Term
___ is the solvent in which the chemical reactions of living cells take place |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Water is a ___ that can ____ |
|
Definition
small polar molecule; hydrogen bond |
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|
Term
the ability of water to hydrogen bond allows it to ___ and also provides ____. |
|
Definition
maintain its liquid state in the cellular environment; strong cohesive forces between water molecules |
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|
Term
These cohesive forces squeeze _____ away from water |
|
Definition
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|
Term
____ dissolve in water easily because ___ |
|
Definition
hydrophilic; their negatively charged ends attract the the H+ and their positively charged ends attract O- |
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|
Term
Thus water molecules ____ a hydrophilic molecule, thus seperating it from the group |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Most macromolecules of living cells are broken apart via ____, and are formed via ____ |
|
Definition
hydrolysis; dehydration synthesis |
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|
Term
a lipid is any molecule that has ___ |
|
Definition
low solubility in water and high solubility in nonpolar environments. |
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|
Term
lipids make excellent _____ |
|
Definition
barriers separating aqueous environments |
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|
Term
six major groups of lipids |
|
Definition
fatty acids, triglycerides, phospholipids, glycolipids, steroids, and terpenes |
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|
Term
___ are the building blocks for most complex lipids |
|
Definition
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|
Term
fatty acids are long chains of ___ that are truncated at one end by a ____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
saturated fatty acids possess only ___ |
|
Definition
single carbon-carbon bonds |
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|
Term
unsaturated fatty acids contain one or more ___. |
|
Definition
carbon-carbon double bonds |
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|
Term
___ of fatty acids liberates large amounts of chemical energy for a cell |
|
Definition
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|
Term
most fats reach the cell in the form of ____ |
|
Definition
fatty acids, not triacylglycerols |
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|
Term
triglycerides , or simply ___, are constructed from ____, which is attached to ____ |
|
Definition
fats and oils; a three carbon backbone called glycerol; three fatty acids |
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|
Term
the function of triglycerides in a cell is to ____, and may also provide ___ |
|
Definition
store energy; thermal insulation and padding to an organism |
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|
Term
___, also called fat cells, are specialized cells whose cytoplasm contains almost nothing but triglycerides |
|
Definition
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|
Term
phospholipids are built from a ___ backbone, but a ____. This makes the phospholipid ____ |
|
Definition
glycerol backbone; polar phosphate group replaces one of the fatty acids; polar at the phosphate end and nonpolar at the fatty acid end |
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|
Term
The condition of being polar at one end and non-polar at the other is called ___ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
phospholipids are the major component of ____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
glycolipids are similar to ____, except that glycolipids have ____. glycolipids are also ___. They are found in abundance in the ______ |
|
Definition
phospholipids; one or more carbohydrates attached to a three carbon glycerol backbone instead of the phosphate group; amphipathic; membranes of myelinated cells composing the human nervous system |
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|
Term
steroids are ____ structures that include ___,___, and ____ |
|
Definition
four ringed structures; hormones, vitamin D, cholesterol |
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|
Term
terpenes are a sixth class of lipids which include ____, a vitamin important for vision |
|
Definition
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|
Term
since lipids are insoluble in aqueous solution, they are transported in the blood via ___ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
a lipoprotein contains a lipid core surrounded by ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
phospholipids and apoproteins |
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|
Term
functions: 1. phospholipids: 2. triacylglycerols 3. steroids: |
|
Definition
1. serve as a structural component of membranes 2. store metabolic energy, provide thermal insulation and padding 3. regulated metabolic activity |
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|
Term
proteins are built from a chain of ___ linked together by ___ |
|
Definition
