Term
Diffrence archea and bacteria |
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Definition
archea- a part monolipid part bilayer (no phospolipid bilayer, no cytoplasmic membrane) |
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Definition
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Common shapes of Bacteria and archea... |
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Definition
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Term
Do Bacteria and Archea have a nuclear membrane, how about a Cell wall? |
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Definition
No nuclear membrane-no nuclus. they both have a rigid cell wall but it differs from each other. |
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Term
Do Fungi have a nuclear membrane, and how big are they? |
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Definition
They do have a nuclear membrane and they are 4-55 picometers in diameter. |
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Term
What is the average size of a Bacteria/Archea? |
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Definition
1 to 5 picometers in diameter |
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Term
The replication machinery of Archea is most similar to? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
diversity by the 16/18s Ribosomal Rna and their sequence- found in all free living forms of life (minus the Viruses) Old way (using metabolism) |
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Term
What do we use to compare bacterial/ archeal life. |
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Definition
We use the 16s (bacterial) and 18s Eukaryote Ribosomal DNA we use the variable regions to compare how diffrent they are |
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Term
The tree of life is categorized into what 3 branches |
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Definition
Eukarya, Archea, and Bacteria |
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Term
What is the most diverse form of life, and why can't viruses belong to it? |
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Definition
The most diverse form is Bacteria- viruses techinically are not alive becuase they have no rRna |
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Term
When did Prokaryotes, Eukarya, and Cyanobacteria begin to appear on Earth? |
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Definition
Prokaryotes- appeared 3.8 billion years ago Eukarya Eukarya- 2.8 billion years ago Cyanobacteria- 2.5 billion years ago Plants and animals .5 billion years ago |
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Term
Are all bacteria small? Are all viruses Small? |
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Definition
No- there are always size exeptions –Thiomargarita namibiensis •750 mm - visible to the unaided eye (fly eye size) •Large vesicle •Sulfide oxidation (?) •Viruses –Mimivirus (Mimicking microbe) •Found in an air conditioning tower, virus of amoebas •900 genes – larger than some viral genomes •Comparable in size to small bacteria |
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Term
Name three antibiotic targets- |
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Definition
Peptidoglican Synthesis- Especially crosslinking reactions penacilin family Vancomicin Protien Synthesis tetracycline- macroslides DNA, RNA replication Fluoroquinolones (DNA packaging after synthesis) Rifampin (RNA synthesis |
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Term
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Definition
small molecular weights that inhibit or kill bacteria |
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Term
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Definition
natural Synthetic Semi-synthetic |
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Term
Why are antibiotics important- |
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Definition
Cure infections (some that we thought we could never cure) treatment of Surgical Patients Cancer treatment |
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Term
Charachteristcs of a good antibiotic |
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Definition
•Kills or inhibits the growth of bacteria at low concentrations • •Broad spectrum (in many cases but not all) •Minimal side effects –Due to direct effects of antibiotic itself –Due to effects on the normal microflora of the body – •Appropriate pharmacokinetic properties –Must get to the site of infection in high concentrations – Distribution influences mode of administration (oral, injected) |
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Term
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Definition
kills or inhibits bacterial growth at low concentrations Broad spectrum Minimal side effects on body and good microbiota Pharmocoknetic must get to site of infection in a high concentration |
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Term
Broad spectrum of a microbiotic good or bad? |
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Definition
Good- Reduced need to diagnose a dangrous infectious disease Bad- Effects on normal microbiota as well as effects on environmenta microbiota |
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Term
Explain the cultivation based method of identifing bacteria. |
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Definition
1st we grow bacteria on Agar or Broth media it depends on what bacteria we are growing, no universal media. 2nd- make sure we get a pure culture- |
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Term
When can you do a gram stain without getting a pure culture? |
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Definition
When the culture you have in mind is already pure. like a culture from spinal fluid, blood, or urine. |
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Term
The Gram stain- how accurate is it. |
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Definition
the gram stain is often nonconclusive becuase bacteria look similar. Gram stain doesnt work well with non-clinical bacteria |
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Term
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Definition
Kirby Bauer Test- Qualitative test of inhibition MIC- Quantitative test of inhibiton MBD- tests killing not just inhibition |
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Term
Explain pulse field gel electrophoriesis- |
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Definition
1st step Microbial DNA is cut with a restriction enzyme 2nd step- large fragments seperated onto a gel by a pulsating electric field 3rd step-Gel stained profiles compared |
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Term
List the problems of PFGE--- |
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Definition
Long incubation time with endonuclease, easy to contaminate DNA with nuclease If the restriction cuts partially we see a diffrent pattern |
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Term
Some important facts about PCR amplifaction. |
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Definition
Sequence will determine where primers will hybridize size of primer not critical (except it must be long enough to be specific) number of reactions determines amount of product temperature must be just right (not to high not to low) |
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Term
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Definition
allows directional movement in bacteria that have flagella sensing of compounds- like a radar |
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Term
what are the charachteristics of a biofilm- |
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Definition
lots of polysacharide in a matrix |
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Term
biofilms are less suceptible to, and some simply love.. |
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Definition
they are less suceptible to antibiotics and also some simply love plastic. In full a biofilm is a matrix of bacteria stuck to some surface |
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Term
bacteria stick to surfaces by.. |
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Definition
Pili which attach to receptors and dont let go |
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Term
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Definition
multiple proteins.- the shaft is composed of one protein while the receptor binder is usually composed of multiple proteins. Assembled on surface of cell sticking outwards binding specific also very thin pili are called fimbrae. Pathogens love PILI (like Ecoli UPEC) |
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Term
what is the least active level of biofilm and the most active layer of biofilm? |
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Definition
The top portion is the most active layer of biofilm while the lower (surface portion that sticks to the surface) is the most metabolically inert level of the biofilm. A biofilm does not need to be composed of only one type of species. |
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Term
Wha are the two types of biofilms? |
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Definition
The environmental biofilms- form on pipes, trees, etc the medical biofilms form on implants |
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Term
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Definition
They protect the bacteria Are usaully composed of polysacharides but some are composed of proteins even polysacharide capsuls have some protein components during infection the polysacharide prevent the phagocyte from killing the bacteria in the external environment the capsul may protect the bacteria from drying out. |
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Term
can white blood cells go through capsul encoded bacteria? |
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Definition
No, they can not both meningitis and Pnuemonie (have capsuls) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Antibiotics can work better on |
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Definition
Gram positive cells becuase they can not diffuse readily through the Porins of the Gram Negetive cell |
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Term
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Definition
an O antigen and a Lipid A tail |
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Term
Peptidoglycan wall charachteristics- |
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Definition
•Found in Gram positve and negetive •Backbone of repeating disaccharide (muramic acid peculiar to bacteria) • •Cross-linked with peptides (different species may have slightly different peptides) • •Meshlike structure is very strong; determines cell shape • •Lysozyme in tears and secretions can hydrolyze sugar backbone if PG is exposed on cell surface • •Enzymes that synthesize the backbone or cross-link peptides are located in cytoplasmic membrane |
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Term
How does the peptidoglycan wall synthesize? |
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Definition
The peptidoglycan monomers are synthesized in the cytosol of the bacterium where they attach to a membrane carrier molecule called bactoprenol. Bacterial enzymes called autolysins break both the glycosidic bonds at the point of growth along the existing peptidoglycan, as well as the peptide cross-bridges that link the rows of sugars together. Bactoprenol and transglycosidase enzymes then insert the new peptidoglycan monomers into the breaks in the peptidoglycan. Transglycosidase enzymes catalize the formation of glycosidic bondsbetween the NAM and NAG of the peptidoglycan momomers and the NAG and NAM of the existing peptidoglycan. Finally, transpeptidase enzymes reform the peptide cross-links between the rows and layers of peptidoglycan to make the wall strong. |
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Term
Antibiotics can inhibit peptidoglican synthesis. |
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Definition
•Fosfomycin (Monurol) – inhibits formation of PG subunit • •Bacitracin – binds lipid carrier, inhibits externalization of PG subunit (toxic, usually used topically) • •**Penicillins and cephalosporins (b-lactam antibiotics) - inhibits PG crosslinking • •**Vancomycin (glycopeptide antibiotics; Vancocin) – inhibits PG crosslinking • •** means required |
