidation of odd chain fatty acid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name 2 enzymes that convert propionyl CoA into succinyl CoA |
|
Definition
racemase
methy malony CoA mutase |
|
|
Term
Name 2 carboxylases that require biotin as a coenzyme |
|
Definition
propionyl CoA carboxylase
acetyl CoA carboxylase |
|
|
Term
Name a compound that is catabolized by alpha-oxidation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name an allosteric activator and an inhibitor of acetyl CoA carboxylase? |
|
Definition
allosteric activator - citrate
inhibitor - fatty acyl CoA |
|
|
Term
Carnitine acyl-transferase is inhibited by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A hormone that triggers catabolism of fats |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Phosphorylation of acetyl CoA carboxylase by protein kinase A inactivates the enzyme
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Phosphorylation of acetyl CoA carboxylase by hormone sensitive lipase activates the enzyme?
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the defect in Refsum's disease |
|
Definition
inability to properly degrade phytanic acid due to deficiency in the alpha hydroxylase enzyme |
|
|
Term
In Sudden Infant Death Syndrome the enzyme that is defective is? |
|
Definition
medium chain fatty acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency |
|
|
Term
Name 2 conditions that would result in methylmalonic acedemia |
|
Definition
methylmalonyl CoA mutase is missing
conversion of Vitamin B12 into coenzyme is missing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name a natural and an artificial compound that inhibits fatty acid synthase |
|
Definition
natural inhibitor compound - cerulenin
artificial inhibitor compound - C75 |
|
|
Term
Malonyl CoA inhibits production of a neuropeptide compound called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neuropeptide Y signals the inhibition of feeding?
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe diabetic ketoacidosis? |
|
Definition
blood concentrations of acetoacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid are as high as 20 mM.
These compounds are strong acids with a pKa of ~3.5, resulting in acidosis
In biochemical terms, the events are very similar to starvation mediated ketosis:
a) increased glucagon/insulin ratio results in elevation of liver cAMP
b) Elevated liver cAMP leads to decreased malonyl CoA
c) decreased malonyl CoA leads to de-inhibition of CPT I
d) de-inhibition of CPT I results in activation of fatty acid oxidation (fatty acid degradation) and increased ketone body production
|
|
|
Term
Name 2 enzymes that convert alcohol into acetate |
|
Definition
alcohol dehydrogenase
aldehyde dehydrogenase |
|
|
Term
Name the reductant that is produced during the oxidation of alcohol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many moles of ATP are produced upon complete oxidation of ethanol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name a few compounds that are metabolized by omega-oxidation pathway |
|
Definition
ω-methyl
adjacent methylene carbon of fatty acids
fatty acids 6-10 Cs long |
|
|
Term
Upon complete oxidation of capric acid, how many moles of net ATP are produced? |
|
Definition
Capric acid = C10 - 4 NADH + 4 FADH2 + 5 Acetyl CoA = (4x3) + (4x2) + (5x12) = 80 ATP
|
|
|
Term
What are advantages of having fatty acid synthase as a multi enzyme complex as seen in mammals as opposed to individual polypeptides as seen in bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is fat storage energetically better compared to glycogen? |
|
Definition
Adipose storage of TAG’s initially uses less energy to produce TAG’s, plus, degradation via ß-oxidation provides
more energy/ ATP than Glycogen storage
|
|
|
Term
Explain how ketone bodies can serve as an energy source in brain during starvation? |
|
Definition
ketone bodies are synthesized by liver during starvation to feed the brain
acetoacetate is converted to acetoacetyl CoA by thiophorase after cross blood brain barrier
acetoacetyl CoA can be converted to 2 acetyl CoA by thiokinase
2 acetyl CoA then undergo citric acid cycle to produce energy in the brain |
|
|
Term
Why can carnitine palmitoyltransferase I deficiency lead to hypoketosis? |
|
Definition
defect in transporting fatty acid carnitine
don't have free fatty acids to make acetyl CoA and subsequently don't get ketone bodies
don't make enough ketone bodies |
|
|
Term
Why are alcoholics hypoglycemic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What compound is the source of all carbons in cholesterol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cholesterol is the precursor for what 4 major types of compounds? |
|
Definition
bile salts
vitamin D
corticosteroids
sex hormones |
|
|
Term
What are the 5 stages in cholesterol biosynthesis that we discussed and their products? |
|
Definition
1.) Mevalonate synthesis → Mevalonate
2.) Isoprenoid synthesis → Isoprenoid units
3.) Squalene synthesis → Squalene
4.) Lansterol Synthesis → Lansterol
5.) Synthesis of Cholesterol from Lanosterol → Cholesterol
|
|
|
Term
What are substrate, enzyme, and product of the rate-limiting step of cholesterol synthesis? |
|
Definition
rate limiting step
HMG-CoA + 2 NADPH + 2 H+ → Mevalonate + 2 NADP+ + CoASH |
|
|
Term
What are different means by which cholesterol synthesis is controlled naturally? |
|
Definition
1.) Bicyclic control system:
As insulin ↑ , cholesterol ↑
As glucagon ↑ , cholesterol ↓
2.) HMG-Reductase degradation:
As cholesterol ↑ HMG-Reducases downregulates.