amino acids; peptide bonds |
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|
Term
nearly all proteins are built from ____ |
|
Definition
the same 20 alpha amino acids |
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|
Term
in humans, 10 of the amino acids are ___; this means ____ |
|
Definition
essential; the body can't manufacture these so they must be ingested |
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|
Term
the amino acids often differ from each other only in their ____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
the side chain is also attached to the ____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
proteins are sometimes referred to as ____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
the number and sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is called the ____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
once the primary structure is formed, the single chain can ____ or ____ |
|
Definition
twist into an alpha helix, or lie along side itself and form a beta pleated sheet |
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|
Term
with beta pleated sheets, the connecting segments of the two strands of the sheet can lie ___ or ___ |
|
Definition
in the same direction (parallel) or in opposite directions (antiparallel) |
|
|
Term
the alpha helix and beta pleated sheets are the ___, and contribute to the ____ |
|
Definition
secondary structure; conformation of the protein |
|
|
Term
all proteins have a ___ structure and most have a ___ structure. Larger proteins can have a _____ |
|
Definition
primary; secondary; tertiary; quaternary |
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|
Term
the tertiary structure refers to the ___ formed when the ____ |
|
Definition
3-d structure; peptide chain curls and folds |
|
|
Term
five forces that create the tertiary structure: |
|
Definition
1. covalent disulfide bonds between two cysteine amino acids on different parts of the chain. 2. electrostatic interactions between acidic and basic side chains 3. hydrogen bonds 4. van der walls forces 5. hydrophobic side chains pushed towards center by water |
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|
Term
the quaternary structure is formed when ___ |
|
Definition
two or more polypeptide chains bind together |
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|
Term
when the conformation is disrupted, the protein is said to be ___ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
carbohydrates are made from ___ and ___, and have the empirical formula ____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The six carbon carbohydrate ___ is the most commonly occuring six carbon carbohydrate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
constructs bigger molecules from smaller molecules, dehydration synthesis, endergonic (absorbing energy in the form of work), not spontanteous |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
breaks down bigger molecules into small units, hydrolysis,exothermic |
|
|
Term
essentially all digested carbohydrates have been converted to ___ by the ___ |
|
Definition
glucose, liver, enterocytes |
|
|
Term
if a cell has sufficient ATP, glucose is ___,___, or ____ |
|
Definition
polymerized to the polysaccharide, glycogen, or converted to fat |
|
|
Term
large amounts of glycogen are found in _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
nucleotides are composed of three components: |
|
Definition
1. a five carbon sugar 2. a nitrogenous base 3. a phosphate group |
|
|
Term
what are the nitrogenous bases |
|
Definition
adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine, and uracil |
|
|
Term
nucleotides join polymers to create ___ |
|
Definition
nucleic acids, DNA, and RNA |
|
|
Term
in nucleic acids, nucleotides are joined together by ____ |
|
Definition
phosphodiester bonds between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3rd carbon of the pentose of the other nucleotide forming long strands |
|
|
Term
in typical DNA, two strands are joined by ___ to make a structure called a ____ |
|
Definition
hydrogen bonds, double helix |
|
|
Term
Adenine and thymine form _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
guanine and cytosine form ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In typical RNA, there is _____ |
|
Definition
only one strand, no helix is formed, and uracil replaces thymine |
|
|
Term
minerals are ____; they assist in the ____; they can _____; minerals also act as ____ assisting ____; example ____ |
|
Definition
dissolved inorganic ions inside and outside the cell; transport of substances entering and exiting the cell; combine and solidify to give strength to a matrix; cofactors, assisting protein or enzyme function; iron in the heme group |
|
|
Term
4 other important nucleotides |
|
Definition
ATP, cyclic AMP, NADH, FADH2 |
|
|
Term
the source of readily available energy for the cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a important component in many second messenger systems |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