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Term
What are the mechanisms for resistance of the |
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Definition
Beta- lactamase is excreted by gram positive cells in gram negetive it is secreted to peraplasmic space in gram negetive bacteria Mutant PBPs no longer bind antibiotic Mutant outer membrane porins admit less antibiotic More than one resistance mechanism may be used • |
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Term
Beta Lactamase resistance Beta lactams do what |
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Definition
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Term
name two inhibitors of Beta lactamase |
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Definition
Clavulanic Acid - No antibiotic action -Keeps antibiotics from being destroyed |
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Term
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Definition
Glycopolypetide that inhibits PG Crosslinking |
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Term
compare and contrast LPS to LPA and TA |
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Definition
LPS- Lypopolysacharide, (neutral sugars, Lipid A) Lipid A embedded in the outer membrane of Gram Negetive cells LTA- (sugar phosphates lipid,) Lipid embedded in the cytoplasmic membrane of GM positive. TA Teichoic Acid- binds to Peptidoglycan. |
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Term
Charachteristics of LPS and LTA |
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Definition
Inflammatory Compoud Lipid portion activates cytokyinse Lps and LTA are released when the Bacteria lysis Stimulates redness and swelling from a wound, stimulates Leukocytes to migrate to the area. In bloodstream they can cuase leakage of blood fluids drop in blood pressure and death |
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Term
The bacterial cytoplasmic membrane contains what five proteins? |
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Definition
Transport proteins (to transport things in and out of the cell)(most but not all require energy to function) Penicillin binding proteins Electron transport system Protein secretion system Sensor protein |
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Term
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Definition
Take up nutrients against a gradient Energy can come from direct hydrolysis of ATP , PEP or symport or antiport of ions- harness energy by the electron transport chain. |
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Term
Electron tranpsort provides energy by? |
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Definition
Transfering electrons from component to component producing ATP |
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Term
Proteins that link PG sacharides.. |
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Definition
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Term
What does sortase do in Gram Positive Cells ? |
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Definition
Covalently attaches surface proteins to PG |
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Term
What are the smallest bacteria and the largest bacteria? |
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Definition
the smallest bacteria come from Parasitic Bacterial genomes the largest ones come from soil bacteria |
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Term
Some bacteria have more genes than Eukaryotes, but the size of the genome is always smaller? |
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Definition
True- bacterial genomes are from .6 to 7mb while the smallest Eukaryotic genome is 12 mb at least 5 bacterial species have 5-8 thousand genes |
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Term
bacteria always have one chromosome? |
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Definition
True and False they usually have on chromosome but during rapid division they might have more than one in the cell at a particular time. They also have a lot of Plasmids. |
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Term
Name two bacterial species that have more than one chromosome. |
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Definition
–Rhodobacter sphaeroides (2) –Agrobacterium tumifaciens (2 chromosomes, 2 plasmids) |
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Term
All bacteria have circular chromosomes? |
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Definition
False some have cicular some have linear. Some even have both. |
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Term
Go over the steps of Bacterial Division by fusion. |
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Definition
the chromosome replicates the chromosome seperates a septum begins to form- a ring around the cell. the septum begins to shrink and cuts the cell into two cells |
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Term
Describe the growth of Bacteria in a solution. |
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Definition
Lag phase- bacteria introduced, new genes are expressed Exponential phase- bacteria reproduce like crazy stationary phase- reproduction halted due to nutrient limitations Death phase- resources run out. Bacteria lose viability. |
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Term
During the Death Phase- the bacteria can either die or |
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Definition
Form a spore, sporulation not terminal |
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Term
name the three types of bacteria that form spores |
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Definition
–Bacillus anthracis (anthrax) –Bacillus thuringensis (insecticidal toxin producer) –Clostridium botulinum (botulism) – |
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Term
How do spores differ from Regenerative bacteria? |
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Definition
Spores are metabollically inert- non dividing More resistant to heat/ drying/radiation contains all components necessary for regenerative growth and vegetative growth have a tough protein coat |
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Term
Explain in detail the process of sporulation. |
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Definition
After the chromosome replicates- the cytoplasmic membrane invaginates and the septum begins to form once the septum is complete the cytoplasmic membrane of the bacterium engulfs the newly formed spore Peptidoglycan is deposited around the cell of the spore- the original dna begins to degrade A protein coat forms around the spore Bacterium lysis and the spore is released. |
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Term
Antibiotics that inhibit DNA RNA and Protein Synthesis need to get into the.... |
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Definition
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Term
What kind of antibiotics prevenet RNA synthesis? |
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Definition
Rifamplin- Binds to and inhibits RNA polymerase |
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Term
What kind of Antibiotics inhibit Protein synthesis? |
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Definition
Erythromacin, tetracycline and many others through bindign to the ribosomes. |
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Term
Mutations in target proteins lead to resistance to what? |
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Definition
Fluroquinonines, and to Rifampicin- becuase they use DNA and RNA synthesis to inhibit gorwth of bacteria. |
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Term
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Definition
Antibiotic is pumped out as fast as it is pumped in. Resistance to tetracycline |
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Term
Methylase can do what to prevent antibiotics from inhibiting replication? |
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Definition
It can methylate a base in rRNA and prevent erythromyacine from binding the ribosome |
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Term
How do bacteria regulate transcription? |
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Definition
two ways by two component regulatory systems which control expression of many bacterial genes and by Quorum sensing- Replication of Bacteria to a certain quantity |
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Term
Where are autoinducers seen and how do they differ between gram negetavie and gram positive cells? |
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Definition
they are seen in Quorum sensing. in gram positive they are Peptides In gram negetive they are homoroseine lactones. |
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Term
how do we measure gene expression when we have multiple genes? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
We are going to take a promoter from a certain bacteria and a gene that codes for a certain protein. Like ecoli's beta galactose we are going to fuse them and then introduce them back to the original population of Bacteria Measure the amount of Beta galactose in the population and we know how active this expression is. |
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Term
Explain Reverse Transcriptase PCR to monitor gene expression. |
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Definition
•Procedure: –Treat extracted cellular nucleic acid with nuclease –Use RT to make a DNA copy of the mRNA –Use PCR to amplify the DNA copy –Visualize amplified DNA fragment on a gel –Qualitative measure • •Quantitative RT-PCR uses fluorescent nucleotides to detect the amplified DNA early in the amplification process –Measures the number of rounds of amplification necessary to detect amplicons above a threshold |
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Term
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Definition
2 Dimensional Protein Gels |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Quantitative PCR amplification uses-- |
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Definition
Fluorescent neucliotides to detect the Amplified DNA early. |
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Term
Describe Quantitative RT PCR |
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Definition
Primers Amplify a small region of the gene producing a labeled product Machine monitors the appearance of labeled amplicon Amount of RNA dictates when the threshold is passed Quantitative becuase measurement is taken during early linear phase of amplification. |
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Term
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Definition
Analysis of gene sequences |
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Term
What are the limitations of Microarray analysis? |
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Definition
No information about final protein concentration. Physiological impact or change Depends on accuracy of annotation of genes. most scientists- recomment RT-PCR supplements. |
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Term
Horizontal Gene Transfer occurs between |
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Definition
A Narrow range, between species or a closely related set of species. Can happen by DNA Uptake Generalized Phage transduction Or by a lysogenic phage |
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Term
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Definition
can cross genus and Phylus lines. What are they Conjugation and self transmissible plasmids |
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Term
these two methods of HGT require homologous recombination. |
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Definition
Phage transduction and Natural transformation |
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Term
What are the requirements of Lysogenic Phages |
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Definition
Intergrase factors as well as the right proteins. |
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Term
What are the requirements of Conjugation? |
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Definition
element must be able to replicate and intergrate |
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Term
