The science of _____ is concerned with the structure of the human body.

A) Physiology

B) Biology

C) Anatomy

D) Embalming

C) Anatomy

The fundamental unit of all living things is _____?

A) Cell

B) Organelle

C) Atom

D) Molecule

Which of the following is an ORGAN?

A) Skin

B) Kidney

C) A and B

D) Endocrine System

The _____ system is responsible for the absorption of fats, drainage of tissue fluids, and elimination of waste products.

A) Urinary

B) Digestive

C) Endocrine

D) Respiratory

The _____ plane divides the body into right and left halves.

A) Coronal

B) Frontal

C) Transverse

D) Sagittal

The armpit is located in the _____ region of the body.

A) Facial

B) Cervical

C) Axillary

D) Mammary

Which of the following is NOT a function of the integument?

A) Synthesis of Vitamin D

B) Thermoregulation

C) Hydroregulation

D) Nutrient Absorption

There are _____ cranial bones in the adult skull.

A) 8

B) 22

C) 12

D) 4

Which of the following is a normal function of the human skeleton?

A) Mineral storage

B) Protection of the underlying tissue

C) A and B

D) None of the above

Which of the following surface feature represents a bine depression?

A) Fossa

B) Process

C) Facet

D) Condyle

_____ are the type of bone cells that break down bone structure during the bone building and bone healing processes.

A) Osteocytes

B) Osteoblasts

C) Osteoclasts

D) Bone lining cells

The tissue that covers body surfaces, cavities and ducts is:

A) Muscle

B) Epithelial

C) Connective

D) Nervous

The type of cartilage found in intervertebral discs is _____.

A) Elastic cartilage

B) Fibrocartilage

C) Coastal cartilage

D) Hyaline cartilage

The type of joint that is distinguished by having a fluid-filled joint cavity is called a _____ joint.

A) Fibrous

B) Cartilaginous

C) Synovial

D) Suture

The movement of the sole of the foot outward or laterally is called:

A) Inversion

B) Eversion

C) Retraction

D) Elevation

Contractibility is a general trait of the human muscle.

A) True

B) False 

Which muscle originates on the sternum and terminates on the mastoid process of the temporal bone?

A) Sternocleidomastoid

B) Trapezius

C) Splenius Capitis

D) None of the above

The Thenar and Hypothenar muscles are located in the _____.

A) Hand

B) Foot

C) Forearm

D) Thigh

The _____ nerve conducts impulses from the eyes' photoreceptors.

A) Oculomotor

B) Trochlear

C) Optic

D) Olfactory

The sciatic nerve is the largest in the human body.

A) True

B) False

Deoxygenated blood carried in the vena cava empties into the _____ of the heart.

A) Right atrium

B) Right ventricle

C) Left atrium

D) Left ventricle

The _____ serves as a blood reservoir and also houses lymphocytes that are critical to body immunity.

A) Spleen

B) Lymph nodes

C) Heart

D) Esophagus

Which of the following is the major nerve of the posterior leg?

A) Femoral

B) Sciatic

C) Tibial

D) Arterial

The sciatic nerve runs directly beneath the _____ muscle.

A) Piriformis

B) Pectineus

C) Gluteus Maximus

D) Sartorius

The main muscles of hip extension are the gluteals.

A) True

B) False

The spinal cord ends at the level of L1-L2 where it becomes the _____.

A) Columna nidbela

B) Cassius labida

C) Cauda equina

D) Crassius ceasarum

Excess body heat can be lost most rapidly through _____.

A) Convection

B) Conversion

C) Evaporation

D) Radiation

There are _____ vertebra in the lumbar spine of a human skeleton.

A) 7

B) 5

C) 12

D) 18

The sacrum is a bone located in the _____.

A) Cranium

B) Pelvis

C) Leg

D) Sternum

Scoliosis involves a lateral curvature of the spine with a vertebral rotation.

A) True

B) False

Injuries to the intervertebral disks are common in the thoracic spine.

A) True

B) False

Plantar warts are caused by _____.

A) Fungi

B) Radiation

C) Insect bites

D) Viruses

Active AIDS/HIV can be readily transmitted via blood-to-blood contact.

A) True

B) False

All patients who are homosexuals have AIDS/HIV.

A) True

B) False

Reddening of the skin is known as _____.

A) Vasodilation

B) Histamination

C) Erythema

D) Hematoma

A steroid compound can be driven into the skin by ultrasound by a process called _____.

A) Iontophoresis

B) Phonophoresis

C) Thermotherapy

D) None of the above

Phagocytosis means "cell eating."

A) True

B) False

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding an acute injury?

A) No clear causative mechanism.

B) Characterized by rapid onset from a traumatic event.

C) Vague symptoms

D) All of the above

The _____ and spinal cord compose the central nervous system.

A) Heart

B) Brain

C) Spleen

D) Lungs

The first cervical vertebra is referred to as the _____.

A) Zeus

B) Hercules

C) Atlas

D) Diogenes

There are 27 pairs of spinal nerves.

A) True

B) False

A common fracture in adolescent athletes is often referred to as _____.

A) Adolescent break

B) Greenstick fracture

C) Compound fracture

D) Teen fracture

The best coupling medium for ultrasound is _____.

A) Air

B) Water

C) Gel

D) Mineral oil

This modality produces arteriole vasoconstriction.

A) Moist heat

B) Cryotherapy

C) Ultrasound

D) Tapotement

_____ is an ultrasound technique used to treat an irregular surface that cannot be submerged in water by using a thin air-free plastic bag.