coenzymes involved in the krebs cycle |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Virtually all biological reactions are governed by ____. - few ___ act as ____ -enzymes are typically ___ proteins - the function of any enzyme is to ____ _ enyzmes are not ___, and to not alter the ___ of the reaction |
|
Definition
enzymes - nucleic acids; enzymes - globular - act as a catalyst, lowering the energy of activation for a biological reaction and increasing the rate of that reaction - consumed, equilibrium |
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|
Term
the substrate is the ____ - the position on the enzyme to where the substrate binds, usually with ____, is called the ____ |
|
Definition
reactant or reactants upon which an enzyme works. -noncovalent bonds, active site |
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|
Term
the enzyme bound to a substrate is called the ____ - the ___ binds to the ___ |
|
Definition
enzyme-substrate complex - substrate, enzymes active site |
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|
Term
normally, enzymes are designed to work on ___, this is called ____ |
|
Definition
only a specific substrate or group of closely related substances, enzyme specificity |
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|
Term
enzymes exhibit saturation kinetics, explain |
|
Definition
as the rate of the substrate increases, the reaction rate increases. However, once the max reaction rate is achieved (ie all enzymes are being used), the rate cant increases further. |
|
|
Term
how do temp and pH affect enzymatic reactions. |
|
Definition
rate increases as temp and pH increases, however once temp and pH go past a certain point the proteins and enzymes start to denature and reaction rate decreases |
|
|
Term
in order to reach their optimal activity, many enzymes require a non-protein component called a ____ - they can be ___ or ___ |
|
Definition
co-factor - coenzymes or metal ions |
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|
Term
many coenzymes are ___ - an enzyme with its cofactor is called a ___ |
|
Definition
vitamins or their derivatives - holoenzyme |
|
|
Term
agents which bind covalently, sometimes noncovalently, to enzymes and disrupt their function are ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1.competitive inhibitors:___ 2. noncompetitive inhibitors:___ |
|
Definition
1.compete with the substrate by binding reversibly with noncovalent bonds to the active site. 2. bind noncovalently to an enzyme at a spot other than the active site and change the conformation of the active site. |
|
|
Term
many enzymes are released into their environment in an inactive form called a ___ or ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
allosteric interactions: ___ |
|
Definition
allosteric regulation is the modification of the enzyme configuration resulting from the binding of an activator or inhibitor as a specific binding site on the enzyme |
|
|
Term
normally an enzyme governs ____ - if one of the products downstream in a reaction series comes back and inhibits the enzymatic activity in an early reaction, this is known as ___ -___ happens when the product returns to active the enzyme |
|
Definition
just one reaction in a series of reactions - negative feedback or feedback inhibition -positive feedback |
|
|
Term
feedback inhibitors do not ____, instead they ____, this is called ____ |
|
Definition
resemble the substrates of the enzymes that they inhibit; they bind to the enzyme and cause a conformational change; allosteric regulation (not necessarily noncompetitive inhibitors) |
|
|
Term
___: all cellular chemical reactions ___: molecular synthesis ___: molecular degradation |
|
Definition
metabolism anabolism catabolism |
|
|
Term
if ___ is used, respiration is ___, if it is not used the respiration is ___ |
|
Definition
oxygen, aerobic, anaerobic |
|
|
Term
___: is respiration in which oxygen is not required |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
glycolysis is the ___ of ___ |
|
Definition
first stage of anaerobic and aerobic respiration |
|
|
Term
glycolysis is the series of reactions that ____ |
|
Definition
breaks a 6 carbon glucose molecule into two 3 carbon molecules of pyruvate |
|
|
Term
____ are capable of breaking down glucose to pyruvate |
|
Definition
all living cells and organisms |
|
|
Term
Does glycolysis require oxygen? Where does glycolysis occure? |
|
Definition
glycolysis will operate in both the presence and absence of oxygen; the reactions of glycolysis occur in the cytosol of living cells |
|
|
Term
substrate level phosphorylation is the ____ |
|
Definition
formation of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate using the energy released from the decay of high energy phosphorylated compounds as opposed to using the energy from diffusion |
|
|
Term
The products of carbohydrate digestion in the alimentary tract are approximately ____ |
|
Definition
80% glucsoe and 20% fructose which are both monosaccharides |
|
|
Term
fermentation is a form of ____ -it includes the process of ____ --yeast and some microorganisms make ___ -- human muscle cells and some microorganisms produce ___ |
|
Definition
anaerobic respiration - glycolysis, the reproduction of pyruvate to ethanol or lactic acid, and the oxidation of NADH back to NAD+ --ethanol --lactic acid |