What is the diffrence between Natural and Lab Transformation? |
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Definition
In natural transformation only only a single strand of RNA comes into the cell. only certain bacteria have the apparatus to take it up (the pores/ proteins) (some cases it can only occur in a narrow amount of time) In artificial transformation- Bacteria is forced to take up a double stranded segment by the use of heat/salt shock or electrical shock. both need HOMOLOGOUS RECOMBINATION |
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Term
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Definition
Requires Homologous recombination Phage acidentially packages host DNA instead of Phage DNA |
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Term
Lysogenic Phage transduction |
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Definition
NO REQUIREMENT FOR HOMOLOGOUS RECOMBINATION |
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Term
Explain conjugative transfer of a self transmisible plasmid. |
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Definition
A plasmid encodes the DNA for a sex pilus the pilus than connects with another cell and afterwards the DNA is transfered , only half gets to the recieving cell. and a new plasmid is formed. |
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Term
Which plasmid creates the mating bridge and which one goes through it in a Conjugative Plasmid? |
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Definition
the SP plasmid creates the Mating Bridge whule the Mobilizable plasmid goes through it. |
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Term
most transfered genes seem to be on |
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Definition
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Term
An enveloped virus has two things that a Naked Virus does not, What are they? |
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Definition
Viral proteins and matrix proteins |
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Term
How do we classify viruses |
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Definition
1st by positive or negetive strand 2nd by nonsegmented genome or by Diploid genome 3rd By naked or enveloped DNA |
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Term
Enveloped viruses have a blank derived fromt the host cells. |
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Definition
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Term
What are the two ways a virus can come into the cell? |
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Definition
A naked virus has its capsul created and becomes part of the cell. A enveloped virus comes in and carries everything. |
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Term
viral replication of SS Viruses |
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Definition
the + strand codes for the MRNA when translated it gives the code for RNA replicase, Capsids, and Envelope Proteins. the + strand is replicated by the replicase into the - strand and then Replicase makes it into the minus strand again. Capsid and envelop proteins surround it and we have a copy of another Virus ready to go out and infect again. |
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Term
What serious of event would we have if we had a - strand or a Double stranded Rna. |
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Definition
we would replicate to a plus strand that would encode a minus strand progeny and the capsids and envelops proteins necessary for a progeny |
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Term
How do Retroviruses like HIV work? |
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Definition
the plus strand is replicated into a SSDNA copy. Afterwards the SSDNA is made into a DSDNA and then the DSDNA intergrates into the host chromosome. The DSDNA uses host machinery to make a +RNA progeny and a +Rna mRNA. The +RNA Mrna makes Reverse Transcriptase, Envelop Proteins, and Capsid that are used to package the Virus and send it out to infect other Cells. |
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Term
How do most Viruses Replicate |
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Definition
Viral DNA is transcribed- into a viral Polymera, Capsid proteins, and envelope proteins the host or Viral polymerase transcribes the Viran DNA into viral Progeny. Capsids and envelop proteins envelop the virus and it goes on to replicate in other cells. |
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Term
How does a Virus Bud out of the cell? |
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Definition
the Capsid proteins form over the RNA and proteins and the virus leaves the cell and is surrounded by the phospholipid bilayer of the cell as well as Hemaglutin and Neuramindase that is contained in the Cell wall. |
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Term
What does Homologous replication have to do with Viruses? |
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Definition
Sometimes Replicase will switch genome strands and modify the virus thus leading to hybrid Viruses. |
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Term
What are the outcomes of a Viral infection? |
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Definition
THE CELL DIES THEIR is a Latent Infection-which will become a Persistant infection- the cell keeps making these Virons A tumor forms due to the Virus The Virus Genome is lost. |
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Term
What connection is their between Viruses and Cancer. |
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Definition
Viruses can cuase some cancers. HPV (DNA virus) can cuase cervical warts and cervical cancer. Prevention involves Cauterizing Warts The Vaccine covers the HPV types that cuase cancer Hepititus B (DNA virus) cuases Liver Cancer as well as Liver diease their is a vaccine |
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Term
Name the targets for anti viral medications. |
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Definition
Cell entry, fusion inhibitors Uncoating inhibitors Mrna and Genome synthesis inhibitors Translation inhibitors |
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Term
Antiviral Vaccines function on what principle? |
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Definition
they elicit antibodies against the virus which bind proteins and prevent attachment by steric hinderance . They attach to host cells and direct T cells to kill host cells Types of Vaccines live attenuated viruses Killed Virus Isolated Surface proteins |
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Term
Influenza Virus- Explain. |
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Definition
it is a Enveloped virus with a Helical Shape Single stranded RNA Genome (negetive strand) segmented into 8 segments mammalian cell receptors Sialic Acid (C-9 sugar) Types A B C (A is the most dangerous Kind) Viral attachment protein (Hemaglutin) H as well as Neuramanidase (involved in budding from the cell) HIGH RATE OF MUTATION (UNUSUAL FOR A VIRUS) |
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Term
How can mutant form of the Virus be generated? |
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Definition
Through genetic drift and genetic shift. |
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Term
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Definition
point mutations of viral envelope proteins Immune system still recognizes the virus but less effectively. |
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Term
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Definition
the virus infects the same kind of life form (reinfects human or reinfects Animal) Reasortment occurs through homologous recombination and creates a virus with diffrent surface proteins the immune response for the virus becomes ineffective. THis is much worse than Genetic Drift. |
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Term
Envelope proteins of the influenza virus include- |
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Definition
Hemaglutimine and neuraminadase that are anchored to the matrix proteins through the bphospholipid bilayer |
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Term
How is Influenza classified ? |
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Definition
through antigenic types of H and N the most recent type of influenza is H1N1 the Avian Flu type is H5N1 |
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Term
Will a vaccine made for Influenza H1N1 work on the avian flu. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
targets the Uncoating of the influenza virus. |
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Term
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Definition
The release of the budding influenza virus from the cell. Mutations in neuraminidase can inhibit the Tamiflu from working. |
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Term
WHY ON EARTH WOULD YOU DO SOMETHING LIKE REGENERTING THE 1918 influenza virus? WHY? Why would you do something so stupid? |
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Definition
Becuase then you could know if the outbreak was due to virulence factors or to the War. You could also predict how the virus could change, get one step ahead of it. |
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Term
What is the significance of regenerating the Virus? |
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Definition
Slide 26 .O {font-size:149%;} •Significance • –Obtain new information about viral genome sequence that might help to identify dangerous new strains – –Cloning approach could speed up production of new vaccine •Old method takes nearly a year • •Co-infection of embryonated eggs, screening for hybrid vaccine-new strain virus, harvesting of virus |
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Term
What is the structure of HIV? |
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Definition
Reverse transcriptase and RNA covered with Core proteins, which are in turn covered with Capsid proteins, that are in turn covered with phospholipid bilayer that has gp 41 and gp 120 proteins on its surface |
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Term
Describe the drug families of HIV. |
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Definition
Slide 31 .O {font-size:149%;} –Drug combination •Nucleoside analogs – inhibit reverse transcriptase •Protease inhibitors – –Problems •Side effects (e.g., nausea) •Rapid mutation rate of HIV •No vaccine yet • –Problems •Cell to cell transfer of virus •Might stimulate the immune system to attack the cells of the immune system |
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Term
protease inhibitors prevent the |
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Definition
Cutting up of proteins to make the Capsids for a new enveloped cell. |
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Term
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Definition
Slide 33 .O {font-size:149%;} –Influenza virus kills ciliated cells of upper airway –Bacteria in mouth or throat can enter lungs – Streptococcus pneumoniae, main cause of bacterial pneumonia • •HIV and lung infections • –HIV kills T cells, macrophages, lessens effectiveness of immune system – –Pneumocystis – yeast, lung infections – –Mycobacterium tuberculosis (gm + cell wall), lung infection |
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Term
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Definition
Eliza uses antibodies- or rather senses the presences of certain anibodies created to target a certain viruses. if there is a great amount of these antibodies- you have the viruses |
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Term
For diagnosing HIV infections you could use |
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Definition
RT-PCR PCR ELISA Western Blot for PCR and RT PCR you must use diffrent primers for a diffrent virus |
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Term
When it comes to microbes, why does size matter to someone who is trying to identify them? |
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Definition