A) Coupling cushion

B) Barrier method

C) Submersion

D) None of the above

_____ is the electromotive force that pushes current.

A) Power

B) Electrical charge

C) Voltage

D) Tesla coupling

Pulse rate refers to the number of times per second that a certain electric flow or pulse is repeated.

A) True

B) False

Low frequency currents can either be direct or alternating.

A) True

B) False

Anatomy is the study of body structure.

A) True

B) False

A tissue is a group of _____ with similar functions.

A) Cells

B) Molecules

C) Atoms

D) None of the above

The liver, gallbladder, and stomach are part of the _____.

A) Endocrine system

B) Digestive system

C) Nervous system

D) Skeletal system

Homeostasis is defined as _____.

A) The production of cells by energy.

B) The maintenance of relative constant environment of the body.

C) The amplification of deviation from normal range.

D) The combination of growth, repair and energy release.

The term that means "AWAY FROM THE MIDLINE OF THE BODY" is _____.

A) Medial

B) Proximal

C) Lateral

D) Distal

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the _____.

A) Sternum

B) Heart

C) Diaphragm

D) Splenal curriculum

Another term for "fingers" is _____.

A) Phalanges

B) Tarsals

C) Carpals

D) Manuals

The amount of time it takes for an electrical current to go from 0 to peak amplitude is known as _____.

A) Duty cycle time

B) Ramp time

C) Current time

D) Frequency time

Which of the following is NOT a term used to describe electricity?

A) Charge

B) Current

C) Voltage

D) Excitability

Pregnancy should be considered a contraindication to electrical stimulation.

A) True

B) False

Which of the following are contraindications to electrical stimulation?

A) Application over a cancerous lesion.

B) Application over an area of thrombophlebitis.

C) Application over an implanted pacemaker.

D) All of the above

Triphasic is a basic current waveform used with electrical stimulation.

A) True

B) False

The practitioner may use a two pronged plug adapter to connect an electrical stimulation device with a three prong plug to a wall outlet.

A) True

B) False

_____ law states that the delivered energy is related to the amount of resistance encountered.

A) Burke's law

B) Ohm's law

C) Newton's law

D) Columbo's law

_____ is the absence of pain or noxious stimulation.

A) Anesthesia

B) Analgesia

C) Hypocretia

D) Hydrolymphia

Pain that lasts longer than 3 months and leads to a long term loss of function is best known as _____ pain.

A) Acute

B) Chronic

C) Referred

D) General

Increased tissue temperature and erythema are the result of the vasodilation of _____.

A) Muscle tissue

B) Blood vessels

C) Lymph nodes

D) Nervous system

Both radiation and convection are considered physical mechanisms of heat exchange.

A) True

B) False

The transformation of a liquid into a gas is known as evaporation.

A) True

B) False

Hot packs, heat wraps, and warm whirlpool are examples of _____ therapeutic heat.

A) Superficial

B) Conversional

C) Transitional

D) Conductoral

Heat loss or gain through direct contact between materials with different temperatures is called _____.

A) Radiation

B) Evaporation

C) Conversion

D) Conduction

Hot packs are one of the most common ways to deliver superficial moist heat to patients.

A) True

B) False

"Cryo" literally means cold.

A) True

B) False

_____ would be the best therapy for acute inflammation and edema.

A) Heat

B) Cold

A sensory deficit patient should be monitored the same as any other patient during heat treatments.

A) True

B) False

The local application of superficial heat may decrease inflammatory response when treating an acute injury.

A) True

B) False

When using ice massage, the acronym "CBAN" refers to "cold, burning, aching and numbness."

A) True

B) False

Knowing the potential adverse effects of a thermal agent is an important consideration when treating a patient.

A) True

B) False

With therapeutic ultrasound, the actual sound wave cannot be heard by the patient or the CA.

A) True

B) False

Therapeutic ultrasound is almost always applied at these 2 frequencies:

A) 1 MHz or 2 MHz

B) 1 MHz or 3 MHz

C) 1 MHz or 4 MHz

D) 2 MHz or 3 MHz

In treating a superficial injury with ultrasound, the best parameter selection is _____ MHz.

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Heat generated within tissues as a result of therapeutic ultrasound is caused by radioactive materials found in the ultrasound transmitter.

A) True

B) False

Which of the following terms refers to pulling or drawing apart bones or spinal segments?

A) Compression

B) Inversion

C) Deletion

D) Traction

Which of the following is a common goal of traction?

A) Reduction of radicular signs and symptoms.

B) Reduction of spinal disc protrusions.

C) Decreasing lateral spinal curvatures.

D) All of the above

The weight necessary to overcome frictional forces of the lower body is _____ of the patients body weight.

A) 1/4

B) 1/2

C) 3/4

D) None of the above

Paraffin units have a preset temperature range of 125 - 130 degrees Fahrenheit to allow the paraffin to be applied directly to the skin.

A) True

B) False

Which of the following can cause burns to a patient if used improperly or carelessly?

A) Hot packs

B) Electrical stimulation

C) Diathermy Units

D) All of the above

Shortwave, microwave and ultrasonic diathermy are all classified as high frequency currents.

A) True

B) False

Shortwave diathermy may be applied simultaneously with other forms of electrotherapy.

A) True

B) False

Therapeutic ultrasound should NOT be used over the eye of a patient.

A) True

B) False

Moist heat and cold modalities have wavelengths and frequencies that fall in the _____ portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

A) Ultraviolet

B) Gamma ray

C) Infrared

D) Radioactive

The physiologic response to electrical current includes stimulating sensory nerves to help in treating pain.

A) True

B) False

Which of the following is NOT a phase of the healing process?