3.) Genetic controls: Sterols and mevalonate metabolites inhibit HMG-Reductase RNA synthesis
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|
Term
What are the main dietary sources of cholesterol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does the body get rid of cholesterol? |
|
Definition
The body metabolizes some cholesterol into bile salts and steroids.
Rest go to tissues for storage or excreted out of body in feces. |
|
|
Term
What are bile salts and their use? |
|
Definition
modification of cholesterol by ring hydrozylations and side chain oxidation result is cholic acid
cholic acid reacts with amino acids to form amides known as bile salts
Fxn: released by gall bladder to help solubilize dietary fats |
|
|
Term
What is the route of circulation for the re-absorption of bile salts? |
|
Definition
Liver → Gall bladder storage → Intestine (some to lymphatics) → Bloodstream → Liver. |
|
|
Term
What are 2 ways in which pharmaceutical intervention is used to lower patient cholesterol levels? |
|
Definition
1) inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase; Mevacor
2) in small intestine removal and excretion of bile salts; Colestipol or Cholestyramine |
|
|
Term
What types of compounds supply the precursors for the eicosanoids and where are they found? |
|
Definition
glycerophospholipids in plasma membrane |
|
|
Term
What enzyme cleaves the fatty acid off of the starting material? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kinds of compounds activate phospholipase A2? |
|
Definition
angiotensin
bradykinin
epinephrine
thrombin |
|
|
Term
What kinds of compounds inhibit phospholipase A2? |
|
Definition
inhibited by anti-inflammatory corticosteroids through induction of protein inhibitor of phospholipase A2 → lipocortin |
|
|
Term
Where are the general types of eicosanoids and how their names arise? |
|
Definition
Eicosanods: Latin for “20” (number of C atoms in the molecules)
Prostaglandins: Thought to be from the prostate gland
Thromboxanes: Isolated from platelets
Leukotrienes: Isolated from leukocytes
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Term
What enzyme paths are used for the synthesis of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes? |
|
Definition
glycerophospholipid → arachidonic acid
cyclooxygenase reaction of arachidonic acid → thromboxane or prostaglandin
lipoxygenase reaction of arachidonic acid → leukotriene |
|
|
Term
What compounds inhibit cyclooxygenases? |
|
Definition
aspirin
non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) |
|
|
Term
What are some of the effects that prostaglandins can have? |
|
Definition
8 EFFECTS
stimulate smooth muscle contraction
regulate steroid synthesis
inhibit gastric secretion
inhibit hormone sensitive lipases
inhibit platelet aggregation
regulate nerve transmissions
sensitive to pain
mediate inflammatory response |
|
|
Term
What effects do thromboxanes have? |
|
Definition
platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
Where are leukotrienes found? |
|
Definition
leukocytes
mast cells
vascular tissue
platelets
macrophages |
|
|
Term
What pathway is used to synthesize leukotrienes? |
|
Definition