Obviously, size determines the kind of microscopy you would use to view the microbe of interest. Size is also an issue if you are using filtration to purify a fluid or to separate one type of microbe from another. For example, a filtration unit designed to remove diarrhea-causing protozoa from stream water would probably not remove bacteria and would certainly not remove viruses. During the anthrax attacks, microbiologists were often asked if the masks you can buy in hardware stores would protect a person from inhalation anthrax. The answer is no, except insofar as the bacterial spores have attached themselves to a much larger particle of dust or soil. Special filters (called HEPA filters) had to be used to filter out bacteria. These filters are expensive and make breathing more difficult. |
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Term
Identification of bacteria and archaea rely heavily on biochemical tests or DNA tests, whereas identification of eukaryotic microbes relies more on morphology (appearance). Why is this so? |
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Definition
As is evident even from the simple diagrams shown in slides 2 and 3, bacteria and archaea tend to show much less morphological diversity than eukaryotic microbes such as fungi, protozoa and algae. However, bacteria and archaea show a much greater metabolic diversity than eukaryotic microbes. For example, some bacteria can “breathe” sulfur or arsenic, using respiration of such substances as a source of energy. Eukaryotes cannot do this unless, as has happened in some cases, they have “enslaved” bacteria or archaea (known as endosymbionts) that do the energy-yielding respiration reactions for them. Even such widespread eukaryotic organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts were once bacteria. |
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Term
How do bacteria and archaea differ from each other? Are these differences consistent with the rRNA gene-based tree of life? |
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Definition
From the rRNA-based tree of life, it is clear that archaea are as distinct phylogenetically from bacteria as they are from bacteria. Under the microscope, most bacteria and archaea look pretty much alike. But archaea do not have a phospholipid bilayer membrane like bacteria and other forms of life do. Instead they have a phospholipid membrane with a somewhat different structure. The RNA transcription machinery of archaea is more like that of eukaryotes than that of bacteria. Some other differences are included in your handout. |
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Term
How do bacteria differ from protozoans and from algae? Make an educated guess as to why antibacterial compounds usually do not work on eukaryotic microbes. |
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Definition
See the handout. The main differences are size and the presence of a nuclear membrane in the eukaryotes. One practical consequence of these differences is that antibacterial compounds generally do not kill or inhibit the growth of eukaryotes. Either the bacterial target of the antibiotic is absent in eukaryotic cells (e.g., the bacterial cell wall) or is different enough from the eukaryotic equivalent (e.g. the ribosome) that there is little or no effect of the antibiotic on the eukaryote. |
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Term
How are the conserved and variable regions of an rRNA gene used to assess the relatedness of microbes to each other? |
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Definition
The conserved regions are used to align the DNA sequences of rRNA genes from different microbes. The variable regions are the regions that contain information about the differences (e.g. species, genus). This will become very important when we cover the use of PCR amplification of rRNA genes and subsequent sequence analysis to identify microbes. |
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Is the rRNA gene-based tree of life consistent with the time line shown on the last slide? Can you even compare the two? |
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Definition
Technically, the two are not strictly comparable because the rRNA gene tree is a measure of relatedness rather than a direct measure of evolutionary time (e.g., the fossil record). Also note, that the rRNA-based tree is derived from modern organisms. However, there is a relationship between diversity and evolutionary time because the genetic divergence of two organisms from each other takes time. Also, there is a rough agreement between the time line and the tree of life. That is, bacteria appear in the tree of life to have appeared before the eukaryotes and certainly long before plants and animals. The cyanobacteria, for which we do have a fossil record in the form of the oxygen-generated banded iron formations and stromatolytes (fossilized masses of these bacteria), appear on the tree to be later than some of the deep branching anaerobic bacteria. Finally, there are bacteria (more than first thought) that are surprisingly resistant to radiation compared to other types of microbes, another trait that would have helped land dwelling bacteria to survive before the ozone layer formed. |
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What is an antibiotic? Why aren’t all antibiotics bactericidal? Why would a bacteriostatic antibiotic work to eliminate bacteria from the body? |
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Definition
You might think that a bacteriostatic antibiotic would be useless, but such antibiotics can be very effective in an immunocompetent person. The reason is that the antibiotic keeps bacterial numbers from increasing so that the defenses of the human body (especially neutrophils) can kill them. People with impaired host defense systems, however, need bactericidal antibiotics. |
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What factors are important for cultivating a bacterium? |
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Definition
The composition of the medium (source of carbon, nitrogen, etc.), temperature, pH, and atmosphere are all important. Different bacteria have different requirements, so there is no universal medium. |
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For what tests do you need a pure culture and why? |
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Definition
You need a pure culture of metabolic tests and for antibiotic susceptibility tests such as the Kirby Bauer, MIC and MBC tests. The reason is that if you have a mixture of bacteria, one may have the activity or antibiotic resistance being tested and obscure the activities of other bacteria in the mixture. Even if the contaminating bacteria is initially present in very low numbers in the sample, it may overgrow the organism of interest on something like a Kirby Bauer or MIC test if it is a faster grower than the initially predominant bacterium. |
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In the meningitis example used in class, why was the lab technician doing a Gram stain on spinal fluid before getting a pure culture? |
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Definition
Spinal fluid is usually sterile and a bacterium that crosses the blood brain barrier is usually a pure culture. Doing a Gram stain on spinal fluid saves a lot of time and can give you a clue (although not a final species identification) as to what the organism might be. Why is knowing that important? Because it gives you a clue as to what antibiotics might work or not work. For example, as you will learn in a subsequent lecture, vancomycin is usually ineffective against Gram negative bacteria. |
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What does the MIC test tell you that the Kirby Bauer test doesn’t? What about the MBC test? |
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Definition
The MIC test is more quantitative and gives the concentration of antibiotic that is sufficient to inhibit the growth of the bacterium being tested. Both measure the concentration of antibiotic that inhibits growth. The MBC determines the concentration that kills the bacterium. If an antibiotic is bacteriostatic, there may not be an MBC. In any case, the MBC is usually higher than the MIC. Why go to the trouble of doing an MBC test? Usually MBC tests are not done unless the patient has an immune system that is impaired, so that it is important to have an antibiotic that kills the bacteria. |
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You accidentally mix two strains, one of which has an MIC of 4 μg/ml and one of which has an MIC of 16 μg/ml, but you think you have a pure culture so you go ahead and do an MIC test. What is the MIC most likely to be?
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Definition
Probably 16μg/ml, unless the organism with an MIC of 16 μg/ml is unable to grow in the MIC medium. |
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How does 16SrRNA gene sequence differ from the cultivation approach? |
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Definition
A single set of primers can be used for most bacteria (16SrRNA universal primers). The DNA sequence of the variable region is used to determine identity, not biochemical tests. |
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Term
Does the PCR-based molecular census give a quantitative representation of the bacterial population? Why might some members be missed altogether? |
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Definition
The PCR-based census is usually not quantitative in the sense that it you find sequence "A" 10 times and sequence "B" 1 time, "A" is not necessarily present at 10 fold higher concentration. For one thing, some bacteria might not lyse as well as others. For another, some sequences seem to amplify better than others (for unknown reasons). Failure to lyse a type of bacterium will result in failure to detect it by the PCR method. Also, failure of the PCR primers to bind to some sequences in the population could be a factor. Although people refer to “universal primers” no set of primers is truly universal. Because of this, scientists usually use more than one set of primers (in different experiments). |
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Term
How does the PCR “census” of a bacterial population differ from PCR identification of a bacterium you have isolated as a pure culture? |
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Definition
If you have a single isolate, PCR amplification of the bacterial rRNA gene should result in a single amplified product. [Some bacteria have more than one copy of an 16SrRNA gene, but these sequences are virtually identical in most cases.] Thus, the amplicon (amplified DNA segment) can be sequenced directly. Amplification of rRNA genes from a population will results in a product that is a mixture of sequences. Thus, an added step – cloning to separate sequences in this mixture is necessary. After the cloning step, every plasmid should contain only one rRNA sequence and can then be sequenced. |
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How does PFGE differ from the PCR “census” approach? |
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Definition
In the application described in class, PFGE is being used to differentiate different strains of the same species. PFGE has a much finer degree of resolution than sequences of rRNA genes. Sequences of rRNA genes are used to distinguish bacteria at the species level rather than the strain level because the genes are so highly conserved. Also, you can use PCR-sequencing to determine what organisms are present in a specimen. The way PFGE was used in this application, you would start out knowing the species of the microbe in advance. |
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Could you use PFGE to characterize a bacterial population? |
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Definition
The PFGE profile from a single bacterium is already pretty complex. The profile from a population would be VERY complex, too complex to see the profile components clearly. Also, different strains would look different so even a population that contained only a single species could have a very complex pattern. |
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Term
In the rRNA gene census approach, why is there a cloning step? |
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Definition
If you have a pure culture, you should only have amplicons (PCR products) with one sequence. Thus you can go straight to DNA sequencing. In the case of a bacterial population, you will have a mixture of sequences (all of which will be approximately the same size. So, you use cloning to separate the sequence. After the transformation step, every E. coli colony will have a single cloned sequence. Different transformants will have different sequences. |