A) Degeneration phase

B) Remodeling phase

C) Repair phase

D) Inflammatory phase

Which of the following is a common, effective treatment in controlling edema?

A) Stretching

B) Compression

C) Heat

D) Vibration

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the human endocrine system?

A) Its main purpose is to aid the heart in blood flow.

B) It directly assists in food digestion.

C) It releases hormones that alter metabolic activities.

D) It serves to aid the functions of the optic nerves.

The term "articulation" refers to _____.

A) Blood flow

B) Nerve impulse

C) Joint

D) Bone growth

Which of the following is NOT part of the axial skeleton?

A) Femur

B) Sternum

C) Mandible

D) Sacrum

A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is _____.

A) Cruciate

B) Collateral

C) Patellar

D) Bursae

The central nervous system is comprised of _____.

A) Brain

B) Brain and spinal cord

C) Brain and peripheral nerve bundle

D) Brain and thalamus

The nerves located OUTSIDE of the brain and spinal cord comprise the _____ nervous system.

A) Central

B) General

C) Peripheral

D) Basal

The mediastinum is located in the _____.

A) Leg

B) Thoracic cavity

C) Larynx

D) Cranial cavity

Which of the following is NOT found in urine?

A) Glucose

B) Uric acid

C) Urea

D) Creatinine

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system?

A) Sensory

B) Integrative

C) Nourishment

D) Motor

Regulating body temperature is a function of the human skin.

A) True

B) False

The body's normal response to injury is a sequence of events known as:

A) Heat exhaustion

B) Granulation

C) Keratinization

D) Inflammation

The term _____ means "towards the back or rear."

A) Posterior

B) Inferior

C) Superficial

D) Medial

Both chiropractors and chiropractic assistants are healthcare providers.

A) True

B) False

The study of natural forces to enhance or assist healing is called.

A) Psychiatry

B) Psychology

C) Physiological Therapeutics

D) None of the above

Myology is the study of _____.

A) Muscles

B) Nerves

C) Bones

D) Skin

Cardiology is the study of _____.

A) Nerve systems

B) The heart

C) The blood system

D) Internal organs

A disrupted nervous system can have a negative effect on the immune system.

A) True

B) False

In the anatomical position, the palms are facing anteriorly.

A) True

B) False

The pancreas is part of the _____ system.

A) Digestive

B) Reproductive

C) Nervous

D) Circulatory

The back of the head is referred to as the _____ area.

A) Femoral

B) Occipital

C) Celiac

D) Axillary

A cut that divides the body into right and left halves is _____.

A) Sagittal

B) Transverse

C) Medial

D) Frontal

The largest artery in the human body is the _____.

A) Superior vena cava

B) Inferior vena cava

C) Aorta

D) None of the above

There are _____ bones in the human body.

A) 100

B) 206

C) 312

D) 477

The _____ system controls secretion of hormones.

A) Circulatory

B) Muscular

C) Respiratory

D) Endocrine

The spine is basically a _____ structure.

A) Rigid

B) Non-rigid

There are 14 thoracic vertebrae.

A) True

B) False

Smooth muscle operates under involuntary control.

A) True

B) False

There are _____ chambers in the human heart.

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

Overstretching, pulling or tearing a LIGAMENT of a joint is called _____.

A) Strain

B) Sprain

C) Spasm

D) Spam

The _____ nerve is vital to vision.

A) Cranial

B) Avuncular

C) Optic

D) Olfactory

A _____ is a rupture of human bone.

A) Strain

B) Sprain

C) Fracture

D) Pull

This type of traction involves placing a patient on their side with a pillow roll underneath, allowing the spine to straighten.

A) Gravity

B) Positional

C) Manual

D) Alternating

If a patient complains of a strong "itchy" sensation after vibration with a G-5 device, this is most likely due to:

A) a rush of blood to the area.

B) a localized infection.

C) superficial tissue damage.

D) overstimulation of cutaneous nerves.

Sine waves of constant amplitude but of slightly different frequencies from 2 sources best describe interferential current.

A) True

B) False

The carrier frequency for Russian stimulation is _____ Hz.

A) 2500

B) 3000

C) 3500

D) 4000

Which frequency is best for treating acute lumbar disc syndrome?

A) 1-15 Hz

B) 80-120 Hz

C) 35-40 Hz

D) 1-150 Hz

Which frequency is best for treating chronic cervical spine pain?

A) 1-15 Hz

B) 80-130 Hz

C) 1-150 Hz

D) 35-40 Hz

Frequency of electrical current may be expressed in Hertz (Hz), pulses per second (pps) or cycles per second (cps).

A) True

B) False

Which electrical generator requires a dispersal pad?

A) AC

B) DC

C) T.E.N.S.

D) IFC

Which of the following would NOT be considered a general physiologic effect of electrical muscle stimulation?

A) Decreased blood flow

B) Reduced edema

C) Relaxed muscle spasm

D) Recruitment of muscle fibers

Heat is best transferred DEEP into the body by _____.

A) Conversion

B) Convection

C) Radiation

D) Conduction

Short wave diathermy is best used for _____.

A) sub-acute and chronic conditions.

B) acute conditions.

C) inflammatory conditions.

D) transient conditions.

Paraffin bath may be applied over an open wound or lesion.

A) True

B) False

The intensity of a UV lamp will _____ the closer it is placed to the treatment area.

A) Increase

B) Decrease

The intensity of radiation is always greatest at right angles (90 degrees) to treatment area.

A) True

B) False

Which of the following is a positively charged particle?

A) Neutron

B) Proton

C) Electron

D) Nucleus

An electron is a negatively charged particle.

