Term
What is the major intracellular ion? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
what is the major extracellular ion |
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Definition
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Term
What hppens in the first phase ( zero) of action potential? |
|
Definition
sodium moves into the cell |
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Term
What happens at phase (1) of action potential |
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Definition
sodium channels close and sodium becomes the major intracellular ion
potassium begins to without |
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Term
What happens at phase (2) of action potential |
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Definition
calcium moves to the cell |
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Term
What happens at phase (3) of action potential |
|
Definition
potassium is back in to cell
as sodium and calcium exits |
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Term
What happens at phase (4) of action potential |
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Definition
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Term
what is the normal origin of electrical impulse in the heart |
|
Definition
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Term
what is the inherent rate of the SA node |
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Definition
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Term
what is the inherent rate of the AV node |
|
Definition
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Term
what is inherent rate of the Purkinje fibers?
if it life sustainable? |
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Definition
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Term
what are the three main causes other arrhythmias ( loss of automaticity) |
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Definition
electrolyte imbalance
altered tissue perfusion
hypovolemia
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Term
When does Depolarization occure? |
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Definition
occurs when the normally negatively charged cells within the heart muscle develop a positive charge. |
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Term
Impulses from the sinus node move directiy through atrial muscle and lead to atrial depolarization, which is reflected in a ____ _____ on the ECG. |
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Definition
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Term
What does the PR segment on the ECG represent |
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Definition
impulses slow down or are delayed in the AV node before proceeding to the ventricles. This slow conduction provides a short delay, allowing the atria to contract and the ventricles to fill. |
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Term
How is the PR interval measured? |
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Definition
from the beginning of the P wave to the end of the PR segment.
It normally measures from 0.12 to 0.20 second
(five small blocks max). |
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Term
What does the Q wave represent? |
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Definition
initial ventricular septal depolarization |
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Term
What can it mean if the Q wave is abnormally present in a lead? |
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Definition
it represents myocardial necrosis (cell death) |
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Term
What does the QRS duration represent? |
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Definition
the time required for depolarization of both ventricles. |
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Term
How is the QRS complex measured |
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Definition
It is measured from the beginning of the QRS complex to the J point (the junction where the QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins).
It normally measures from 0.04 to 0.10 second
(up to three small blocks). |
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Term
What does the ST segment represent |
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Definition
early ventricular repolarization. |
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Term
How is the ST segment measured? |
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Definition
It occurs from the J point (the junction where the QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins) to the beginning of the T wave.
Its length varies |
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Term
What does the T wave represent |
|
Definition
ventricular repolarization |
|
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Term
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Definition
the total time required for ventricular depolarization and repolarization |
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Term
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Definition
from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. |
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Term
On a ECG each small block represents _____ second. |
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Definition
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Term
Five small blocks make up one large block. Five large blocks represent ________ |
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Definition
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Term
How would the nurse determin the heart rate by using the big block method? |
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Definition
Count the number of big blocks between the same point in any two successive QRS complexes (usually R wave to R wave) and divide into 300. |
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Term
Measure the PR interval.
How should it be measured?
What should the measurment be? |
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Definition
Place one caliper point at the beginning of the P wave and the other point at the end of the PR segment.
The PR interval normally measures between 0.12 and 0.20 second. about 3 small boxes no more then 5 |
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Term
Measure the QRS duration.
How should it be measured?
What should the measurment be? |
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Definition
Place one caliper point at the beginning of the QRS complex and the other at the J point, where the QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins.
The QRS duration normally measures between 0.04 and 0.10 second. about two small boxes |
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Term
When the QRS is narrow (0.10 second or less), this indicates: |
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Definition
that the impulse was not formed in the ventricles and is referred to as supraventricular or above the ventricles. |
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Term
When the QRS complex is wide (greater than 0.10 second), this indicates: |
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Definition
that the impulse is either of ventricular origin or of supraventricular origin with aberrant conduction, meaning deviating from the normal course or pattern. |
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Term
WHAT it is identifying features of a premature atrial contraction |
|
Definition
all intervals are normal (the P the QRS and the ST segments are all within normal limits)
the beat occurs early therefore it has an regular rhythm |
|
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Term
what are the common characteristics of premature ventricular contractions |
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Definition
absent P wave
abnormally shaped QRS segment
QRS segment wider than normal
|
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Term
when are PVC's considered dangerous |
|
Definition
> 5 per minute
multifocal |
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Term
what is a R on T phenomenon? |
|
Definition
a PVC that occurs during the T segment
this indicates a high risk for developing V fib or V tach |
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Term
how is ventricular tachycardia treated |
|
Definition
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Term
what is the difference between cardioversion and defibrillation |
|
Definition
cardioversion is synchronized with the R wave |
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Term
what you call five PVCs in a row? |
|
Definition
a run of ventricular tachycardia |
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Term
what would be the best treatment for somebody who regularly has runs of ventricular tachycardia? |
|
Definition
placement of an automatic internal defibrillator |
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Term
what are the common characteristics of ventricular fibrillation |
|
Definition
absent P wave
no discernible QRS
erratic electrical impulse
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Term
how is ventricular fibrillation best treated |
|
Definition
early defibrillation (no synchronization) |
|
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Term
|
Definition
medications such as epinephrine, lidocaine, and atropine need to be given before defibrillation is attempted.