leukotrienes are synthesized from arachidonic acid or linolenic acid by the lipoxygenase path |
|
|
Term
What are the slow reacting substances of anaphylaxis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What biological effects do leukotrienes have? |
|
Definition
contraction of smooth muscle in pulmonary airway
alteration in permeability of microvasculature, resulting in fluids and proteins leaking into tissues |
|
|
Term
Is the NADH/NAD+ ratio high or low in alcoholics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why does high NADH production in alcoholics lead to lipid formation? |
|
Definition
↑ NADH levels indicate excess energy; therefore, ß-oxidation of triacyglycerols doesn't occur resulting in high lipid levels
|
|
|
Term
What are ω-3 and ω-6 fatty acids? |
|
Definition
ω-3 = Omega-3 Fatty acids = Fatty acids with a double bond 3 carbons away from the last (ω) carbon on the F.A. chain
Example = Linolenic acid 18:3 (9,12,15)
ω-6 = Omega-6 Fatty acids = Fatty acids with a double bond 6 carbons away from the last (ω) carbon on the F.A. chain
Example = Linoleic acid 18:2 (9,12)
|
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|
Term
Describe the citrate lyase catalyzed reaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Can carbon skelton from C-17 fatty acid oxidation enter gluconeogenic pathway. If yes, explain how |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Can a carbon skeleton from C-16 fatty acid oxidation enter the gluconeogenic pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Excretion of higher methylmalonic acid through urine is a sign of what vitamin deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the biochemical reasons for the peripheral neuropathy in Vitamin B12 deficient individuals? |
|
Definition
lack of vitamin B12 inhibits fat beta oxidation which further has negative effects on myelin synthesis and results in peripheral neuropathy? |
|
|
Term
Describe the pathway of ketogenesis |
|
Definition
1) 2 molecules of acetyl CoA → acetoacetyl CoA (thiolase)
2) acetoacetyl CoA → HMG CoA
(HMG CoA synthase)
3) HMG CoA → Acetoacetate + Acetyl CoA
(HMG CoA lyase)
4a) Acetoacetate → Acetone
(Spontaneous)
or
4b) Acetoacetate → Beta-Hydroxy Butyrate
(dehydrogenase)
|
|
|
Term
Describe the pathway of ketogenolysis |
|
Definition
Ketogenesis occurs before
Acetoacetate
1) Acetoacetate → Goes Through Blood to Tissue
2) Acetoacetate + succinyl CoA → Acetoacetyl CoA
(thiophorase)
3) Acetoacetyl CoA → 2 Acetyl CoA
(thiokinase + CoA)
4) 2 Acetyl CoA enter TCA cycle to produce energy
SEE PAGE 67 |
|
|
Term
Can muscle use ketone bodies as energy source? If yes, explain how ketone bodies enter energy metabolism? |
|
Definition
Yes, muscles can use ketone bodies as energy source
2) Acetoacetate + succinyl CoA → Acetoacetyl CoA
(thiophorase)
3) Acetoacetyl CoA → 2 Acetyl CoA
(thiokinase + CoA)
4) 2 Acetyl CoA enter TCA cycle to produce energy
|
|
|
Term
Explain the hormonal bases of ketogenesis (in liver) and ketogenolysis (in extrahepatic tissues) in Type I diabetes? |
|
Definition
↓ Insulin production = ↑[Glucagon]/[Insulin] ratio, hence, F.A.’s will be mobilized via Hormone sensitive Lipase.