|
|
Term
fermentation takes place when ___ In fermentation, the NAD+ is ___ |
|
Definition
a cell or organism is either unable to assimilate the energy from NADH and pyruvate, or has no oxygen available to do so; is restored for use in its role in glycolysis as a coenzyme, and the lactic acid or ethanol is expelled from the cell along with carbon dioxide as a waste product |
|
|
Term
glycolysis has a net production of ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What will happen when a certain enzyme is inhibited by a poison? |
|
Definition
The poison will create a build up of reactants and a dramatic reduction of products at the reaction that the enzyme governs. |
|
|
Term
fermentation recycles ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
aerobic respiration requires ___ - the products of glycolysis move into the ____ - once inside, the pyruvate is converted to ___ in a reaction that produces ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
oxygen - matrix of mitochondrion - acetyl CoA, CO2, NADH |
|
|
Term
___ is a coenzyme which transfers two carbons to the ___ to begin the ___ |
|
Definition
Acetyl CoA; 4 carbon oxaloacetic acid; Krebs cycle |
|
|
Term
Each turn of the Krebs cycle produces __ - The process of ATP formation in the Krebs cycle is by ___ |
|
Definition
1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2 - substrate level phosphorylation |
|
|
Term
The electron transport chain is a ____ |
|
Definition
series of proteins, including cytochromes with heme, located in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion |
|
|
Term
The electron transport chain creates ATP through ___ |
|
Definition
oxidative phosphorylation |
|
|
Term
aerobic respiration produces about ____ ATP |
|
Definition
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|
Term
a gene is a ___ that generally codes ___ |
|
Definition
series of DNA nucleotides; for the production of a single polypeptide or mRNA, rRNA, or tRNA. |
|
|
Term
generally one gene = ____ - exception is ___ |
|
Definition
one polypeptide - postrancscipional processing RNA |
|
|
Term
how do eukaryotes and prokaryotes differ in genes |
|
Definition
eukaryotes have more than one copy of some genes, while prokaryotes have only one copy of each gene |
|
|
Term
genes are often referred to as ___ -while regions of non-coding DNA found only in eukaryotes are called ____ -eukaryotic genes that are being actively transcribed by a cell are associated with regions of DNA called __ -while genes not being actively transcribed are associated with tightly packed regions of DNA called ___ |
|
Definition
unique sequence DNA -repetitive sequence DNA -euchromatin -heterochromatin |
|
|
Term
even in eukaryotes, ___ dominated - ___ is found mainly in heterochromatin |
|
Definition
unique sequence DNA -repetitive sequence DNA |
|
|
Term
the entire DNA sequence of an organism is called the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the central dogma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is a polymer of nucleotides -They differ from each other only in their ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the four nitrogenous bases are |
|
Definition
adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine |
|
|
Term
adenine and guanine are ____ |
|
Definition
two ringed structures called purines |
|
|
Term
cytosine and thymine are ___ |
|
Definition
single ring structures called pyrimidines |
|
|
Term
each nucleotide is bound to the next by a ___ - this creates the |
|
Definition
phosphodiester bond between the third carbon of one deoxyribose and the fifth carbon of the other - 5 prime to 3 prime directionality |
|
|
Term
the end 3 prime carbon is attached to ___; and the end 5 prime carbon is attached to a ___ |
|
Definition
an oh group; phosphate group |
|
|
Term
purines: pyrimidines: hydrogen bonds: |
|
Definition
adenine, guanine cytosine, thymine, uracil A2T, C3G |
|
|
Term
the two DNA strands lie ____ |
|
Definition
side by side in opposite 3 to 5 directions, anti-parallel, connected by hydrogen bonds |
|
|
Term
two strands that have the bases match up correctly are called ___, and curl into a ___ |
|
Definition
complimentary strands; double helix |
|
|
Term
DNA replication is said to be ___ because ___ |
|
Definition
semi-conservative; because the new strand contains one parental strand and one daughter strand |
|
|
Term
The process of DNA replication is governed by a group of proteins called a ___. - where does replication begin? |
|
Definition
replisome -replication does not begin as the end of a chromosome, but toward the middle as a site called the origin of replication |
|
|
Term
a single eukaryotic chromosome contains ___ on each chromosome, while replication in prokaryotes usually takes place ___ |
|
Definition
multiple origins of replication; for a single origin on the circular chromosome |
|
|
Term
from the origin, ____ - the point where the replisome is attached to the chromosome is called the ___ - each chromosome of eukaryotic DNA is replicated in many discrete segments called _____ |
|
Definition
two replisomes proceed in opposite directions along the chromosome making replication a bidirectional process. -replication fork -replication units or replicons |
