Term
| What are the principles of health care ethics |
|
Definition
autonomy- pts right to make own HC decisions
justice- fairness
fidelity-faithfulness
beneficence-promote good, prevent harm, and remove pt from harm
nonmaleficence- do no harm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| enables nurses not to only understand themselves better, but also understand their pts and to help explore what is important to them |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| defines right and wrong based on whether an action meets the criteria of fidelity, veracity, autonomy, beneficence, and justice |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| apparent when an action represents conflicting values |
|
|
Term
| statutory, regulatory, and common law |
|
Definition
| laws that guide nursing practice are derived from 3 types of law |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
laws created by elected legislative bodies, including nurse practice acts
2 types:
Criminal-preventing/punishing harm to society
Civil- protects individuals rights |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| administrative bodies such as state boards of nursing create; in the form of rules and regulations that address the conduct of nurses |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| is the result of judicial decisions made when individual cases are decided in the courts |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| civil wrong against a person or property |
|
|
Term
| intentional or unintentional |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| assault, battery, invasion of privacy and defamation of character |
|
Definition
| examples of intentional tort |
|
|
Term
| adhere to standards of care |
|
Definition
| nurse's best protection against negligence and malpractice |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| health care providers must provide sufficient information for the patient to make an informed decision |
|
|
Term
| due to a confused or sedated person cannot give consent even if that person is usually capable of making decisions |
|
Definition
| why must signatures on consent forms be obtained before administering preoperative medications? |
|
|
Term
1. Physician should be contacted for confirmation or corrections
2. If confirmed and LVN still believes it is wrong, the nurse should contact the supervisor to intervene |
|
Definition
| If a nurse believes that a physician's order is erroneous or inappropriate, what steps must be followed? |
|
|
Term
| if given an assignment that the nurse believes violates his or her duty to the patient |
|
Definition
| Why would a nurser invoke "safe harbor" in a particular setting? |
|
|
Term
| dietary habits, customs, modes of communications, religion, art, and history |
|
Definition
| Culture influences health care practices |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| integrated system of learned values, beliefs, and practices that guides an individual's behavior |
|
|
Term
Culture is:
learned
shared
based on symbols |
|
Definition
| All cultures cultures share basic characteristics |
|
|
Term
-Teaching-due to low literacy levels, have difficulty reading, and understanding health care jargon
-economically deprived backgrounds may live in crowded, unsafe housing and have inadequate diets |
|
Definition
| How does the educational background and economic level affect and individual's perception of the world, health and illness, and health care system? |
|
|
Term
phlegm, black bile (cold)
yellow bile, blood (hot) |
|
Definition
| According to the hot and cold theory, health and illness are influenced by what four humors that regulate body functions? |
|
|
Term
| herbalists, acupuncturists, and other cultural healers, but many use formal health care in times of illnesses. |
|
Definition
| Healthcare practices that Asians may favor? |
|
|
Term
1st-pt asks ?'s regarding the hospital routine and the hospital's expectations of the pt
2nd- pt becomes disenchanted with the whole situation and is frustrated, hostile, and then depressed and withdrawn
3rd-pt begins to adapt to the new environment and maintain a sense of humor |
|
Definition
| List the 3 phases of culture shock associated with hospitalization? |
|
|
Term
-language differences
-negative attitudes toward health care providers based on past experiences |
|
Definition
| why do many ethnic or cultural minorities have difficulty getting through the maze of health care services? |
|
|
Term
-spiritual beliefs, allow you to individualize care
-the more sensitive you are to cultural differences, the more effective your nursing intervention will be |
|
Definition
How does cultural sensitivity and valuing alternative ways of dealing with health issues affect your role
as a health care provider? |
|
|
Term
| Need to know the pt's cultural patterns of thinking, feeling, and acting before developing a therapeutic plan of care. Then can tailor the nursing care plan to help the pt get through the crisis. |
|
Definition