Due to ↓ Insulin, there will be an increase in F.A. ß-oxidation producing an overabundance of Acetyl CoA, which is then converted into Ketone Bodies. The [Ketone Body] ↑, and because these compounds contain highly acidic protons (pKa = 3.5), the blood pH will become acidic = DKA. |
|
|
Term
High NADH/NAD+ in alcoholics results in the production of what? |
|
Definition
3-hydroxybutyrate (beta-hydroxybutyrate) |
|
|
Term
A person with a deficiency of vitamin B12 is recommended to avoid what type of food? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A person with biotin deficiency cannot metabolize what fatty acid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name 3 types of sphinogolipids and describe them |
|
Definition
sphinogomyelin
impt membrane component esp. in nervous sytem
synthesized from 2 routes by ceramide
ceramide
immediate precursor of sphinogolipids
second messenger for NGF
globoside
neutral cerebroside oligosaccharides
gangliosides
acidic ceramide oligosaccharides that contain N-acetyl neuraminic acid (NANA or sialic acid) |
|
|
Term
What compounds are the precursors for sphinogosine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sphingosine + acyl CoA → Ceramide + CoASH
(Acyl CoA transferase)
|
|
|
Term
How is sphingomyelin synthesized? |
|
Definition
ceramide + CDP-choline → sphingomyelin + CMP
OR
ceramide + phosphatidyl choline → sphingomyelin + DAG |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 types of glycosphinogolipids? |
|
Definition
cerebrosides
sulfatides
globosides
gangliosides |
|
|
Term
How are cerebrosides synthesized? |
|
Definition
ceramide + UDP sugar → cerebroside + UDP |
|
|
Term
What is PAPS and what is it used for? |
|
Definition
3’-phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphosulfate
It is an activated sulfate which converts galactocerebroside to sulfatide
|
|
|
Term
What defect exists in Gaucher's disease? |
|
Definition
Deficiency of glucocerebrosidase, preventing degradative path of Glucocerebroside to Ceramide. This is the most common sphingolipidoses (lipid storage disease) |
|
|
Term
What defect exists in Tay-Sachs disease? |
|
Definition
deficiency of hexoaminidase A |
|
|
Term
What are the structural features of gangliosides? |
|
Definition
acidic ceramide oligosaccharides that contain N-acetyl neuraminic acid (NANA or sialic acid) |
|
|
Term
What does semiconservative replication mean? |
|
Definition
the 2 daughter double-stranded DNA molecules each contain 1 strand of parent DNA |
|
|
Term
What 3 observations have been made for all DNA polymerases? |
|
Definition
Incoming base paring is selected by complementary base pairing with a template strand.
Chain growth is in the 5’ to 3’ direction
All DNA polymerases require a primer strand to add bases to.
|
|
|
Term
What is the function of DNA polymerase I? |
|
Definition
prokaryotic DNA elongation and repair
5'-3' polymerization activity (synthesis)
5'-3' exonuclease activity (repair and removal)
3'-5' activity (proofreading) |
|
|
Term
What is the Klenow fragment? |
|
Definition
larger subunit of DNA polymerase I that contains 5'-3' synthesis activity and 3'-5' proofreading activity |
|
|
Term
What is the function of DNA polymerase III? |
|
Definition
prokaryotic DNA elongation and repair enzyme
complex structure; 10 subunits
forms a sliding clamp on the DNA strand
has a higher processivity than DNA polymerase I |
|
|
Term
What is the function of a topoisomerase? |
|
Definition
enzyme that changes the topography of DNA molecules by cutting strands; allows the amount of supercoiling to be adjusted and re-ligating the strands
relieves supercoiling |
|
|
Term
What is the function of a helicase? |
|
Definition
enzyme that catalyzes the unwinding of double stranded DNA by disrupting base-pair H-bonding |
|
|
Term
In replication, what is the leading strand and what is the lagging strand? |
|
Definition
leading strand - DNA continuously synthesized in 5'-3' direction
lagging strand - DNA discontinuously synthesized in 3'-5' direction (Okazaki fragments) |
|
|
Term
How is RNA used in DNA replication? |
|
Definition
RNA sequences serve as the primer sequences for DNA polymerase in the discontinuous synthesis of the lagging strand |
|
|
Term
What are Okazaki fragments? |
|
Definition
pieces of DNA that are replicated on the 3’-5’ (lagging) strand that will eventually be joined by ligases to make a complete DNA replicate strand.