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Why is morphology (shape) more useful for identification of viruses and eukaryotes than for identification of bacteria? |
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Definition
A lot of bacteria look alike. For example, there are many species of gram-negative rods and many of gram-positive cocci. Sometimes, a simple test like the gram stain can identify a bacterial species. [N. meningitidis has a common shape (coccus) but an uncommon gram stain reaction.] But usually, this is not possible. Different viruses can also look alike but shape as determined by a high resolution type of microscopy like the electron microscope can serve as one indicator of the virus’ identity. The cross-sectional views can be useful to see an envelop or other unique structural features This is especially valuable if you are unable to cultivate the virus, as was the case initially with SARS and hantavirus. Fungi and other eukaryotic microbes have a lot of morphological diversity and shape is thus used as a key component in identification. [Something to remember about viruses. Viruses are not free-living organisms and thus cannot be plated on agar medium. They need to be plated on monolayers of the specific cells they infect.] |
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Why is morphological analysis of viruses usually a method of last resort? |
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Definition
An electron microscope is an expensive piece of equipment that is not available everywhere. Also, skilled scientists are required to take and evaluate the electron micrographs. Thus, the average hospital laboratory is not going to be able to use microscopy for identification. Fortunately, there are antibody-based identification methods for many viruses and this approach is thus the approach of choice for the average hospital laboratory. |
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Term
Why is there no single primer set for PCR amplification of viruses? |
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Definition
Most viruses have small genomes and genes that may be conserved within a viral species but not within viruses as a whole. So far, no “universal” virus gene has been identified. |
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Term
Which of the DNA-based methods described for bacteria could be used on eukaryotic microbes? |
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Definition
All of them, with the qualification that for rRNA gene PCR, eukaryotic primers would have to be used. PFGE is arguably the least useful of the techniques mentioned in connection with bacteria because of the large sizes of eukaryotic genomes, but it is used. |
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Term
Making and using flagella takes a lot of energy. Why would a bacterium need to move at all? |
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Definition
Movement, especially purposeful movement (chemotaxis), is helpful to allow bacteria to find nutrients, stay in a nutrient-rich location, or even avoid hazardous compounds. Of course, something as small as a bacterium cannot move very far, so motility helps best in a localized region. Many of the bacteria that cause intestinal or urinary tract infections are motile, presumably because motility helps them reach the mucosa of the area and attach (pili) so as to stay in the site despite the motion of fluids in the area. |
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Term
Why would different types of bacteria use different types of motility? |
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Definition
One reason seems to be their life style. Spirochetes are good at moving through blood vessel walls, for example, probably because their motility works best in a viscous medium. A spirochete would be pretty helpless in the bladder. By contrast, bacteria that cause urinary tract infections (or intestinal infections) are operating in areas that are bathed in more dilute solutions and this is presumably why the ones that are motile have exterior flagella. Nonetheless, some bacterial that cause intestinal infections are not motile (except in the sense that Shigella is able to move inside cells with the help of host cell actin). |
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Term
How could a nonmotile (i.e., nonflagellated) bacterium like Shigella move from place to place? |
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Definition
In most parts of the body, the curvature of organs like the small intestine makes it likely that the bacterium will encounter the mucosa. If the bacteria can then adhere via pili, it can stay in the site. |
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Term
Will all antibodies that bind flagella bind to the surface of the bacteria? |
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Definition
If the flagella are exposed, the antibodies can bind to the flagella of an intact bacterium, but in the case of spirochetes (flagella between the cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane) the antibodies could not get to the flagella. |
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Term
How do pili resemble/differ from capsules and flagella? |
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Definition
Pili and flagella are composed of protein subunits. Capsules are usually (but not always) composed of carbohydrates. [The bacterium that causes anthrax has a protein capsule.] All of these organelles have in common that they are exposed on the cell surface. Flagella extend out the farthrest. Be sure you also know how LPS and LTA differ from or resemble each other and pili, flagella etc. |
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Term
If you added a protease to a bacterial culture, what surface features is the bacterium most likely to lose? |
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Definition
The protein containing organelles such as pili and flagella are most likely to be affected since they are composed of proteins and are exposed on the cell surface. LPS and LTA are exposed on the cell surfaces of gram-negatives and gram-positives, respectively, but they are not composed of protein. Surface proteins of gram-negative bacteria, such as porins, are somewhat protected because they are embedded in the outer membrane but can be partially digested in some cases. |
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Term
How would the aforementioned protease be likely to affect the capabilities of the bacterium? |
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Definition
This is just a way of asking what are the roles of flagella, pili, capsules, LPS, LTA. Be sure you know the functions of these parts of the cell and which are peculiar to gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria (see later questions). |
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Term
Why might a medical biofilm be a serious threat to a patient’s life? What is the physician’s likely response? |
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Definition
Many of the cells in a biofilm, especially those lower down in the biofilm are relatively inert metabolically and are thus less affected by antibiotics than actively growing cells. Antibiotics might get some of the surface cells and cells that leave the biofilm, but antibiotics are usually not effective in ridding the patient of a biofilm that has developed on a plastic implant. The bacteria in the biofilm are also somewhat protected from phagocytic cells such as neutrophils. Cells of the biofilm can be shed and can thus leave the biofilm and cause an inflammatory response. If the biofilm is on a catheter, sometimes just removing the catheter and treating with antibiotics is sufficient. But if the biofilm has formed on an internal implant, such as a plastic heart valve, the physician may have to reoperate to remove the contaminated implant, then treat with antibiotic, then operate once again to install a new implant. |
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Term
How could you prevent the formation of a biofilm in the first place? |
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Definition
If you have a good answer to this, patent it immediately! Currently, the most popular strategy is to embed antibiotics or other antibacterial compounds (eg., silver) that discourage bacterial growth on the implant’s surface if bacteria adhere. Another strategy is to make the surface of the implant as smooth as possible. Bacteria seem to bind more readily to uneven surfaces. Scientists are also trying to understand better how certain bacteria adhere to plastics, in the hope that the physical properties of the implant could be designed to discourage adherence of the bacteria in the first place. |
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Term
Most biofilms have a structure that includes channels that run through the biofilm? What is the advantage to the bacterium of this type of biofilm structure?
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Definition
It allows nutrients to get to the most deeply embedded bacteria more efficiently than would be the case if the nutrients had to diffuse through many layers of slime-embedded bacteria. |
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Term
Why are gram-negative bacteria generally resistant to lysozyme, an enzyme that attacks the PG backbone? More resistant to many antibiotics than gram-positive bacteria? |
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Definition
Both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria have PG (peptidoglycan). A protein is too large to diffuse through the porins in the gram-negative outer membrane, so the outer membrane protects the PG of the cell by covering it up. Some antibiotics are also too large to diffuse through porins, or diffuse more slowly than if there was no outer membrane. |
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Term
How do LTA and LPS resemble each other? How are they different from each other, pili and flagella? |
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Definition
LTA and LPS are both composed of a lipid end, which is embedded in a membrane, and a polysaccharide part, which is exposed on the cell surface. Both elicit the same type of inflammatory reaction in the human body. They differ in the composition of their lipid and polysaccharide portions. LTA is embedded in the cytoplasmic membrane, LPS in the outer membrane. Pili and flagella are composed of protein. Pili mediate adherence to surfaces. Flagella are responsible for motility. |
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Term
How does the function of the cytoplasmic membrane differ from that of PG?
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Definition
PG has a purely structural function – maintaining the structural integrity of the bacteria and giving bacteria their shape. The cytoplasmic membrane has many diverse functions such as transporting nutrients into the cell, generating ATP (electron transport system), secreting proteins (like b-lactamase), transporting components of PG across the cytoplasmic membrane, holding the enzymes that do the last steps in PG assembly (the so-called penicillin binding proteins or PBPs |
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Term
Why does PG synthesis start inside the cell cytoplasm and then move to the outside of the cytoplasmic membrane? |
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Definition
I told you not to memorize the structures of the compounds involved in PG synthesis, but I would like you to note that the first steps of PG synthesis, which produce the PG subunit, use UTP, an energy rich molecule like ATP. UTP, like ATP, is confined to the cytoplasm so that it is not lost to the cell. Once the subunit is transported across the cytoplasmic membrane by the complex lipid called bactoprenol, the formation of the sugar backbone and the crosslinking step proceed to form the huge PG network. These last steps do not require UTP or any other energy-rich molecule. These last two steps are carried out by the PBPs and other cytoplasmic membrane proteins. The PG subunit is really not free at any time in the process once it moves to the outside of the cytoplasmic membrane. Some gram-negative bacteria have porins that would allow a free subunit to diffuse out of the cell. |