A) True

B) False

Resistance is measured in _____.

A) Amperes

B) Watts

C) Ohms

D) Volts

Volts are a measurement of _____.

A) Intensity

B) Speed and current flow

C) Electromotive force

D) Distance

Which of these modalities carries the GREATEST RISK for burning a patient?

A) Low volt current

B) High volt DC current

C) Interferential current

D) Terminal current

Hot moist packs are an example of conduction.

A) True

B) False

Current is defined as the flow of _____.

A) Electrons

B) Neutrons

C) Protons

D) Nuclei

Which of the following is NOT a method of cooling?

A) Convection

B) Ultrasound

C) Evaporation

D) Conduction

The FIRST phase of a soft tissue injury usually lasts _____.

A) 5-6 days

B) 0-72 hours

C) 8-24 weeks

D) 1-2 weeks

When applying hot packs _____ layers of towels should be used.

A) 1-2

B) 3-4

C) 9-10

D) 6-8

A nociceptor is another name for a sensory receptor for pain.

A) True

B) False

Which of the following is TRUE regarding T.E.N.S?

A) It is only used to reduce edema.

B) It provides sensory stimulation only.

T.E.N.S. is PRIMARILY used to help heal bone fractures.

A) True

B) False

Hubbard tanks should be cleaned and sterilized:

A) Monthly

B) Weekly

C) After each patient use

D) When requested by a patient

When using continuous ultrasound, the applicator head should be:

A) Turned off.

B) Constantly moved over the treatment area.

C) Left directly over the treatment area in a stationary position.

D) Used with no coupling medium.

The term PAIN THRESHOLD refers to the _____ stimulus that will excite the sensation of pain.

A) Lowest

B) Highest

C) Average

D) Mean

Treatment for intermittent traction is normally between _____.

A) 5-10 minutes

B) 10-15 minutes

C) 15-30 minutes

D) 30-70 minutes

The primary purpose of combining ultrasound and electrical muscle stimulation is for:

A) better pain control.

B) decreased skin resistance and penetration.

C) increased fluid production.

D) muscle rehabilitation.

In which of the following should electrical stimulation NOT be used?

A) over a pacemaker

B) over a pregnant uterus

C) over the cranium

D) all of the above

High volt stimulation is best used for:

A) Pain control

B) Blood flow improvement

C) Edema reduction

D) Wound healing

Burns during electrotherapy are usually caused by:

A) Voltage

B) Amperage

C) Wattage

D) Baggage

Which of the following is an ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATION when using short wave diathermy?

A) Metal table

B) Arthritis

C) Bronchitis

D) Woolen underwear

Which of the following tissues would conduct electricity the best?

A) Bone

B) Skin

C) Muscle

D) Fat

A hematoma is a:

A) Blood clot

B) Bone spur

C) Ruptured disc

D) Subluxation

The founder of modern chiropractic is:

A) Dr. Zhivago

B) Dr. Seuss

C) Dr. D. D. Palmer

D) Dr. Doolittle

Chiropractic was discovered/founded in:

A) 1895

B) 2005

C) 1997

D) 1956

Cryotherapy decreases inflammation and slows metabolism.

A) True

B) False

Which type of exercise does NOT produce joint motion?

A) Isotonic

B) Isometric

C) Isokinetic

D) Isopropyl

The nervous system is lined by the _____ membrane.

A) Periosteal

B) Meningeal

C) Peritoneal

D) Fascial

The 2 major fluid transport systems of the body are:

A) Cardiovascular & Lymphatic

B) Urinary & Digestive

C) Endocrine & Circulatory

D) Benzedrine & Phenundrial

The partition dividing the heart into a left and right side is the _____.

A) Atrium

B) Ventricle

C) Septum

D) Valve

The largest collection of lymphatic tissue is in the _____.

A) Heart

B) Pancreas

C) Liver

D) Spleen

Red blood cells are called _____.

A) Platelets

B) Erythrocytes

C) Leukocytes

D) Thrombocytes

The large muscle forming the bottom of the thoracic cavity is the diaphragm.

A) True

B) False

Submandibular glands are salivary glands.

A) True

B) False

Long, microscopic processes moving in a wave-like motion are called cilia.

A) True

B) False

Small intestines are attached to the posterior abdominal cavity by mesentery tissue.

A) True

B) False

The part of the small intestine where most food absorption occurs is the:

A) Ileum

B) Duodenum

C) Cecum

D) Jejunum

Microscopic filtration plants that filter the blood and form urine are:

A) Hilum

B) Gall bladders

C) Nephrons

D) Medulla

Nerves that carry impulses from the skin to the central nervous system are:

A) Motor nerves

B) Basal nerves

C) Sensory nerves

D) Impulse nerves

The _____ conducts impulses away from the cell body of the nerve.

A) Axon

B) Nuclei

C) Dendrite

D) Cilia

Relay stations of the automatic nervous system are:

A) Ganglia

B) Plexuses

C) Motor points

D) Spinal nerves

The transparent anterior portion of the outer coating of the eye is the:

A) Choroid

B) Sclera

C) Cornea

D) Retina

The part of the eye which may be torn by trauma which causes a patient to complain of partial vision is the:

A) Cornea

B) Retina

C) Sclera

D) Choroid

The part of the eye which may become jaundiced (yellowed) due to liver disease is the:

A) Cornea

B) Retina

C) Sclera

D) Choroid

Vitreous fluid is found in the _____.