|
|
|
Term
Where is E. coli DNA replication initiated and where is it terminated? |
|
Definition
initiated at oriC
terminated at the tau or ter site |
|
|
Term
What are the processivities of DNA polymerases I and III? |
|
Definition
DNA polymerase I has a low processivity (20 bases before it disassociates)
DNA polymerase III has a high processivity (5 million bases before it dissociates)
|
|
|
Term
Where is DNA found in eukaryotes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is DNA packaged in eukaryotes? |
|
Definition
the double stranded DNA moleculed are wrapped with their negatively charged phosphate groups around octamers of positively charged proteins called histones |
|
|
Term
What are some contrasts between features of prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication? |
|
Definition
Eukaryotic DNA is much longer, the synthesis is much slower and occurs in accordance with the cell cycle.
Eukaryotic cells use a large number of DNA polymerase molecules and begin replication at multiple sites.
|
|
|
Term
What DNA polymerase is believed to be responsible for leading strand synthesis and which for lagging strand synthesis in eukaryotes? |
|
Definition
leading strand synthesis - DNA polymerase delta
lagging strand synthesis - DNA polymerase alpha |
|
|
Term
What proteins are in nucleosomes and why do they bind to DNA? |
|
Definition
nucleosomes contain positively charged histone proteins
these + charged histones are attracted to the - charged phosphate groups of DNA |
|
|
Term
What is PCNA and what role does it play? |
|
Definition
Proliferating cell Nuclear Antigen (PCNA) is a cyclin that forms a clamp around the template DNA strand to dramatically increase the processivity of DNA polymerase delta.
|
|
|
Term
What is the arrangement of nucleosomes after DNA replication? |
|
Definition
Nucleosomes are cooperatively distributed after DNA replication
The new histones end up along one daughter stand near each replication fork
The histones from the original nucleosomes are found in the nucleosomes reformed along the other new strand
|
|
|
Term
How might nucleosomes affect eukaryotic DNA replication? |
|
Definition
The presence of these histones (specifically the original ones, that remain associated with one strand of the replication fork) (may be why DNA polymerization is so much slower in eukaryotes)
|
|
|
Term
What is the model used to describe DNA replication in mitochondria? |
|
Definition
displacement loop replication |
|
|
Term
What are the overall anabolic and catabolic pathways involved in nucleotide metabolism? |
|
Definition
anabolic - purine and pyrimidine de novo synthesis and salvage pathways
catabolic - purine and pyrimidine degradation pathways |
|
|
Term
What major difference is there between purine and pyrimidine synthesis in terms of when and how the ring is added? |
|
Definition
purines - the ring is built as the pathway progresses.
<
pyrimidines, the ring is built 1st, then added to the PRPP.
|
|
|
Term
Both purine and pyrimidine synthesis have a molecule in common. What is that molecule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What molecule is used at the start of the purine synthesis pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What molecule is formed by the purine synthesis pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the addition of the first component of the purine ring? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nitrogen-containing amino acid donates this first part of the ring? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many enzymatic steps are required to synthesize IMP from PRPP in humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the cellular localization of all the enzymes that carry out these steps (many of the steps are carried out by enzymatic activities contained on a single polypeptide chain). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What carrier is utilized in two different steps to add to the ring? |
|
Definition
N10 formyl tetrahydrofolate |
|
|
Term
What vitamin is N10 formyl THF derived from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What atom does N10 formyl THF donate? Hint- the class of enzymes known as transformylases catalyze these steps. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
supporting neuronal cells that maintain the normal physiology of the nervous system |
|
|
Term
What are some of the biochemical functions of microglia, astrocytes, and oligodendocytes? |
|
Definition
MICROGLIA
fight infections; release inflammatory substances that could damage neurons
ASTROCYTES
regulate molecules necessary for inter-neuron communication
clear glutamate in the synapse to stop the neurotransmission mediated by glutamate
release neural growth factors
take up monoamine transmitters like serotonin or dopamine
OLIGODENDROCYTES
provide fatty myelin sheaths that insulate axons in the CNS
multiple sclerosis results when axonal connections die off
|
|
|
Term
Acetycholine is not metabolized by reuptake process. Explain which cells would catabolize acetylcholine after action potential? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Explain the differences between endogenous proteolysis (protein degradation) VS digestion related protein degradation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are normal blood creatinine values? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the metabolism of glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids in relation to TCA cycle. |
|
Definition
different amino acids (both ketogenic and glucogenic) synthesize different components of the TCA cycle.