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Term
How does the mechanism of penicillin differ from that of vancomycin? |
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Definition
Although both types of antibiotic interfere with the last step in peptidoglycan synthesis – the cross-linking of the peptide parts of PG, penicillin has a different target from vancomycin. Penicillin binds the cytoplasmic membrane proteins that carry out the cross-linking, the penicillin binding proteins (PBPs), and inactivates them. Vancomycin binds to the PG peptide (the substrate of the PBPs) and prevents the PBPs from binding the peptide by steric hinderance. |
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Term
How does a bacterium become resistant to penicillin? To vancomycin? Why can’t the same mechanism work for both antibiotics – or is there one that does? |
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Definition
There are three main mechanisms of resistance to penicillin. One is the enzyme b-lactamase, which is located in the periplasmic space of Gram-negative bacteria and at the outside of the cytoplasmic membrane in Gram-positive bacteria. This enzyme hydrolyzes the b-lactam ring of penicillin, inactivating it. It is possible that there are bacterial enzymes that inactivate vancomycin but so far no one has found one. The second type of resistance to penicillin is mutant PBPs which no longer bind penicillin and thus are not activated by it. A third mechanism, in Gram negative bacteria, is mutant porins that restrict the diffusion of penicillin across the outer membrane. A mechanism of resistance to vancomycin is to alter the structure of the peptide so that vancomycin no longer binds. In Gram negative bacteria, the porins restrict the ability of vancomycin to get into the periplasmic space. So this is an example of a mechanism that works for both antibiotics. But generally, if two antibiotics have different targets, the mechanism of resistance is different. |
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Term
What is clavulanic acid and how does it work? Is there a type of resistance that clavulanic is powerless against? |
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Definition
Clavulanic acid is a molecule that looks like the b-lactam ring of penicillin but has no antibiotic effect on bacteria. Instead, it is designed to inhibit the b-lactamase so that it cannot inactivate the b-lactam antibiotics. Clearly, this strategy is not effective if the resistance is due to mutant PBPs or mutant porins. |
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Term
1. Bacteria tend to have smaller genomes than eukaryotes. Does this mean that they necessarily have fewer genes? Why do bacteria need so many genes if they are such simple creatures? |
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Definition
. Bacteria tend to pack their genomes with genes, with little noncoding DNA. This is not true for many eukaryotes. This is the reason a bacterium that has a smaller genome than a eukaryote can actually in some cases have more genes. Bacteria are noted for their adaptability. The genetic basis for this adaptability is having genes that are useful in different environmental conditions. This is also the reason that regulation is so important for bacteria. |
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2. Critique the statement that you will see in many older texts: All bacteria have a single circular chromosome, a feature that distinguishes them from eukaryotic cells which generally have multiple linear chromosomes |
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Definition
. The first bacteria that were studied had single circular chromosome. Some had plasmids too, but the plasmids carried genes that were not essential for existence (e.g., resistance genes rather than rRNA genes). As more bacteria were studied, it became apparent that some of them have multiple chromosomes and some have linear chromosomes. [Do not memorize the organism names in slides 2 and 3. Just get the big picture.] |
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3. Suppose you took bacteria grown in medium A and inoculated them into medium B and found that the lag phase was 2 hr long. If you take bacteria from late exponential phase in medium B and reinoculate them into medium B, what would you expect to happen to the lag phase? What if you took bacteria that were well into stationary phase and did the same experiment? |
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Definition
. Lag phase is the period during which bacteria change gene expression patterns to adapt to the new medium. If the “new” medium is the same as the one the bacterium just came from, the lag phase should be shorter. This is true if actively growing bacteria are transferred. Bacteria deep into stationary phase may be changing their patterns of gene expression to allow them to survive starvation. Thus, even if the same number of viable bacteria are transferred, the lag period may be lengthened by the need to adapt to the availability of nutrients. |
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Term
3. Suppose you took bacteria grown in medium A and inoculated them into medium B and found that the lag phase was 2 hr long. If you take bacteria from late exponential phase in medium B and reinoculate them into medium B, what would you expect to happen to the lag phase? What if you took bacteria that were well into stationary phase and did the same experiment? |
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Definition
. Obviously on average, bacteria can divide only every 12 hours. If they divided as rapidly as they can in the laboratory, we would not be here to talk about microbiology. The point of this question is that although the growth curve seen in slide 6 is the one usually used, bacterial growth in nature is usually not like the growth of a single strain in medium with an excess of nutrients. |
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Term
5. How does sporulation differ from vegetative growth (binary fission). How does a spore differ from a vegetative bacterium. |
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Definition
. Review the steps in sporulation. Sporulation involves asymmetric division and the result is one spore, not two daughter cells. See slide 9 for characteristics of a spore. Spores are impervious to many conditions, including heat and antibiotics. In the case of inhalation anthrax, which is caused by inhalation of spores, the spores have to germinate before antibiotics are effective. |
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Term
6. An extract taken from a bacterium contains a membrane protein that is labeled when incubated with labelled ATP. If the protein is a regulatory protein, what type of regulation is it probably mediating? |
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Definition
. The protein is most likely to be a member of a two component regulatory system, either the sensor or the response regulator. Note that phosphorylation is not involved in quorum sensing or other types of gene regulation you have seen in previous courses. |
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7. How do the signals differ in the case of a two component system and a quorum sensing system? How are the two types of process turned off when the conditions they are sensing change? |
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Definition
The signal sensed by a two components system sensor protein is an external signal. The signal sensed by the quorum sensing system is generated by the bacterium itself. The reason for this difference is that a two component system is sensing changes in the external environment, whereas a quorum sensing system is sensing the concentration of the bacteria themselves. A two component system is turned off by the phosphatase that removes the activating phosphate group from the DNA binding protein. In the case of a quorum sensing system, dilution of the bacterial culture will also dilute the signal. |
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Term
8. What do the different type of autoinducers have in common despite their different structures |
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Definition
They are all small molecules. This is probably due to the fact that they have to enter and leave bacteria readily. |
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Term
9. Normally transcription of lacZ is up-regulated by the presence of lactose and the absence of glucose. How would transcription of lacZ be affected if it was fused to a promoter that normally controls a gene whose synthesis is influenced by nitrogen? |
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Definition
The lacZ gene would be expressed in response to nitrogen availability and would not be affected by the presence of lactose or glucose. Be sure you know where the promoter, ribosome binding site and reporter gene come from in a gene fusion |
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Term
10. How does a gene fusion differ from RT-PCR? In what sense do they measure the same thing? What is real time RT-PCR |
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Definition
A gene fusion is created by cloning and what is measured is the activity of LacZ (beta-galactosidase). This is an indirect measure of lacZ mRNA levels. In RT-PCR, there is no cloning step. Primers amplify the mRNA from the gene of interest itself (not a reporter gene). So mRNA is measured directly. Measurements made with a gene fusion are quantitative (amount of beta-galactosidase activity), whereas RT-PCR is qualitative. The reason it is qualitative is that after a certain number of cycles of amplification, the number of amplicons levels off. If you do enough cycles, amplicons representing a lower abundance mRNA can “catch up” with amplicons from a higher abundance mRNA. In real time or quantititative RT-PCR, the amplification process is monitored and stopped long before it reaches the saturation point. |
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11. You are annotating a new bacterial genome sequence. How do you find open reading frames? How can you guess the function of some of the open reading frames |
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Definition
. An open reading frame is defined by a start codon and a stop codon. Sometimes, there can be multiple start codons in the same region, making it difficult to known which one is the correct one. The function of the protein encoded by the open reading frame can be deduced by looking for proteins of known function in the protein databases that resemble it in amino acid sequence. |
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12. How does microarray differ from/ resemble a gene fusion? RT-PCR |
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Definition
A microarray is basically a fancy version of the dot or spot blot, with a DNA “spot” representing each gene being sampled by the array. What is measured is hybridization of labeled mRNA from an organism to the DNA spots on the microarray. This can be made quantitative and is thus considered a quantitative method. As with the other forms of gene expression measures, it is necessary to compare at least two separate treatments to determine whether a message is produced at a higher, lower or similar rate under different conditions. RT-PCR also measures the level of mRNA directly, but is usually done only on one or a few genes at a time. Real time RT-PCR is generally done on one gene at a time. |
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Term
13. Scientists often leave rRNA genes off of a microarray chip. Why? [Hint: What are the relatively amounts of rRNA and mRNA?] |
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Definition
. In the case of eukaryotic cells, it is possible to selectively isolate mRNA because eukaryotic mRNA has a polyA “tail”. Some bacterial mRNAs have a similar tail but in practice, an RNA sample isolated from a bacterium consists mainly of rRNA, with any single mRNA being in the minority of molecules. Thus, the rRNA signal will dominate if there is rDNA on the chip. tRNAs are not quite as much of a problem but can still dominate mRNA signals. |