A) Anterior cavity

B) Posterior cavity

C) Lacrimal apparatus

D) Cochlea

_____ is the hormone that regulates the body metabolism.

A) Insulin

B) Thyroxine

C) Epinephrine

D) Parathormone

_____ is the endocrine gland that produces stimulating hormones.

A) Pituitary

B) Periosteum

C) Synovial

D) Adrenals

Bile is created in the _____.

A) Gallbladder

B) Liver

C) Pancreas

D) Spleen

The involuntary wave-like contraction of smooth muscle is called:

A) Peristalsis

B) Acid Reflux

C) Regurgitation

D) Swallowing

The outermost strong fibrous layer of the meninges is the:

A) Dura mater

B) Arachnoid

C) Pia mater

D) None of the above

Soft tissue acute inflammatory stage usually lasts:

A) 0-72 hours

B) 48 hours - 2 weeks

C) 1-2 weeks

D) 2-6 minutes

Sudden pain felt at a spot or point along a well localized line is:

A) Deep pain

B) Radiating pain

C) Superficial pain

D) Central pain

Naturally produced morphine-like substances made by the body are:

A) Elephantiasis

B) Endorphins

C) Exotherocins

D) Edonodules

The mechanism that protects against muscle tearing is:

A) Painful splinting

B) Stretch reflex

C) Painful cramp

D) Muscle spasms

When treating a trigger point with electrical muscle stimulation, _____ polarity should be used.

A) Positive

B) Negative

C) Alternating

D) Medial

When using a hot moist pack, it takes _____ minutes before maximum heat will reach the patient.

A) 5-10

B) 20-30

C) 45-60

D) 60-90

Which of the following are contraindications to using hot moist packs?

A) Bleeding tendency

B) Pregnant uterus

C) Malignant tumor

D) All of the above

Which of the following devices is used to diagnose/treat certain diseases such as tinea pedis (athlete's foot)?

A) Sun lamp

B) Cold quartz lamp

C) Wood's lamp

D) Mercury vapor lamp

The _____ law states that if the distance between the light source and the patient is cut in half, the intensity of the source is quadrupled.

A) Law of averages

B) Inverse square law

C) Cosign law

D) Absorption flow law

_____ increases visceral circulation.

A) Short wave diathermy

B) Moist heat

C) Hot water

D) Infrared

_____ Minutes is the normal amount of time to treat with short wave diathermy.

A) 10

B) 30

C) 60

D) 90

The power produced by an ultrasound unit is measured at the sound head in _____.

A) Volts

B) Amps

C) Watts

D) Pulses

The greatest effects of ultrasound occur at the interface between different tissue types.

A) True

B) False

The ultrasound frequency best used to treat deep fibrotic conditions is ____ MHz.

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 7

When treating small superficial areas with ultrasound such as fingers, it is best to use _____ MHz.

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 7

Ultrasound treatments normally should not exceed _____ minutes per area.

A) 4-8

B) 10-15

C) 20-30

D) none of the above ... the patient will tell you when to stop.

The maximum treatment time for ice massage is _____.

A) 20 minutes or numbness, whichever comes first.

B) 50 minutes or numbness, whichever comes first.

C) 5 minutes or numbness, whichever comes first.

D) there is no maximum treatment time.

The electromotive force that pushes current into the patient is:

A) Current

B) Amperage

C) Pulse rate

D) Voltage

Chiropractic assistants may disperse non-narcotic drugs at the direction of the supervising chiropractor.

A) True

B) False

A registered chiropractic assistant with 5 years or more experience may supervise the duties of a chiropractic assistant trainee.

A) True

B) False

Sinusoidal current is a low voltage, low amperage, and low frequency alternating symmetrical current.

A) True

B) False

A continuous, direct, unidirectional, low voltage current is a _____ current.

A) Galvanic

B) Faradic

C) Demonic

D) Carcanian

When using high voltage therapy _____ pps setting should be used for acute pain modulation.

A) 1-10

B) 15-20

C) 70-120

D) 30-50

In treating edema, a high volt pulse setting of _____ should be used.

A) 10 pps or less

B) 20 pps or more

C) 70-200 pps

D) 200-350 pps

Low volt therapy may NOT be used on a patient with a pacemaker.

A) True

B) False

Low volt electro therapy is defined as using less than _____ volts with an average current of 1-30 ma.

A) 5

B) 50

C) 150

D) 300

Placing the electrodes further apart in interferential therapy causes the depth of the penetration to _____.

A) Increase

B) Decrease

Using a 4-pole IFC technique to electronically control the therapy site is called _____.

A) Vectoring

B) Frequency modulation

To keep the patient from accommodating to the IFC current, the inferential technique to be used is:

A) Vectoring

B) Frequency sweep

The carrier frequency to be used in Russian Stimulation is 2500 Hz.

A) True

B) False

The treatment schedule for muscle strengthening with Russian Stimulation should be:

A) 10 second contraction followed by 50 second rest; 7-10 reps.

B) 20 second contraction followed by 20 second rest; 20-30 reps.

C) 30 second contraction followed by 2 minute rest; 3-4 reps.

D) 10 second contraction followed by 5 second rest; 2-3 reps.

If your supervising chiropractor appears red-eyed, wobbly and smells of alcohol while treating patients, you should:

A) Buy him/her breath mints.

B) Advise him/her to sober up.

C) Immediately call the board to report the incident.

D) None of the above.

You may use low level laser therapy on a patient _____.

A) If you are certified in laser.

B) If directed by your supervising chiropractor.

C) Never

D) Whenever requested in writing by the patient.

The maximum amount of weight that may be used in cervical traction is _____.

A) 5lbs

B) 15lbs

C) 20lbs

D) 30lbs

A patient presents with peripheral artery disease. Which of the following is contraindicated?