| Why is it important to understand the pt's culture or lifestyle should serves as a guide to action and beliefs in times of crisis? |
|
|
Term
| to evaluate the "natural" products formally for safety and effectiveness and to provide a source of information for the public. |
|
Definition
| What is the purpose of the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine? |
|
|
Term
(Intimacy versus isolation)
focus on marriage, childbearing, and work |
|
Definition
| What do the developmental tasks of young adulthood focus on? |
|
|
Term
vehicular accidents
other accidents
suicide,
homicide |
|
Definition
| 4 major causes of death for those int he young adult age group? |
|
|
Term
cause of death- cardiovascular disease
most common health problems- along with cardiovascular disease are cancer, pulmonary disease, **diabetes**, obesity, alcoholism, anxiety, depression, glaucoma |
|
Definition
| major cause of death and the most common health problems among those in the middle age group? |
|
|
Term
| Complete exam recommended every 3 years, and should include routine BP screening, cholesterol and glucose testing |
|
Definition
| During the middle years, what is the recommended frequency of a complete physical exam? What should it include? |
|
|
Term
1.biologic age- functional capabilities of various organ systems in the body
2.psychologic age-behavioral capacity of the person to adapt to changing environmental demands
3.social age- roles and habits of a person in relation to other members of society. Ex dress, language, and social relationships |
|
Definition
| What are the markers that perhaps more accurately define older age? |
|
|
Term
| Declines in bodily function, particularly in vision and hearing, and diminished physical strength |
|
Definition
| Describe what may affect the daily functioning of the older adult? |
|
|
Term
| redirection of energy and talents to new roles and activities, the acceptance of life and the development of a personal view of death in preparation for the final stage of life |
|
Definition
| What do the developmental tasks in the older age group focus on? |
|
|
Term
| chronic illnesses, cardiovascular disease, cancer, and diabetes mellitus |
|
Definition
| List the major causes of death in the older stage? |
|
|
Term
manage chronic illnesses, maintain and prolong the period of optimal physical, mental and social activity.
**Helping maintain their independence as long as possible in the event of one or more chronic illnesses is important** |
|
Definition
| Suggested HC goals for those in the older age group? |
|
|
Term
Proper nutrition-low fat, high fiber diet, with a large amount of carbs
Exercise
Alcohol/Tobacco counseling |
|
Definition
| Activities that would promote health among those in the older age group? |
|
|
Term
Assessment
Development
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation |
|
Definition
| 5 components in the nursing process? |
|
|
Term
subjective-pt's thoughts/feelings
objective- can be seen or measured |
|
Definition
| difference between subjective/objective data? |
|
|
Term
1.Biographic data
2.Chief complaint (reason for seeking care)
3.Present health or history of present illness
4.Medical history
5.Family History
6. Review of systems
7.Functional assessment of ADLs |
|
Definition
| What data should be collected when compiling the traditional health history? |
|
|
Term
| inspection, palpataion, percussion, and auscultation |
|
Definition
| 4 methods of examinations? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| purposeful observation of the person as a whole and then systematically from head to to |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| uses the sense of touch to assess carious parts of the body and helps confirm findings that are noted on inspection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| tapping on the skin to asses the underlying tissues (chest and abdomen is most common) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| listening to sounds produced by the body, such as heart, lung, and intestinal sounds. |
|
|
Term
| x-rays, ECGs, MRIs, CTs, PETs, ultrasound studies, lab blood and urine testing, and wound cultures |
|
Definition
| Examples of common diagnostic tests? |
|
|
Term
Medical diagnosis focuses on the etiology(cause) of the dysfunction of a specific organ or system
Nursing diagnosis- focuses on the pt's physical psychologic, and social responses to a health problem or potential health problem |
|
Definition
| How is a nursing diagnosis different from a medical diagnosis? |
|
|
Term
| They are **standard care plans**, developed to set daily care priorities, schedule achievement of outcomes, and reduce length of hospital stays |
|
Definition
| What are clinical pathways and what do they include? |
|
|
Term
| patient assessments, observations and all nursing interventions |
|
Definition
| Because documentation is an important component of the nursing process, what specific information should be documented? |
|
|
Term
Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Plan
Intervention
Evaluation
Revision |
|
Definition