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14. Microarrays can cost as much $400 apiece. If microarrays are all you do, you need at least 8 replicates for each treatment to establish statistical significance in the changes you are detected. You are a cheapskate and decide to buy 2 microarrays only, then take another route to establishing the significance of a change in gene expression you find. How would you proceed? |
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Definition
. Some scientists who are tired of being ripped off by the microarray manufacturers will do two chips, one for each condition they are interested in. This tentatively identifies the mRNAs of interest. Then, they use quantitative RT-PCR to measure levels of the mRNAs from the genes whose expression appears interesting. The point of this question is to get you to think about the differences and similarities between microarrays and RT-PCR. |
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15. How do the examples of antibiotics given in this section resemble/differ from penicillin and vancomycin in their mechanism of action? How does resistance to them resemble/differ from resistance to penicillin or vancomycin? |
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Definition
. The antibiotics used as examples here have in common with penicillin and vancomycin that they bind to a bacterial target (protein in the case of the DNA and RNA synthesis inhibitors, protein/rRNA in the case of the protein synthesis inhibitors) and thereby inhibit the activity of that target. However, whereas penicillin binds covalently to its target (penicillin binding proteins), the antibiotics used as examples in this section bind noncovalently. Some of the same types of resistance mechanisms seen for penicillin or vancomycin resistance , e.g., mutation of a target molecule, are also seen in the case of these antibiotics. The efflux pump mechanism is different because these antibiotics have to enter the cell. Thus, preventing transport (which for some reason bacteria seem not to do) or expelling the antibiotic from the cell become options for resistance. [FYI. There are also enzymes that covalently modify and inactivate some protein synthesis inhibitors, but these were omitted for simplicity.] The main resistance point is that the fact an antibiotic has to cross the CM make it an option for the cell to employ a resistance mechanism (efflux) that would not be useful in the case of antibiotics such as penicillin and vancomycin that do not have to enter the cell. |
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Why are phage-mediated transfer processes considered to be narrow host range processes? How would this change (or would it?) if the piece of DNA contained a transposon? |
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Definition
In both generalized phage transduction and lysogeny, there needs to be a receptor on the surface of the recipient cell. Usually, such receptors are found only in a single species or closely related species. In the case of generalized transduction, there has to be enough identity between the segment packaged by the phage and the chromosome of the recipient for homologous recombination to integrate the incoming DNA. The entire DNA segment does not have to be identical to the chromosomal sequences, but you need to have near identity on either side of a foreign gene or a mutation if you want it to integrate by a double cross-over recombination event. |
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. How does natural transformation differ from artificial transformation? Why is transformation considered a narrow host range process? |
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Definition
. In natural transformation, only a single strand of the DNA is taken up. Also, there is a special protein complex that mediates binding and eventual uptake of the single stranded DNA. In the case of artificial transformation, double stranded DNA segments are taken up and no specialized receptor complex is involved. DNA uptake is forced by exposing the recipient bacterium to chemical/heat stress or to an electric field. |
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Term
. How do generalized transduction and artificial transformation resemble each other? How does generalized transduction differ from lysogeny? |
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Definition
. Both generalized transduction and artificial transformation involve the uptake of double-stranded DNA. In the case of phage transduction, however, a receptor for the phage is needed whereas artificial transformation is nonspecific |
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Term
. Why is conjugation considered to be a broad host range process? What is the form of DNA that is transferred |
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Definition
. Conjugation appears to be independent of a receptor and to be capable of occurring between very distantly related species. The plasmid or the conjugative transposon has to be able to survive in the recipient cell. A single strand of DNA is transferred, a feature that may explain why restriction enzymes are not as effective in eliminating incoming DNA as they are in eliminating DNA transferred by bacteriophages (which is double-stranded). Restriction enzymes cleave double-stranded DNA. |
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Term
If a plasmid can transfer from A to B but does not replicate in B, is the plasmid necessarily lost in B? |
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Definition
. If the plasmid contains DNA that has identity to DNA on the recipient’s chromosome, the plasmid can integrate by homologous recombination. If the plasmid carries a transposon, the transposon may be saved by transposing to the chromosome, even though the plasmid itself is lost due to inability to replicate. (Note that the transposition process is independent of homologous recombination, so even if a strain lacks a functional homologous recombination system, the transposon can still be retained in the recipient.) |
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Term
How does a self-transmissible plasmid differ from a mobilizable plasmid? From a conjugative transposon? |
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Definition
The self-transmissible transposon carries the genes that encode the proteins that form the bridge between the cytoplasm of the donor and the cytoplasm of the recipient, as well as the protein(s) that nick the plasmid and initiate transfer. A mobilizable plasmid only provides the nicking protein; it uses the transfer proteins provided by the self-transmissible element. Since conjugative transposons also contain genes that encode the mating bridge, these elements can also mobilize plasmids. |
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Term
How can a transposon affect an open reading frame? In the case of transposon mutagenesis, which type of event are you most likely to see? |
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Definition
. If the transposon integrates near an open reading frame, but not in the promoter region, there will be no effect. If the transposon integrates into the promoter region, it can change the way the gene is regulated because it replaces the promoter with one of its own. If the transposon integrates within an open reading frame, transcription is disrupted and the protein encoded by the gene is no longer made. This is the type of event you are most likely to detect if you are screening for loss of a trait, although sometimes integration of a transposon into the promoter reduces gene expression sufficiently to make gene expression too low for the trait to be seen. |
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. How can you determine which gene your transposon interrupted? If your transposon carries a promoterless lacZ gene, what is the probability that the lacZ gene would be expressed if it interrupted an open reading frame? (Assume the lacZ gene has a ribosome binding site.) |
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Definition
Transposons used for transposon mutagenesis have some sort of selectable marker, such as an antibiotic resistance gene. Using a restriction enzyme that cuts only once within the transposon or cuts only outside of the transposon, you can clone a mixture of transposon and adjacent chromosomal DNA into a plasmid and select for the resistance marker. Then, you can sequence the DNA outside the transposon ends. The transposon that integrates into an open reading frame may integrate in either orientation. If the lacZ gene is transcribed in a direction opposite to the direction of transcription of the open reading frame, there will be no LacZ production. Thus, in theory, you have a 50% chance that the transposon carrying the promoterless lacZ will be expressed. |
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Term
. How can a transposon insertion or a gene disruption affect expression of genes other than the one in which they insert? |
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Definition
. If the gene interrupted is part of an operon, the transposon will affect genes downstream of the disrupted gene because transposons usually contain terminators that terminate transcription of the mRNA. This is also true for a single crossover gene disruption. |
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Term
What are the properties of a “suicide” plasmid? If a suicide plasmid does not contain a cloned region, what happens to it in the nonpermissive strain? |
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Definition
“Suicide” plasmids need to be able to replicate in some strain so that DNA can be introduced into it by cloning, but the plasmid must not be able to replicate in the recipient strain. Otherwise, all you would detect in the recipient is the replicating plasmid. |
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Term
How do proteins that mediate adherence differ between naked and enveloped viruses? |
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Definition
Viruses must first bind to a receptor on the host cell in order to invade. The viral proteins used for binding have to be on the surface of the virus. Thus, envelope proteins of enveloped viruses but capsid proteins of naked viruses are the ones involved in adherence. |
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Term
Why do some viruses only infect certain mammalian cells? |
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Definition
The proteins that mediate attachment (or adherence) of the virus to the mammalian cell recognize a specific receptor on the host cell. In the case of influenza virus, the receptor is sialic acid, which is found on many mammalian cells. In the case of HIV, the receptor is CD4, which is only found on a couple of cell types. Thus, the distribution of the receptor recognized by the viral surface proteins determines which type of cell the virus can infect. Note that if a tissue culture cell line is not available that has the viral receptor on its surface, you are out of luck when it comes to cultivating the virus in tissue culture cells. |
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Term
What type of target (receptor) on a mammalian cell would allow a virus to infect most or all cells? |
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Definition
A receptor like sialic acid that is found on many cell types would have this effect. |
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Term
How might an antiviral strategy (vaccine or treatment) inhibit the attachment step? |
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Definition
Vaccines such as the flu vaccine contain envelope proteins and elicit antibodies that bind the viral surface protein so that it cannot make specific contact with the mammalian cell receptor due to steric hindrance. Antiviral vaccines often target surface proteins to prevent attachment (adherence), the initial step in infection. You could also use a free form of the mammalian cell receptor to coat the virus and prevent binding to the receptor attached to the mammalian cell surface. This has been attempted with influenza virus by making a nasal spray that contained sialic acid. So far this has not worked, but it could be (in the future) a useful way to prevent infection, a way that does not require the weeks-long induction period required by vaccines. |
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Term
How might an antiviral compound inhibit the uncoating step? The budding step?