A) Ice packs

B) Hot packs

C) Continuous ultrasound

D) All of the above

Under S.O.A.P. notes format, which abbreviated heading would a patients range of motion be correctly listed?

A) S

B) O

C) A

D) P

Under S.O.A.P. notes format, which abbreviated heading would a patients range of motion be correctly listed?

A) S

B) O

C) A

D) P

A patient in a SUPINE position is lying _____.

A) On his back

B) On his side

C) On his stomach

D) In a fetal position

A C.A. may work for a fill-in chiropractor who is not certified as a supervising chiropractor.

A) True

B) False

Electrical stimulation may be used on patients with pacemakers:

A) Never

B) If the pacemaker is put on low charge

C) If the pacemaker is turned off

D) If the supervising chiropractor and patient requests it.

The acronym: R.I.C.E refers to the term Resistance in Chronic Exams.

A) True

B) False

A C.A. may do adjustments:

A) When directed by the doctor.

B) Never

C) When they are minor adjustments.

D) When they are adjustments to the lower extremities.

You are working at the front desk.  The father of a 19 year old female patient calls and asks for detailed information from the patient's record. You should:

A) Immediately give him all the requested information.

B) Refuse on the basis of law and regulations protecting patient privacy.

C) Give no verbal information - mail him a full copy of the patient record.

D) Give only verbal information from the initial examination diagnosis.

A C.A. may finish up minor adjustments stated by a supervising chiropractor:

A) If the supervising chiropractor directs it.

B) If the supervising chiropractor directs it in writing.

C) Never

D) If the C.A. has worked doing minor adjustments for at least 5 years.

If a board investigator calls for information, you should:

A) Respond to the request in a timely manner.

B) Refuse to provide information.

C) Be vague and avoid responding factually.

D) Not answer the phone.

The Chiropractic Board of Examiners has no jurisdiction over massage therapists.

A) True

B) False

The Chiropractic Board of Examiners also regulates physical therapists.

A) True

B) False

The C.A. is permitted to:

A) Develop x-ray film

B) Adjust patients on the x-ray platform or table

C) Read the x-ray

D) All of the above

C.A.'s may perform massage therapy on a patient:

A) Never

B) Only if they are a LMT

C) Only if directed by the Supervising Chiropractor

D) None of the above

A C.A. may sign patient treatment records on behalf of a chiropractor when directed to do so by the doctor.

A) True

B) False

A supervising chiropractor must be present in the clinic at all times and be immediately available in the treatment area when a C.A. is working with patients.

A) True

B) False

If the supervising chiropractor has not yet arrived and a patient is scheduled for treatment, the C.A. should:

A) Start the scheduled treatment.

B) Do nothing until the Supervising Chiropractor arrives.

C) Only conduct treatment using hot or cold packs.

D) A and C 

A C.A. may assist in low level laser therapy:

A) Never

B) When the laser is a non-ablative/non-cutting/non-burning device.

C) When the supervising chiropractor is providing direct supervision.

D) B and C

Your supervising chiropractor has just directed you to perform a task that is clearly in violation of the Board regulations; you should:

A) Perform the task as directed.

B) Perform the task as directed if refusal will cause you to be fired.

C) Refuse and advise the doctor that you cannot perform the task under law and regulations & report it to the board if the doctor persists in ordering you to do it.

D) None of the above.

A C.A. applicant must be at least 18 years old and a high school graduate.

A) True

B) False

To qualify as a registered C.A., you must complete a total of _____ hours of in-service, on the job training of which the first _____ hours must be spent observing procedures.

A) 100 & 50

B) 200 & 60

C) 650 & 70

D) 520 & 40

C.A.'s must renew their registrations every _____ years.

A) 5

B) 2

C) 3

D) 10

C.A.'s must have at least _____ hours of Continuing Education to qualify for renewing their registrations.

A) 5

B) 10

C) 15

D) 20

C.A.'s may take which of the following continuing education courses?

A) Only courses approved by the Board of Chiropractic Examiners.

B) Only courses approved by a chiropractic college.

C) Only courses approved by the MD chiropractic association.

D) Only courses approved by a former instructor.

A C.A. may take the height and weight of a patient without the direct supervision of a supervising chiropractor.

A) True

B) False

Demonstrating exercise to patients requires _____ of a supervising chiropractor:

A) Direct supervision

B) Indirect supervision

C) No supervision

D) Moderate supervision

Hot and cold packs may only be applied under direct supervision.

A) True

B) False

A C.A. license must be:

A) Encased in clear plastic

B) Copied and the copy posted on the wall where the C.A. practices.

C) Conspicuously posted on the wall where the C.A. practices.

D) Framed in black plastic or wood.

A person may practice as a C.A. without registration:

A) Never

B) Only if the person holds another license as a nurse or therapist.

C) Only if directed by a supervising chiropractor.

D) Only if a waiver fee has been paid to the Board of Examiners.

A C.A. may diagnose patient symptoms:

A) When directed to do so by the doctor.

B) After 5 years in practice as a C.A.

C) Never

D) Only on Thursdays.

A C.A. must maintain a current mailing address or be subject to a _____.

A) $1,500 penalty

B) $200 penalty

C) Automatic suspension of registration

D) Immediate arrest and imprisonment

A C.A. applicant must take a total of _____ hours of jurisprudence.

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

A C.A. applicant must successfully complete all classroom hours, in-service training and take the Board examination within _____ of application.