| What does the acronym SOAPIER stand for? |
|
|
Term
Interpretation
Analysis
Evaluation
Inference
Explanation
Self-regulation |
|
Definition
| Characteristics of a critical thinker? |
|
|
Term
Intracellular- fluid within the cell
Extracellular-fluid outside the cell |
|
Definition
| Difference between intracellular and extracellular fluid? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a substance that develops an electrical charge when dissolved in water |
|
|
Term
| NA(sodium), K(potassuim), Ca(calcium), and Mg(magnesium) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Most common; random movement of particles in all directions; move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
Ex: O2 is greater in alveoli than in capillaries, O2 diffuses to the capillaries and transported through the blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
carrier proteins can transport substances from an area of lower concentration to an area of equal or greater concentration; requires expenditure of energy
Ex:NA, K, glucose, and H are moved across cell membranes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
transfer of water and solutes through a membrane from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure
Ex:moving fluid out of capillaries into the tissues |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| movement of water across a membrane from a less concentrated solution to a more concentrated solution |
|
|
Term
by electrolytes
intra-K
extra-NA |
|
Definition
| How is osmolarity of intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid maintained? |
|
|
Term
1.Renin- secreted when BV or BP falls
2.Aldosterone- released by the adrenal glands in response to the hormone renin
3.ADH- produced by hypothalamus, and secreted by posterior pituitary gland; causes the capillaries to reabsorb more water so that urine is more concentrated and less volume is excreted
4.ANF- hormone released by the atria in response to stretching of the atria by increased BV |
|
Definition
| Hormones that have a major effect on fluid volume and balance? |
|
|
Term
| aging kidneys, reduced thirst, overall fluid volume is decreased, no water in storage, hypovolemia, BP down, and pulse is up |
|
Definition
| Multiple factors that place the older adult at risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances? |
|
|
Term
| measure of urine concentration; how much solutes, and measured by weight |
|
Definition
| Why urine specific gravity is used as a diagnostic test for fluid balance? |
|
|
Term
Serum H-% of BV that is composed of RBCs
Serum C-indicator of renal function if level is high decreased renal function |
|
Definition
| Compare serum hematocrit blood study and serum creatinine blood study? |
|
|
Term
| restrict fluids, medications (Lasix), balanced diet,give salt |
|
Definition
| What is the medical treatment for hyponatremia (low sodium)? |
|
|
Term
| loss of water, or retention of sodium is excessive; causes are: VD,diaphoresis (profuse sweating) and insufficient ADH |
|
Definition
| When may hypernatremia (high sodium) occur? |
|
|
Term
1.Cardiogenic- heart fails as a pump
2.hypovolemic- low BV
3.vasogenic- excessive dialation of blood vessels or devreased vascular resistance
4.obstructive-mechanical obstruction to blood flow and a reluctant reduction in cardiac output occur |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What conditions does hypovolemic shock occur? |
|
|
Term
1.anaphalylactic- allergic reaction; chemicals released cause vasodialation
2.septic- vasodialation
3.nuerogenic- nervous system affects the medulla causes vasodialation |
|
Definition
| 3 types of vasogenic shock? |
|
|
Term
1.early, compensatory, or reversible
2.intermediate,progressive, or decompensated
3. irrversible, or regfractory stage (dying) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| increase O2, medications, and give fluid |
|
Definition
| General medical interventions for the pt in shock? |
|
|
Term
| Cardiogenic-(gets most meds out of all shocks) contractility, preload, afterload, and heart rate |
|
Definition
| What criteria do you use when developing pharmacological interventions for the pt in shock? |
|
|
Term
| IV fluids, contractility, reduce O2, maintain body heat, fever to be treated with tylenol or NSAIDS |
|
Definition
| Interventions for a pt who is diagnosed with decreased cardiac output? |
|
|
Term
Manifest 2 or more symptoms of shock:
Temp less than 97
HR more than 90
Resp Rate more than 20
WBC count less than 4000 |
|
Definition
| What conditions may lead to systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? |
|
|
Term
| early detection or prevention is important, given that no specific treatment exists once SIRS or MODS occurs |
|
Definition
| When is a diagnosis of SIRS made? |
|
|
Term
| to prevent and treat infection, maintain tissue oxygenation, provide nutritional and metabolic support, and support individual failing organs |
|
Definition
| The goals of medical and nursing care for SIRS and MODS? |
|
|
Term
usually ordered to assess for infection.