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Definition
Influenza virus is a good example of both. Influenza virus is taken up by endocytosis and ends up in a vesicle that starts to acidify. This acidification process causes a change in the conformation of the matrix proteins that attach the envelope to the capsid, thus starting the uncoating process. Presumably a change in conformation of the capsid proteins completes the process by removing the capsid. Amantadine stabilizes the matrix proteins so that they do not change conformation and thus prevents the early stage of the uncoating process. So any compound that prevented the conformational changes in matrix or capsid proteins that occur in acidified vesicles could prevent uncoating of viruses that enter the cell in this way. Of course, this would not work for viruses that fuse directly with the mammalian cell membrane and do not enter Newer drugs like Tamiflu bind to the influenza envelope protein neuraminidase and inhibit its enzymatic activity. This activity is essential for the step in which the budding virus is released from the cell. If the viral particle is not released from the mammalian cell it invaded, it cannot infect other cells. via endocytic vesicles. |
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Term
What types of proteins are found in a virus’ nucleoprotein core? |
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Definition
Structural proteins that stabilize the genome and enzymes like replicases or reverse transcriptase that are needed in the early stage of viral genome replication. |
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Term
Why do some viruses have to have preformed enzymes to replicate their genome? Which type(s) of virus are most likely to need a preformed replicase in their nucleoprotein core? |
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Definition
A + stranded RNA virus genome is ready to go as mRNA and can thus be translated to provide the replicase, but a – stranded virus has to make a + strand copy before it can make copies of its replicase in its new host. Thus the – strand RNA virus has to bring in a preformed replicase to get its replication started. For some reason, double stranded RNA viruses also bring in a preformed replicase. Retroviruses like HIV have to bring in a preformed reverse transcriptase to get started on genome replication. Double stranded DNA viruses can use host cell enzymes for replication and transcription. However, even some viruses that might seem not to have to bring in a preformed enzyme do so, presumably because this increases efficiency of the replication process. |
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Term
Why do some viruses carry preformed replication proteins even if they would seem not to need them? |
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Definition
Probably the availability of the preformed replicase aids the virus in taking over the mammalian cell biosynthetic machinery more efficiently. |
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Term
What are some examples of antiviral compounds that inhibit viral replication? |
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Definition
Two examples were given in the case of HIV. One type inhibits reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that is necessary to make a DNA copy of the virus so that it can integrate into the host cell genome. An example of such a drug in current use is AZT, a nucleoside analog that prevents reverse transcriptase from finishing synthesis of the DNA copy of the viral RNA genome by terminating transcription. A second type antiviral compound that inhibits viral replication is a protease inhibitor. In the case of HIV, translation of the viral RNA genome produces a polyprotein, which must be activated by proteolytic cleavage of the polyprotein into active protein substituents. Note that both of these examples are HIV specific and would not work with most other viruses. They target viral activities that are different from mammalian cell activities and thus reduce toxicity to mammalian cells. [FYI: In the case of other viruses, for example herpes viruses, there are compounds that interfere with replication of the viral genome. It is also a nucleotide analog but is different from AZT.] |
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Term
How does reassortment differ from mutation in the case of influenza virus? Why do you need a segmented genome to do this (reassortment)? See figure in handouts. Be sure to understand the reassortment process. How could reassortment create a “killer” influenza virus? |
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Definition
The most lethal strains of influenza virus are those that make envelope proteins that are no longer recognized by the immune system. Reassortment can change the envelope proteins this much. Mutation usually leaves surface proteins similar enough to what they were before so that the immune system can still recognize them, only less efficiently |
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Term
Given that HIV is an RNA virus, what would you predict about its genetic variability? |
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Definition
RNA viruses are likely to be mutable than DNA viruses, although not all RNA viruses mutate as rapidly as influenza virus and HIV. |
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Term
Why is a combination of compounds used to treat people with HIV infection?
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Definition
The combination is more effective. Also, it helps to prevent the selection of mutant viruses because it is unlikely that the virus will become simultaneously resistant to drugs that have different targets |
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Term
Would a protease inhibitor work against influenza viruses? . |
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Definition
No, because they do not produce polyproteins and the protease that cleaves (and activates) the components of the polyprotein |
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Term
What is the significance of the mutant co-receptors for HIV that some people possess? |
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Definition
Apparently, a single receptor is not sufficient for efficient binding of HIV to cells and entry into them. A second receptor, called the co-receptor, stabilizes the attachment of HIV to cells. People who have a mutant co-receptor do not allow as stable an attachment of HIV and are thus less likely to contract the disease or, if they do contract the disease, limit spread of the virus and thus progress more slowly to AIDS. |
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Term
How does the ELISA detection system differ from the Western blot test for HIV or the RT-PCR (of PCR, for a DNA virus) type test? |
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Definition
Both the ELISA and Western blot test employ antibodies. Two differences are that the ELISA can be used either to detect viral proteins or detect a patient’s antibody response, depending on the antigen immobilized in the wells. (Be sure you understand this.) The Western blot assay uses viral proteins separated by electrophoresis to detect antibodies to HIV in the patient’s blood. It is more specific, but not necessarily more sensitive, than the ELISA. RT-PCR (or PCR) detects the viral genome in a patient’s blood or organs. It is more sensitive than the antibody-based tests. |
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Term
Archaea DIFFER from bacteria in that archaea have |
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Definition
a cytoplasmic membrane that is not a phospholipid bilayer |
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Term
The 16S rRNA gene is used in phylogenic analysis of bacteria because it has |
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Definition
has conserved regions that can be used as targets for PCR primers |
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Term
Pulsed field gel electrophoresis is most likely to be used to |
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Definition
differentiate between different strains of bacteria |
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Term
Which of the following tests is the most likely to give quantitative information? |
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Definition
MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration) test |
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Term
The corkscrew motility of spirochetes is due to |
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Definition
flagella that are located between an outer sheath and a cytoplasmic membrane. |
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Term
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Definition
embedded in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. |
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Term
The next-to-last step in peptidoglycan synthesis is |
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Definition
joining of the sugar portion of the subunit to the growing polysaccharide chain |
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Term
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Definition
responsible for the resistance of most Gram-negative bacteria to vancomycin. |
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Term
In the process of bacterial spore formation, |
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Definition
he spore contains a complete copy of the chromosome |
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Term
DNA-degrading enzymes are found in the external fluid of an environment where bacteria are located. Which of the following processes is most likely to be adversely affected by such a condition? |
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Definition
artificial transformation |
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Term
A microarray DIFFERS from quantitative RT-PCR in that the microarray |
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Definition
measures expression of many genes at the same time |
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Term
A two-component regulatory system, but NOT a quorum sensing system, |
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Definition
recognizes an external signal. |
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Term
Human papilloma virus and hepatitis B virus have in COMMON that both |
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Definition
produce infections that can be prevented by a vaccine |
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Term
The proteins on a naked virus that allow the virus to attach specifically to its mammalian cell target are located in |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
prevent cleavage of HIV polyproteins into active proteins |
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Term
Viruses that cause different diseases differ from each other in many ways, but all viruses have |
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Definition
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Term
A western blot assay for HIV resembles an ELISA test for HIV in that both |
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Definition
can be used to detect binding of antibodies to viral proteins. |
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Term
The first molecular oxygen in the earths atmoshpere was produced by |
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Definition
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Term
members of two diffrent phylogenic groups of bacteria are most likely to have what in common? |
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Definition
a phospholipid bilayer adn a Cytoplasmic membrane |
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Term
What would be found on the outermost surface of a gram positive Bacterium |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following do gram positive and gram negetive bacteria have in common. |
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Definition
Cell wall is composed of polysacharide backbone with peptide cross links |
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Term
What is most likely to be composed of polysacharides |
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Definition
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Term
The lenght of the DNA amplicon is most likely determined by. |
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Definition
Primers used durign the PCR part of the reaction |
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Term
A pure culture is not required for this type of test |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Is less quantitative than the MIC |
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Term
If a speciment contains a virus rather than a bacteria which of the following aspects of dilution and plating is Diffrent |
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Definition
Dilutions are plated on a monolyaer of cells so the Virus can grow |
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Term
Augmentin is most likely to be effective against a bacterium that |
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Definition
produces a beta lactamase |
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Term
Pulse field gel electrophoriesis of chromosomal DNA differs from PCR amplification and sequencing of RNA genes in that pulsed field gel electrophoriesis |
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Definition
Involves restriction enzyme digestion of the bacterial genome |
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Term
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Definition
Contains a copy of the bacterial genome Contains contents fromt he cytoplasm of the mother cell Is surrounded by a multilayer peptidoglican protein wall Is more resistant to heat and drying than the mother cell |
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Term
A gene fusion differs from a microarray in that in the case of a gene fusion |
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Definition
the activity of an enzyme indicates the level of gene expression |
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Term
In which of the following cases dous DSDNA enter the bacterial cell? |
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Definition
Generalized Phage transduction |
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Term
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Definition
A bacteriophage genome intergrates into the bacterial chromosome |
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Term
What do pilli and flagella have in common |
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Definition
Composed of protein subunits |
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Term
both lipopolysacharides and lipoteichoic acid |
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Definition
Have sugar portions as well asw a lipid portion |
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Term
homologous recombination between incoming DNA and the bacterial chromosome is least likely to be required to maintain new Dna aquired by |
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Definition
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Term
the transcription of multiple bacterial genes is most easily measured by using a |
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Definition
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Term
A scientist adds P32 labeled ATP to a mixture that contains regulatory proteins that respond to a specific signal. Two proteins in that mixture are labeled with the radioactive phosphate. The Bacteria are most likely to be using which of the followign Regulatory strategies to respond to the specific stimulus? |
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Definition
Two component regulatory system. |
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Term
A diffrence between lac Z fusion and RT-PCR is thatRT PCR |
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Definition
Measures the concentration of a particular mRNA rather than an Enzyme activity |
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Term
Bacteria in biofilms are often resistant to antibiotics becuase |
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Definition
Bacteria in the lower levels of the biofilm have a low metabolic activity |
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Term
If you learned that a new virus carries a negetive strand single stranded RNA genome and is not a retrovirus what can you predict? |
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Definition
Has a preformed replicase |
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Term
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Definition
A host protein that stabilizes binding of the virus |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
The western blot test for HIV infection |
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Definition
Detects antibodies to HIV proteins |
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Term
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Definition
THe receptor recognized by an influenza virus envelope protein. |
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