A) 2 months

B) 4 months

C) 1 year

D) 2 years

By regulation, the CPR level required for C.A.'s is:

A) Novice level

B) Healthcare provider level

C) Intermediate level

D) None of the above - CPR is not required for C.A.'s

Your supervising chiropractor must leave the office for a home emergency.  He tells you to keep working with patients until he returns in 45 minutes.  Under the regulations, the doctor:

A) May not be gone for more than 30 minutes.

B) May not leave the building and allow you to keep working.

C) May leave the building for as long as needed because of an emergency occurred.

D) None of the above.

Dr. Jones, your supervising chiropractor, must leave the office.  Dr. Smith, his partner, is also a supervising chiropractor.  Dr. Jones wants you to keep working with patients.  Under the regulations:

A) Dr. Jones may leave the building for only 30 minutes.

B) Dr. Jones may not leave the building under any circumstances.

C) Dr. Jones may leave the building if he puts Dr. Smith in charge of you as the C.A. under his direction as the supervising chiropractor.

D) None of the above

The root "leuko" means:

A) White

B) Black

C) Red

D) Blue

E) Warm

The epiphysis and diaphysis are at opposite ends of long bones.

A) True

B) False

The purpose of bursae is to:

A) Reduce joint friction

B) Reduce pressure on the joint

C) Improve joint motion

D) All of the above

E) None of the above

Enlargement of the _____ is a common cause of urinary complications.

A) Ureters

B) Urethra

C) Nephron

D) Prostate gland

E) None of the above

When someone in the office fails to conduct themselves in a way that avoids injury to the patient or their property, they may be considered clinically negligent.

A) True

B) False

When adjunctive procedures are used, they should be used in such a way as to duplicate the body's natural healing response.

A) True

B) False

If a patient accidentally gets burned by the electrical stimulation, the next appropriate step to do is _____.

A) Do nothing

B) Call 911

C) Tell the doctor

D) Apply anesthetic

E) None of these

You are a registered chiropractic assistant. It is 9am and you are behind the front desk.  Dr. Jones, your supervising chiropractor call in and tells you he will not be in until 10am.  If patients are scheduled for 9:15am, you may do which of the following at Dr. Jones's request?

A) Non-strenuous traction therapy.

B) Setting up a patient on the table in preparation for an x-ray.

C) Check the patients in at the front desk.

D) Low voltage electrical stimulation.

You are a registered chiropractic assistant.  It is 9am and you are seated behind the front desk.  Dr. Avery, your supervising chiropractor calls in late and won't be in until 10am.  If patients start arriving, you may do which of the following at Dr. Avery's request:

A) Non-strenuous traction therapy.

B) Setting up a patient on the table in preparation for an x-ray.

C) Taking routine patient information and height and weight.

D) Low voltage electrical stimulation.

If a dark-skinned female patient in Asian dress arrives for an appointment, it is safe to assume that she will not be able to speak good English?

A) True

B) False

Mrs. Johnson brings her 15 year old daughter in for an adjustment.  You are told by her that she must leave the office for about 30 minutes to pick up her son at daycare.  Your response should be:

A) O.K. - but be back in 30 minutes.

B) Sorry - but a parent or guardian must be present during treatment.

C) O.K. - provided you sign a release for treatment for your daughter.

D) None of the above.

Mr. Florence comes in for treatment.  He also brings his 15 year old son for his treatment.  It is permissible to file all paperwork for both patients in Mr. Florence's file instead of setting up a separate file for the minor son.

A) True

B) False

MD Regulations require that patient records must be kept:

A) 10 years

B) 5 years

C) 8 years

D) Forever

Which of the following would be approved methods for destroying old patient records?

A) Throwing them away in the dumpster.

B) Shredding them in a mechanical shredder.

C) Tearing them in half and putting them in the trash.

D) All of the above.

You are taking telephone appointments.  Ms. Davis calls for an appointment and advises you that she has active HIV/AIDS. You should:

A) Advise her to seek medical attention.

B) Advise her that your practice cannot treat her.

C) Refer her to a practice that treats active AIDS patients.

D) Set the appointment and discreetly notify you doctor of the issue.

You receive your C.A. Registration and develop a severe addiction to beer which affects your ability to practice.  Which of the following should you do?

A) Voluntarily report the issue to your doctor and the board under its rehabilitation program.

B) Try and reduce the volume of alcohol consumed.

C) Report the matter to AA.

D) Nothing - it is impossible for beer drinkers to be alcoholics.

If a foreign-born patient has a very limited ability to speak English, and you are taking their appointment for treatment, the best action is:

A) Do not take them as a patient - it is impossible to treat them.

B) Patiently ask them if they have a friend or family member who might help translate for them.

C) Advise them to call a chiropractor who speaks their language.

D) All of the above are good courses of action to take.

You see a fellow C.A. smoking marijuana in his car during his lunch break.  When he returns from lunch, he smells of marijuana, his eyes are glassy and he is giddy.  Your best course of action is:

A) Talk directly to the C.A. and advise him to stop smoking marijuana.

B) Give the C.A. a chance and ignore the situation.

C) Report the matter immediately to your supervising chiropractor.

D) Do nothing until you have further evidence of marijuana use.

You work with two other C.A.s, Jan and Joe.  A foreign born patient arrives.  The patient speaks very poor English and is difficult to understand.  After Joe escorts the patient to the treatment room, he starts joking about the patients accent with Jan.  You overhear their laughter and joking.  Which of the following should you do?

A) Do nothing - the matter is outside the scope of the C.A. practice.

B) Do nothing - it is a private joke and no harm is done to the patient.

C) Report it to the supervising chiropractor - it is unprofessional behavior.

D) Try and join in the joke - it will be best for office morale.