urinalysis studied-bacteria, RBC, WBC, glucose
culture-identify organism
sensitivity-how its going to be treated |
|
Definition
| What is a clean-catch urinalysis with culture and sensitivity testing and when is it usually ordered? |
|
|
Term
habit training- timed voiding; void at scheduled intervals; not advised to resist the urge and delay voiding
prompted voiding-for people who are dependent or cognitively impaired; pt states whether they are dry or not;used with habit training |
|
Definition
| Compare/Contrast habit training and prompted voiding. |
|
|
Term
| anticholinergic and antispasmodic |
|
Definition
| Classifications of drugs used in incontinence drug therapy? |
|
|
Term
| remove obstructions (blockage), treat severe detrusor overactivity, implant an artificial sphincter, reposition the sphincter unit, improve perineal support, and inject substances that increase urethral compression |
|
Definition
| What circumstances would surgery be recommended for some conditions that cause urinary incontinence? |
|
|
Term
| confusion, and agitation--may be mistaken for dementia |
|
Definition
| What S/E must you be aware of when using anticholinerginics in the management of urinary incontinence? |
|
|
Term
Neurogenic bladder- causes bladder to spasm down, and never empty
kidney disorder- overflow; fluid back up in the kidneys-hydronephrosis |
|
Definition
| Neurogenic bladder and explain what kidney disorder it may cause? |
|
|
Term
having trouble getting to the toilet, or can't manage the mechanics
treatment- arrange environment for independent toileting; provide assistive devices enable the immobile patient to void appropriately |
|
Definition
| What is functional incontinence and how it is treated? |
|
|
Term
| empty bladder as scheduled, increase fluids, use strict aseptic technique during catheterization; keep perineal area clean |
|
Definition
| How would you reduce the risk of UTI for the patient with urinary incontinence? |
|
|
Term
used for pts that have frequent stools; not commonly used on ambulatory pts
disadvantage- skin integrity due to adhesive |
|
Definition
| Explain the use of pouches and the disadvantages of using them? |
|
|
Term
overflow
anorectal
nerogenic
symptomatic |
|
Definition
| 4 types of fecal incontinence? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| uncontrolled, frequent passage of small, semisoft stools, fecal impaction may be present |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| uncontrolled passage of stool several times a day |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| formed stools passed after meals, usually seen in dementia patients |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| incontinent stools,usually diarrhea; not related to other types of fecal incontinence |
|
|
Term
2 factors:secure pouch placement and ease of self care
to provide a good seal: not too close to umbilicus, bony prominences, scars, folds or creases. Fit smoothly around the stoma, and put below waistline if possible |
|
Definition
| Explain the factors you should consider when providing a good seal at the site of the stoma? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| opening in the ilium; when the entire colon must be bypassed or removed |
|
|
Term
| something wrong with large intestine; loop or the end of the ileum is brought out through a second abdominal incision, the edges of the loop or the end of the ileal segment are everted and sutured to the abdominal skin to create a stoma |
|
Definition
| describe the procedure of ileostomy? |
|
|
Term
Continent ileostomy has in anternal puch created from a loop of ileum for storing fecal matter.