For example, both aspartate and asparagine synthesize oxaloacetate
SEE PG. 71 IN DR. VENK'S LECTURE #1 |
|
|
Term
Describe the lactate dehydrogenase catalyzed reaction. |
|
Definition
(1) pyruvate→lactate (LDH M)
(2) lactate→pyruvate (LDH L)
Prolonged muscle activity results in pyruvate being converted into lactate by LDH M
lactate then moves from the muscle into blood and enters the liver
In the liver, LDH L converts lactate back into pyruvate
pyruvate is further metabolized to form glucose to gluconeogenesis
This entire process is known as Cori's cycle. |
|
|
Term
When lactate accumulates in the blood it is a problem. Why? |
|
Definition
accumulation of lactate in the blood leads to lactate acidosis
indicative of tissue hypoxia, hypoperfusion, and possible damage |
|
|
Term
Describe the catecholamine synthesis pathway. |
|
Definition
(1) tyrosine→DOPA (tyrosine hydroxylase)
(2) DOPA→dopamine (DOPA decarboxylase)
(3) dopamine→norepinephrine (hydroxylase)
(4) norepinephrine→epinephrine
(methyl transferase)
Rate limiting step = tyrosine hydroxylase catalyzed reaction (step 1)
Step 1 requires molecular oxygen and tetrahydrobiopterin (THB)
|
|
|
Term
Explain why vitamin B6 deficiency can cause brain related problem. |
|
Definition
GABA is found in high concentrations in the brain where it serves as an inhibitory neurotransmitter.
glutamate→GABA (glutamate decarboxylase)
The enzyme requires the vitamin B6 derivate pyridoxal phosphate as a coenzyme so deficieny of vitamin B6 would impair activity of the decarboxylase and production of GABA. |
|
|
Term
Describe the biosynthesis of serotonin and melatonin. |
|
Definition
Synthesis of Serotonin
1) Tryptophan→5-hydroxy tryptophan
(tryptophan hydroxylase)
2) 5-hydroxy tryptophan→serotonin
(decarboxylase)
Synthesis of Melatonin
1) serotonin→N-acetyl serotonin
(NAT)
2) N-acetyl serotonin→melatonin
(methyl transferase)
|
|
|
Term
Describe the biosynthesis of histamine and its functions. |
|
Definition
histidine→histamine
(histidine decarboxylase)
Functions: 1) mediate allergic and inflammatory reactions
2) powerful vasodilator
3) causes constriction of bronchioles in lungs
4) stimulates secretion of HCl in stomach |
|
|
Term
Describe the biosynthesis of creatine phosphate and its degradation. |
|
Definition
Synthesis
1) arginine + glycine→guanido acetate + ornithine
(transamidase)
2) guanidino acetate→creatine
(SAM-dependent methylation)
3) creatine→creatine phosphate
(creatine kinase)
Degradation
1) phosphocreatine→creatinine
(non-enzymatic conversion)
creatinine is excreted through the urine |
|
|
Term
Which vitamin derivative is required as a cofactor for many of the decarboxylases? |
|
Definition
pyridoxal phosphate
derived from vitamin B6 |
|
|
Term
Describe the three nitric oxide synthases and the respective functions of the nitric oxides in different tissues. |
|
Definition
Endothelium-derived NO
NO diffuses out of endothelial cells and into vascular smooth muscle cells.