It is mostly considered an unshakable rhythm
often times irreversible |
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|
Term
what type of diagnosis may patient get if they have abnormal conduction problems |
|
Definition
first-degree heart block
second degree heart block ( type I and type II)
third-degree heart block |
|
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Term
what are the common characteristics of first-degree heart block |
|
Definition
PR interval >.20 sec
(five small boxes) |
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Term
what a common characteristics of second degree heart block type 1
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|
Definition
P to P interval is normal
P-R interval widens and widens, until QRS is dropped altogether.
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Term
what common characteristics of second degree heart block type II |
|
Definition
P-P interval is normal
PR interval does not increase
QRS spontaneously dropped
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Term
what I the common characteristics of third-degree heart block |
|
Definition
P – P interval is regular with a rate of 60-100
R-R is regular with the rate of < 60
no correlation P wave to QRS
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Term
__I AVR V1 V4
_II AVL V2 V5
III AVF V3 V6
Which leads give you an anterior view of the heart?
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|
Definition
__I AVR V1 V4
_II AVL V2 V5
III AVF V3 V6
I, AVL
V3, V4 |
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Term
__I AVR V1 V4
_II AVL V2 V5
III AVF V3 V6
Which leads give you an inferior view of the heart? |
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Definition
__I AVR V1 V4
_II AVL V2 V5
III AVF V3 V6
II, III, AVF |
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Term
__I AVR V1 V4
_II AVL V2 V5
III AVF V3 V6
Which leads give you an septal view of the heart? |
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Definition
__I AVR V1 V4
_II AVL V2 V5
III AVF V3 V6
V1, V2 |
|
|
Term
__I AVR V1 V4
_II AVL V2 V5
III AVF V3 V6
Which leads give you an lateral view of the heart? |
|
Definition
__I AVR V1 V4
_II AVL V2 V5
III AVF V3 V6
V5 V6 |
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|
Term
What is the criteria for a diagnosis of myocardial infarction |
|
Definition
must Exhibit 2/3
chest pain
changing EKG
elevated enzymes |
|
|
Term
what are the two types of myocardial infarction that can be distinguished on an EKG |
|
Definition
transmeural
subendocardial |
|
|
Term
what are the common characteristics of a transmeural myocardial infarction |
|
Definition
Stemi Q waves
indicates damage to the entire thickness of muscle wall
|
|
|
Term
what are the common characteristics of a subendocardial myocardial infarction |
|
Definition
non-stmi
only damages inner wall |
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|
Term
how will ischemia present on an EKG? |
|
Definition
a down ward dEFLECTION in s-t segment >1x1 box
(smily face) |
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Term
If longer longer longer drop, then you have Wenckebach If some P's don't get through, then you've got Mobitz II If R's and P's don't agree, then you have 3rd degree. |
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Definition
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|
Term
How is myocardial injury identified on the EKG |
|
Definition
ST segment is elivated
(frowning) |
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|
Term
How is infarction detected on a EKG |
|
Definition
pathologic Q wave (wide and deep)- only on full thickness
Permint T wave inversion- all types |
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Term
7-10 days after an MI what is the pt at greatest risk of? |
|
Definition
Wall rupture at sight of injury |
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Term
6-14 days after an MI what is the pt at greatest risk of? |
|
Definition
extention or reinfarction |
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|
Term
4-6 weeks after MI what is the greatist risk to the pt? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A pt come to the ED with a suspected MI in what order should you assess your pt? |
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Definition
A- secure air way, assess stability
B- breathing either mechanically or supportive O2
C- circulation EKG, BP, MEDS: MONA
D- diagnoses labs etc |
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|
Term
What type of triponin is related to an MI? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How long after an MI will you see a rise in Triponon I |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of CPK is elevated with a MI |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How long after a MI will CK-MB leves be elivated |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What types of myoglobine are tested for after an MI |
|
Definition
Totial myogloben
Myogloben MB type 1 and 2 |
|
|
Term
How long will Myogloben MB type 1 and 2 be elivated after an MI? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How long will Totial Myogloben be elivated after an MI? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Arter a MI how offtine should labs be drawn? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are the two most common Non-selective Thrombolytics |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are the three most common selective Thrombolytics |
|
Definition
t-PA ( CAN CAUSE V-FIB/TACH)
TNK-ase
Alteplase |
|
|
Term
What are the three most common antiplatelet Thrombolytics |
|
Definition
Eptifabatide
Tirofiban
Abciximab |
|
|
Term
What drugs are used to treat atrial arrhythmias |
|
Definition
adenosine
digoxin
calcium channel blockers
beta blockers
|
|
|
Term
what drugs are used to treat ventricular arrhythmias |
|
Definition
Mexiletine
Tocainide
propafenone
amiodarone
Bretylium
sotalol
lidocaine
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|
Term
What do + inotropic drugs do? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What do - chonotropic drugs do |
|
Definition
slow the electical impulse |
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|
Term