advantages: does not have continuous drainage and doesn't have to wear a pouch |
|
Definition
| What is a continent ileostomy and what are its its advantages? |
|
|
Term
1.small bowel obstruction
2.leaking of suture lines-leading to peritonitis
3.inflammation of the reservoir |
|
Definition
| Major complications of the ileoanal reservoir? |
|
|
Term
| consistancy of stool-the closer to the rectum the more formed the stool will be, the farther away the more watery it will be |
|
Definition
| What is the importance of the location of the colostomy? |
|
|
Term
1.prolapse-prutrudes farther out than usual
2.stenosis-narrowing of the abdominal opening around the base of the stoma
3.infection |
|
Definition
| Explain the main long-term complications of colostomy? |
|
|
Term
ileal conduit
continent internal reserviors
uterostomy
nephrostomy
vesicostomy
ureterosigmoidostomy/ureteroileosigmoidostomy |
|
Definition
| Name the various types of urinary diversions? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| most common type of urinary diversion; 6-8 inch segment of the ileum is removed |
|
|
Term
| continent internal reservoirs |
|
Definition
Examples are: Kock, Mainz, Indiana, and Florida
Ileum neobladder- Urine drains into the reservoir and is eliminated through the urethra instead of a stoma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| created when one or both ureters are brought out through an opening in the abdomen or flank--after surgery is pink, but quickly fades; no reservoir exists, urine drains continuously |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ureters are implanted into the sigmoid colon |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a segment of the ileum is anastomosed to the the sigmoid and the ureters implanted into that part of the ileum |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| opening into the urinary bladder |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| tube diverts urine directly from the kidney through a tube that exists through the skin; temporary or permanent |
|
|
Term
| leakage of anastomaosed ureters/intestinal segments, ureteral obstruction, separation of the stoma, wound infection, **necrosis of the stoma**, and parlytic ileus |
|
Definition
| List the postoperative problems associated with urinary stomas? |
|
|
Term
Kock- constructed with a segment of the ileum
Indiana- made of a portion of the terminal ileum and the ascending colon |
|
Definition
| Difference between a Kock/Indiana pouch? |
|
|
Term
vesicostomy-divert from bladder; something wrong with urethra
nephrostomy- tube divert directly from kidney to skin |
|
Definition
| Compare/contrast a vesicostomy and a nephrostomy |
|
|
Term
colonoscopy
proctoscopy
sigmoidoscopy |
|
Definition
| Endoscopic examinations of the lower digestive tract include what procedures? |
|
|
Term
1.Collect the specimen in a clean, dry container
2.Deliver specimens to the lab immediately
3.Pt should not eat red meat 2-3 days prior
4.Ex of drugs that may interfere with results: salicylate agents, ascorbic acid, anticoagulant agents, and steroid agents
4. If visible blood or mucus is present in the stool, include in specimen |
|
Definition
| Important points that must be remembered when stool examinations are ordered? |
|
|
Term
emetic
antiemetic
laxative
cathartic
antidiarrheal
antacid
anticholinergic
mucosal barriers
H2 receptor blockers
proton pump inhibitors
5-HT receptor antagonist agents
prostaglandin agents
antibiotic agents |
|
Definition
| Drugs that are commonly used for their effects on the digestive tract? |
|
|
Term
is the inflammation of the parotid glands
Tx: antibiotic agents, mouthwashes, and warm complresses |
|
Definition
| What is parotitis and how is it treated? |
|
|
Term
1.Sliding hernia- the gastresophageal junction is above the hiatus, associated with GERD, and you can see when pt is laying down, and it returns when pt is sitting/standing
2.paraesophageal (rolling) hernia- the gastroesophageal junction remains in place but a portion of the stomach herniates up through the diaphragm through a secondary opening |
|
Definition
| Identify and describe the 2 types of hiatal hernias? |
|
|
Term
| gastroscopy is used to examine the interior of the stomach and to take specimens for microscopic study |
|
Definition
| During the medical diagnosis of stomach cancer, explain the purpose of a gastroscopy? |
|
|
Term
Megacolon- condition in which the large intestine loses the ability to contract effectively enough to propel the fecal mass toward the rectum
fecal impaction-retention of a large mass of stool in the rectum that the pt in unable to pass |
|
Definition
| Explain the difference between a megacolon and fecal impaction? |
|
|
Term
reducible-slips back into the abdominal cavity
irreducible/incarerated- cannot be manipulated back into place;may impair blood flow (called strangulated) to the trapped loop of intestine, causing it to become gangrenous |
|
Definition
| How are abdominal hernias classified? |
|
|
Term
high residue diet without spicy foods
stool softeners/antidiarrheals
analgesic agents
OPIODS shouldn't be given-constipation
antibiotics
anticholinergic
Avoid foods with seeds, or hard particles, peanuts, raspberries and blackberries |
|