You work as a C.A. for Dr. X.  He is very friendly with you and often tells sex jokes.  The jokes are funny but you feel a little uncomfortable with the jokes.  Which of the following best describes the situation:

A) It may be inappropriate behavior.

B) It may be unprofessional behavior.

C) It is not inappropriate or unprofessional - it is only a joke and the doctor has not engaged in any physical touching.

D) A and B

There is no fee to take the C.A. exam.

A) True

B) False

A Supervising Chiropractor receives a certificate from the board attesting to his/her supervising status.

A) True

B) False

To qualify for registration as a C.A., the applicant must be at least:

A) 18 years old

B) 21 years old

C) 30 years old

D) None of the above

A C.A. applicant must complete a minimum of _____ hours of in-service training with a supervising chiropractor.

A) 400

B) 500

C) 520

D) 600

C.A.'s are required to satisfactorily complete at least _____ hours of continuing education every _____.

A) 10, 2 years

B) 8, 1 year

C) 5, 2 years

D) None of the above

You are directed to give a patient a whirlpool treatment.  Under the regulations, this may only be done under direct supervision of a supervising chiropractor.

A) True

B) False

You are directed to remove a leg brace from a patient.  Under the regulations, this may only be done under direct supervision of a supervising chiropractor.

A) True

B) False

You are directed to help assist a patient in disrobing prior to physical therapy.  Under the regulations, this may only be done under direct supervision of a supervising chiropractor.

A) True

B) False

You are directed to conduct mild therapeutic massage to the lower back of a patient.  Under the regulations, this may only be done if conducted under the direct supervision of a supervising chiropractor.

A) True

B) False

Dr. Y hires Betty as a C.A. He tells Betty: "Don't worry about training, experience or getting registered by the Board - just follow my orders and the board will never know."  If Betty is caught practicing without a registration, she may be:

A) Subject to a $5,000 fine

B) Subject to up to a year in prison

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

Under Board regulations, a person may NOT practice as a C.A. in MD unless registered by the board as a C.A.

A) True

B) False

Dr. X hires Tom as a C.A.  There are 3 other C.A.'s and 2 Chiropractors working at the practice.  All but Tom have their original license and registrations prominently displayed on the office wall.  Tom has a photocopy of his registration on the wall.  When asked about his original registration, Tom tells you to mind your own business. You should:

A) Mind your own business.

B) Do nothing - a photocopy of the registration is fine.

C) Report the matter immediately to the supervising chiropractor.

D) None of the above.

C.A., Amelia, has an idea.  She advises Dr. Z, that the practice could make good profits by adjusting cats and dogs.  What should Dr. Z's response be?

A) "Good idea - there are substantial profits possible."

B) "Bad idea - chiropractors and C.A.'s may not work on non-humans."

C) "Good idea - as long as we do not file insurance claims."

D) "Bad idea - there is no real profit in adjusting domestic animals."

C.A., Ben, helps patient, Freda, onto the x-ray table.  Ben then gently positions Freda so that the supervising chiropractor can take an accurate x-ray of Freda's lower back.

A) Ben has acted properly within the scope of C.A. practice.

B) Ben has acted improperly outside the scope of C.A. practice.

C.A., Sally arrives at the office at 8:30am.  New patients start arriving at 9:00am.  Her supervising chiropractor calls and advises that she will be 1 hour late because of heavy traffic on the beltway.  Which of the following is true?

A) Sally may sign patients in.

B) Sally may take basic vital such as height and weight.

C) A and/or B

D) None of the above.

Taking height and weight of a patient can ONLY be done under the direct supervision of the supervising chiropractor.

A) True

B) False

Patient gait practice and ambulation can only be done under the direct supervision of the supervising chiropractor.

A) True

B) False

Assisting in the dressing and undressing of patients can only be done under the direct supervision of the supervising chiropractor.

A) True

B) False

Demonstration of follow-up exercises may NEVER be conducted by a registered C.A.

A) True

B) False

The Board investigator subpoenas your office appointment calendar.  Under the regulations, the calendar _____ considered an official record.

A) Is

B) Is not

Patient billing records _____ have to be released to the board on request.

A) Do

B) Do not

The treatment records of a 3-year old minor patient must be kept by the office until the patient is at least _____ years old.

A) 18

B) 12

C) 7

D) 21

A 13 year old minor patient is presented for treatment by his mother.  The mother asks you if she can leave the child for his adjustment and come back in 30 minutes.  Your response should be:

A) Yes

B) No

C) Maybe

D) None of the above

While doing height and weight on a patient, the patient asks your opinion about a lump on her right elbow.  You should:

A) Tell her you cannot answer and that she should ask the doctor.

B) Use your knowledge to best answer the question.

C) Consult the Merck Manual and answer her question.

D) Tell her to see her family doctor.

Dr. Jones asks you to use a G-5 device on patient X. You should:

A) Do as directed

B) Remind Dr. Jones that G-5 is massage and you cannot do it.

C) First seek permission of the patient.

D) Obtain written direction from Dr. Jones.

Can you instruct a patient on Pilates exercises if you have never been trained or instructed on how to do it.

A) Yes

B) No

C) Yes, if the supervising chiropractor directs it.

D) No, unless the patient agrees to it.

The word subluxation means:

A) A complete dislocation

B) A partial dislocation

C) An incomplete or partial dislocation

D) None of the above

The prefix "hyper-" means:

A) Lacking

B) Hard, indurated

C) Below

D) Over, beyond, excessive

E) None of the above

The root "physi" means

A) Mechanical

B) Nature

C) Bold

D) Red

E) Muscle