What do + chonotropic drugs do |
|
Definition
increases the electrical impulses |
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|
Term
What type of drug is +inotrope and - chronotrope? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of drug is +inotrope and + chronotrope? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What actions does adenergic alpha have on the heart? |
|
Definition
increase contactility
decrease rate |
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|
Term
What actions does adenergic beta have on the heart? |
|
Definition
increase contractility
increase rate |
|
|
Term
What are examples of adenergic alpha drugs |
|
Definition
Digoxin
levophed
Epinephrine
dopamine
Amrinone
|
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|
Term
What are examples of adenergic beta 1 drugs |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the action of a Beta blocker? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are examples of beta blockers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what effect does inotropic drugs have |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What types of vasopressors are inotropic? |
|
Definition
dopamine
dobutamine
epinephrine
vasopressine
|
|
|
Term
What types of vasopressors are vasodilators |
|
Definition
nitropresside
nitroglycerine
papaverine
milrinone
aCEinhiiters- (prill)
Ca blockes- (pine) |
|
|
Term
What are neurmuscular blockades used for? |
|
Definition
to induce medical paralysis |
|
|
Term
What is the common short acting neuromuscular blockade |
|
Definition
succinylcholine
used forintubation |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 common long acting neuromuscular blockades |
|
Definition
pancuronium
vecuronium
cistacurium |
|
|
Term
What rythems may use cardioversion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What rythems need defibrillation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what does a cardic contution result from |
|
Definition
blunt trama to the myocardium |
|
|
Term
a nurse is caring for a clientwith an implantable cardio defibrillator (ICD). the client develops symptoms of ventricular tachycardia but does not convert with the ICD.
what is the nurse's best action |
|
Definition
apply externalcounter shock without deactivating the device |
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Term
a client is admitted to the intensive care unit with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. Also noticed our Oser's nodes on the client's finger pads. what intervention should the nurse anticipate |
|
Definition
administering IV antibiotics
(Oser's nodes are a key feature of infectious endocarditis) |
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|
Term
the client with the mitral insufficiency just had a pulmonary artery catheter inserted. The nurse expects the clients pressure values to show: |
|
Definition
high pulmonary wage pressures
(the mitral valve is located between the left atria and the right ventricle. When the valve fails, blood backs up into the left atrium and then into the pulmonary bed increasing pulmonary wedge pressures) |
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|
Term
your patient is in septic shock. a pulmonary artery catheter is inserted, and the nurse needs to check the clients right side after load. What is the best way to do this |
|
Definition
checking the pulmonary vascular resistance |
|
|
Term
a nurse suspects her patient is in cardiogenic shock. like hemodynamic parameters would confirm this |
|
Definition
CVP ↑
PCWP↑
SVR↑
HR ↑
CO, LVSWI, BP↓ |
|
|
Term
the client had an MI yesterday. The nurse notices ventricular fibrillation cardiac monitor. Which intervention takes priority.
assess the client
call physician
call a code
defibrillate the patient
|
|
Definition
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|
Term
your patient was in a MVA. you suspect cardiac tamponade if the pt develops what signs and symptoms |
|
Definition
hypotension with narrow pulse pressure
muffled heart sounds
JVD
tachycardia
decrease cardiac output
increased right arterial pressure
ST segment elevation |
|
|
Term
your patient's EKG shows large ST elevation, T waves changes, and deep Q w waves in leads V1 through V4.
Why injury should nurse suspect and in what area of the heart |
|
Definition
myocardial infarction
anterior septal |
|
|
Term
the nurses is monitoring a clients pulmonary artery catheter. the PA waveform suspiciously changes to a pulmonary arterial wedge pressure waveform. What is the nurses best action |
|
Definition
check to see if the balloon is fully deflated |
|
|
Term
patient admitted with an MI presents with pulseless ventricular tachycardia. In correct order, what interventions should the nurse do? |
|
Definition
1. initiate basic life support
2. defibrillate
3. Receiving CPR for five cycles
4. Check rhythm repeat shock if needed
5. Administer epinephrine |
|
|
Term
if patient has first-degree atrioventricular heart block.
The nurse should expect to find a PR interval of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
if patient who received a transplant one year ago is having episodes of syncope, has complete heart block, heart rate of 30, but pressure 70/40 and is very drowsy.
what intervention should the nurse anticipate for this patient |
|
Definition
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|
Term
after cardiac catheterization, a nurse notes I hematoma in the clients rt groin. What is the nurse's best action |
|
Definition
apply pressure to the sight |
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|
Term
the patient reports chest discomfort EKG shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III and AVF.
What is the suspected diagnosis and in which area of the heart |
|
Definition
myocardial injury
inferior wall |
|
|
Term
what are the parameters for defibrillate a child |
|
Definition
2 joules/kg for first attempt
doubled for second and third attempt |
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|
Term
if patient has the blood pressure of 130/70 on auscultation and 90/50 measured from the arterial catheter. What is the nurse's best action |
|
Definition
check the level of the transducer |
|
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