Definition
| Describe the treatment recommendations for diverticulosis? |
|
|
Term
1.Ligation-tying off with rubber bands
2.Sclerotherapy-injection of agent into tissue around hemorroids that causes them to shrink
3.Thermocoagulation and electocoagulation-different devices for removal
4.Laser surgery-effective, more expensive and risky |
|
Definition
| List the outpatient procedures for removing hemorrhoids? |
|
|
Term
dietary intake
patterns of activity (exercise)
rest
alcohol
drugs
tobacco
exposure to toxins |
|
Definition
| When performing the functional assessment of a pt with a liver disease, what information is generally collected? |
|
|
Term
1.open biopsy- an incision under general anesthesia
2.needle biopsy-involves the use of a special type of needle, inserted through the abdominal wall
3.punch biopsy |
|
Definition
| Explain the methods in which specimens are obtained through a liver biopsy? |
|
|
Term
1.Preicteric-RUQ abdominal pain, anorexia, N,V, fever, joint pain, rash
2.Icteric- jaundice, light or clay colored stools, dark urine, impaired bile production and secretion, pruritus may be present to to due to bile salts under the skin
3.Posticteric-fatigue, malaise, liver enlargement |
|
Definition
| The course of the disease hepatitis is marked by what 3 phases? |
|
|
Term
3000 ml/day fluid intake(unless renal impairment)
monitor fluid retention
weight
abdominal girth,
high BP |
|
Definition
| What interventions are recommended for the hepatitis pt who is experiencing deficient fluid volume? |
|
|
Term
1.Alcoholic
2.Postnecrotic-complication of hepatitis in which massive liver cell necrosis occurs (liver starts dying)
3.Biliary(idiopathic)- obstruction to bile flow
4.Cardiac-Right sided heart failure |
|
Definition
| Name and describe the 4 major types of cirrhosis according to cause? |
|
|
Term
reduce ammonia
restrict protein |
|
Definition
| What is the goal of drug therapy in hepatic encephalopathy and how is it achieved? |
|
|
Term
liver enlargement
weight loss, anorexia, N,V, and dull pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen |
|
Definition
| List signs and symptoms of liver cancer? |
|
|
Term
1.analgesic/anticholinergics ordered to relieve pain and muscle spasms
2.antibiotics-tx infection
3.IV fluids-maintain fluid balance
NG tube-relieves N, V, and reduces stimulation of the gallbladder by intestinal contents |
|
Definition
| How is acute cholecystitis managed? |
|
|
Term
| may be placed in the common bile duct to maintain bile flow until swelling in the duct subsides |
|
Definition
| Why would a T-tube be inserted during a cholecystectomy? |
|
|
Term
frequent turning
coughing
deep breathing
Semi-fowler's position |
|
Definition
| Explain the measures you would take to prevent pulmonary complications in the pt with pancreatitis? |
|
|
Term
-delay positioning until just before exam
-drape the pt
-provide verbal/nonverbal support |
|
Definition
| What can you do to minimize the sense of vulnerability that women may experience during a pelvic exam? |
|
|
Term
1.assess the endometrium for readiness to accept and nourish a fertilized ovum
2.indirectly assess corpus luteum function in cases of possible infertility
3.diagnose irregular uterine bleeding patterns
4.diagnose uterine cancer |
|
Definition
| Reasons for an endometrial biopsy? |
|
|
Term
1.dialation of the cervix by insertion of a series of progressively larger rods
2.endometrial curettage, or scraping of the entire uterine lining |
|
Definition
| How is dilation and curettage performed? |
|
|
Term
| because it may force tissue and microorganisms up into the uterus |
|
Definition
| Why can douching be potentially dangerous? |
|
|
Term
perineal pain-most common
fever, labial edema, chills, malaise, and purulent discharge |
|
Definition
| Describe the S/S of bartholinitis? |
|
|
Term
is an infection induced inflammation of breast tissue most commonly occurring in the lactating women
-managed by frequent emptying of the breast, heat application, rest, and administration of an analgesic agent |
|
Definition
| What is mastitis and how are its symptoms managed? |
|
|
Term
| rest, application of heat via warm compresses, heating pad, or sitz baths, analgesic agents and broad spectrum antibiotic agents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| constriction of pelvis structures by endometriosis related adhesions |
|
Definition
| Most common complication of endometriosis? |
|
|
Term
symptoms- may be asymptomatic; menstrual irregularities, menorrhagia, and dysmenorrhea
complications-infertility, crowding and malpositioning of the fetus during pregnancy, degenerative changes related to interruption of blood supply |
|
Definition
| Describe symptoms and complications of a fibroid tumor? |
|
|
Term
| vaginal hysterectomy with anterior and posterior colporrhaphy |
|
Definition
| Mos common surgical treatment for uterine prolapse? |
|
|
Term
| important because they may have a direct and devastating effect on sexual function, sterility, and self-image for the male pt |
|
Definition
| When reviewing the systems and focusing on male reproductive disorders, why are the symptoms of possible endocrine dysfunction important? |
|
|
Term
-skin of scrotum should be slightly darker in color, wrinkled, and loose.