Activates cytosolic guanylate cyclase→increases cGMP
Activation of cGMP dependent protein kinase→phosphorylation of smooth muscle contractile proteins and relaxation
Brain-derived NO
receptors for NO in neurons
stimulation of guanylate cyclase→increased cGMP synthesis
Proteins that are phosphorylated and activated not well understood
Macrophage-derived NO
due to infections by bacteria, NO synthesis stimulated
NO toxic to bacteria |
|
|
Term
Biochemical basis for Parkinson's |
|
Definition
degeneration of the substantia nigra leads to reduced dopamine production
treated by: administration of L-DOPA which is precursor of dopamine that can cross blood brain barrier |
|
|
Term
Biochemical basis for depression |
|
Definition
Serotonin from synaptic cleft is taken up by presynaptic cells for catabolism
Treated with: Prozac which inhibits the serotonin reuptake process and enables prolonged serotonin presence in synaptic cleft |
|
|
Term
Biochemical basis of pheochromocytomas |
|
Definition
tumors of chromaffin tissue that produce large amounts of catecholamines
leads to hypertension |
|
|
Term
Biochemical basis of Huntington's |
|
Definition
Now thought to be a polyglutamine trinucleotide repeat problem rather than a problem with low GABA levels |
|
|
Term
What is the definition of biopharmaceutical? What is the definition of recombinant DNA? |
|
Definition
biopharmaceutical - drug produced in living cells
recombinant DNA - taking a given DNA sequence and putting it together in a different arrangment |
|
|
Term
Describe how one "recombines" DNA including cutting, hybridizing, and ligating it. What enzymes are utilized for cutting DNA? |
|
Definition
cutting - use restriction enzymes
hybridizing - complementary base pairing of strands in test tube; GC and AT pairs (H bonds)
ligation - covalent bonds btwn base in each strand; ligases make covalent bonds; permanently put DNA strand back together; make sequence functional
|
|
|
Term
What is a plasmid? Give an example of a gene found on a plasmid that is naturally occurring. |
|
Definition
small DNA circle in bacteria that can be cut with restriction enzymes and recombinant DNA can be replicated by ligating the recombinant sequence into the bacterial chromosome and allowing the bacteria to produce many copies of the DNA sequence
gene on a plasmid that is naturally occurring - Bacillacis anthracis toxins in DNA |
|
|
Term
What about insulin causes difficulty in producing it be recombinant DNA means (2 things)? |
|
Definition
not 1 polypeptide chain but 2 (A and B chains)
3 disulfide linkages and bacteria don't have disulfide linkages |
|
|
Term
What are the advantages of producing insulin in bacteria? |
|
Definition
bacteria produces more product than yeast
bacteria easier to set up and maintain than yeast |
|
|
Term
What are the advantages of producing insulin in yeast? |
|
Definition
insulin is already folded and disulfide bonds are linked correctly
more like mammalian cells |
|
|
Term
What do we mean by calling Enbrel (etanercept) a fusion protein? Why does it involve fusing 2 proteins, i.e. what properties are due to each part? What do we mean by calling Enbrel a decoy? |
|
Definition
block TNF alpha signal transduction pathway
fusion protein b/c it binds to the TNF alpha receptor with a receptor domain and a immunogammaglobulin to pull TNF alpha away from cell and float in circulation (decoy)
|
|
|
Term
It might be quicker to go from the idea of inhibiting TNF to a drug by making the drug as a biopharmaceutical than it would be to go from the idea of making a conventional drug. Why? What might be an advantage of a small molecule conventional drug? |
|
Definition
it can take a lot of time in the lab to grow small molecule drugs and see what blocks signal transduction pathway
This small molecule conventional drug might have a more specific effect??? |
|
|
Term
What are the advantages of producing Enbrel in Chinese Hamster Ovary cells? |
|
Definition
folding is more like a human than yeast
additions of sugars and other modifications are required for some proteins that can be done by the hamster ovary cells |
|
|
Term
Are drugs on the market more likely to be polyclonal antibodies, or are they more likely to be monoclonal antibodies, or are they more likely to be recombinant DNA molecules based on monoclonal antibody sequence information? Why? What is meant be humanized antibody? |
|
Definition
recombinant DNA molecule based on moloclonal antibody sequence information b/c eliminate human immune response to mouse antibody
humanized antibody - monoclonal antibody exposed to humans and those humans who don't have an immune response have their DNA substituted for the mouse DNA to prevent an immune reaction |
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|