-Left testicle hangs lower than right
-oval in shape, smooth, firm, and without masses or tenderness |
|
Definition
During the physical exam of a pt with a male reproductive disorder, what are the normal characteristics
that you would expect when examining the scrotum? |
|
|
Term
testicular tumor
adrenal tumor
adrenal dysfunction
antconvulsant and barbiturate agents |
|
Definition
| List the causes of increased levels of testosterone in the adult male? |
|
|
Term
| Uses a lighted instrument inserted through the urethra to visualize the urethra, bladder, and prostatic urethra. May detect prostatic hyperplasia and bladder tumors. |
|
Definition
| Use of cystoscopy as a diagnostic procedure for male reproductive disorders? |
|
|
Term
inflammation of the prostate glands
S/S- swelling, warmth, and tenderness
May also have dysuria, frequency, hematuria, and foul-smelling urine |
|
Definition
| What is acute prostatitis and what are its S/S? |
|
|
Term
| reported symptoms, rectal exam, lab and x-ray studies, endoscopy, ultrasound, catheterization for residual urine, and sometime urodynamic testing |
|
Definition
| Procedures used to diagnose benign prostatic hypertrophy? |
|
|
Term
-is performed through the bladder by way of a low abdominal incision.
-selected when prostate is very large or when bladder abnormalities also exist that require surgical correction |
|
Definition
| How is suprapubic prostatectomy performed and when is this procedure selected? |
|
|
Term
vascular
neurologic
endocrine
psychologic factors |
|
Definition
| Name the general contributing factors of erectile dysfunction (impotence)? |
|
|
Term
| failure to initiate, failure to fill or store, and some patients with psychogenic problems that are not appropriate for or responsive to counseling or sex therapy |
|
Definition
| When may penile implants be prescribed? |
|
|
Term
def-any testis located in other than a dependent scrotal position
Tx-corrected within the first 18 months of life |
|
Definition
| What is cryptorchidism and when must it be treated? |
|
|
Term
1.serologic tests-blood test used for Hep A,B,C,D,E, syphilis, HIV, herpes simplex, and cytomegalovirus
2.studies of smears/cultures-gonococcal, chlamydial, herpes simplex, Trich, or yeast infections |
|
Definition
| Primary measures used to diagnose STIs? |
|
|
Term
Males(more noticeable)-penile discharge,painful or frequent urination
Women-vaginal discharge, painful urination, N, fever, painful intercourse, bleeding between menstrual period, and lower abdominal pain |
|
Definition
| Chlamydia symptoms differ in males/females? |
|
|
Term
| cause sterility in both genders and infections that may lead to damage to heart tissue and joints |
|
Definition
| If left untreated what are the complications of gonorrhea? |
|
|
Term
1.Primary-chancre is first sign of syphilis, reddish papule appears where the organism entered the body, usually on genitals, anus, or mouth
2.Secondary stage-1-6 months after contact;include rash on extremities fever and sore throat, pt is contagious during first and second stages
3.Latent stage-no symptoms exist
4.Late(tertiary)stage-1-3 years after contact; s/s include arthritis, numbness of extremities, ulcers on the skin, and internal organs, and pain because of damage to heart, blood vessels, spinal cord, or brain |
|
Definition
| Describe the stages of progression of untreated syphilis? |
|
|
Term
| parenteral penicillin G for less than one year, longer than 1 year tetracycline |
|
Definition
| What is the treatment of choice for syphilis? |
|
|
Term
acyclovir(Zovirax)
valacyclovir(Valtrex)
famciclovir (Famivir) |
|
Definition
| Even though there is no cure for herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection, What drugs would be rescribed to control the S/S during initial and recurrent episodes? |
|
|
Term
may be detected by microscopic study of vaginal discharge or urine(in men). Discharge can also be cultured to reveal the organism
Tx-Metronidazole (Flagyl treats fishy) |
|
Definition
| How is trichomoniasis medically diagnosed and treated? |
|
|
Term
| with metronidazole (Flagyl treats fishy) |
|
Definition
| Bacterial vaginosis is treated by prescribing what drugs? |
|
|
Term
| sexual behaviors, intravenous drug use, past infections with STIs, sexual contact with a person known to have an STI, drug use, victim's of sexual abuse, occupations |
|
Definition
| What are the relevant aspects of the functional assessment of the pt with a STI? |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| What must be assessed prior to administration of medications when treating a pt with an STI? |
|
|
Term
Diagnostic
Exploratory
Curative
Palliative
Cosmetic |
|
Definition
| List the classifications of surgical procedures. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Involves the removal and study of tissue to make an accurate diagnosis.
Ex: biopsy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
More extensive procedure than a biopsy. Usually requires opening a body cavity to diagnose and to find out the extent of a disease process.
Ex: laparotomy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Performed to removed diseased tissue or to correct defects.
Ex: appendicitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
relieves symptoms or improves function without correcting the basic problem
Ex: remove a malignant tumor even though cancer is spread everywhere |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Can be performed to correct serious defects that affect appearance, but it is often chosen simply because the patient wants to change a physical feature. |
|
|
Term
Cardiac depressants: general anesthetic agents, propranolol (Inderal)
CNS depressants
Epinephrine
Succinylcholine (Anectine) |
|
Definition
| What are the drugs that increase the effects of local anesthetic agents? |
|
|
Term
-inform the pt on what to expect
-reduce pt anxiety
-decrease the risk of complications during and after surgery |
|
Definition
| Name the goals of nursing during the preoperative phase. |
|
|
Term
def-states that the pt has been informed about the procedure to be performed, the alternative treatments, and the risks involved and that the pt agrees to the procedure.
restrictions-pt must be fully aware/alert in order to sign a consent
-if a minor, parent/guardian must sign for them |
|
Definition
| What is a consent form and explain the restrictions regarding the pt signing this form? |
|
|
Term
-instruct pt to remove all undergarments unless policy dictates otherwise
-all jewelry should be removed; including body jewelry
-braid or secure long hair with a rubber band; no hairpins/clips
-remove nail polish; in order for accurate reading on pulse ox
-ensure pt ID band is in place |
|
Definition
| Explain what procedures of patient dress and gowning you would follow prior to surgery? |
|
|
Term
-surgeon
-assistant surgeon, nurse first assistant, or physician assistant (assist the surgeon)
-RN (circulates)
-RN first assistant (works collaboratively with the surgeon)
- RN, LVN, or surgery tech (handles instruments during sterile procedure)
-anesthesia care provide-other technician personnel with specialized jobs (fix the machines) |
|
Definition
| Who participates in the intraoperative period? |
|
|
Term
| S/s of toxic effects are excitement and CNS stimulation followed by depressions of the CNS and the cardiovascular system |
|
Definition
| What are the initial S/S of the toxic effects of local anesthesia? |
|
|
Term
-reduce anxiety w/o causing excessive drowsiness
-induce perioperative amnesia
-reduce the amount of anesthesia required |
|
Definition
| Prior to receiving anesthesia, why would you give the patient preanesthetic agents? |
|
|
Term
-vital signs are stable
-respiratory and circulatory functions are adequate
-pt is awake or can be wakened easily
-complications are absent or are under control
-gag reflex is present |
|
Definition
| Under what conditions can the pat be moved from the recovery room? |
|
|
Term
| -wound drainage often bright red(sanguineous), as decreases the fluid becomes pink(serosanguineous). It should become lighter in color and thinner until straw colored and clear (serous). |
|
Definition
| What changes would you expect in wound drainage in the immediate postoperative phase? |
|
|