|
|
Term
___: unwinds the double helix separating the two strands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the enzyme that builds the new DNA strand, cannot initiate a strand from two nucleotides, but can only add nucleotides to an existing strand |
|
|
Term
primase:___ - what happens after primase? |
|
Definition
an RNA polymerase, creates an RNA primer approximately 10 ribonucleotides long to initiate the strand - DNA polymerase adds deoxynucleotides to the primer and moves along each DNA strand creating a new complimentary strand |
|
|
Term
DNA polymerase reads the parental strand in the ___ direction, creating the new complimentary strand in the ___ direction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
each nucleotide added to the new strand requires the removal of a ____ from a ___ |
|
Definition
pyrophosphate group (two phosphates bonded together); deoxynucleotide triphosphate |
|
|
Term
replication proceeds in ____, each section produces a ____ |
|
Definition
both directions from the origin; leading and lagging strand |
|
|
Term
the leading and lagging strands are produced in the ___ direction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
DNA polymerase reads the parental strand in the ___ direction and creates the daughter strand in the ___ direction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The polymerization of the new strand that is continuously interrupted and restarted with a new primer, the strand is called the ____ and made from a series of disconnected strands called ____; the continuous new strand is called the ____ |
|
Definition
lagging strand; okazaki fragments; leading strand |
|
|
Term
____ moves along the lagging strand and ties the okazaki fragments together to complete the polymer. since the formation of one strand is continuous and the other fragmented, the process of replication is said to be ___ |
|
Definition
DNA ligase; semidiscontinuous |
|
|
Term
How accurate is DNA replication in eukaryotes? |
|
Definition
very accurate; exonuclease in DNA polymerase proofreads the new strands |
|
|
Term
The ends of eukaryotic chromosomal DNA possess ____, which are repeated six nucleotide units that protect the chromosomes from being eroded through repeated rounds of replication. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. helicase unzips the double helix 2. RNA polymerase builds a primer 3. DNA polymerase assembles the leading and lagging strands 4. the primers are removed 5. okazaki fragments are joined |
|
|
Term
DNA replication is ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
list the differences between DNA and RNA |
|
Definition
1. DNA is made from deoxyribose and RNA is made from ribose 2. DNA is double stranded and RNA is single stranded 3. DNA has thymine, RNA has uracil 4. DNA is produced by replication and RNA is produced by transcription 5. in animals, DNA is only in the nucleus and mitochondrial matrix; RNA is also in the cytosol 6. there is one major type of DNA; there are three major types of RNA |
|
|
Term
unlike DNA, RNA can move ___ |
|
Definition
through the nuclear pores and is not confined to the nucleus |
|
|
Term
what are the three types of RNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ delivers the DNA code for amino acids to the ___ where proteins are manufactured |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ combines with proteins to form ___, and ___ is synthesized in the ___ |
|
Definition
rRNA; ribosomes; rRNA; nucleolus |
|
|
Term
___ collects amino acids in the cytosol, and transfers them to the ribosomes for incorporation into a protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ are the cellular complexes that direct the synthesis of proteins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
all RNA is manufactured from a ___ in a process called ___ |
|
Definition
DNA template; transcription |
|
|
Term
since DNA ____, eukaryotic transcription must take place only in these two places |
|
Definition
cannot leave the nucleus or the mitochondrial matrix |
|
|
Term
the beginning of transcription is called ___; this happens when ___ |
|
Definition
initiation; a group of proteins called initiation factors find a promotor on the DNA strand, and assembles a transcription initiation complex which includes RNA polymerase |
|
|
Term
prokaryotes have ___, whereas eukaryotes have ___ |
|
Definition
one type of RNA polymerase; 3 types, one for each type of RNA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
sequence of DNA nucleotides that designates a beginning point for transcription |
|
|
Term
transcription requires a ___, whereas replication requires a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a promoter ____; a primer ____ |
|
Definition
is a spot on the DNA that tells RNA polymerase where to begin; is a short piece of RNA that jump starts replication |
|
|
Term
after binding to the promoter, _____ |
|
Definition
RNA polymerase unzips the DNA double helix and switches to elongation mode |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
RNA polymerase transcribes only one strand of the DNA nucleotide sequence into a complimentary RNA nucleotide sequence |
|
|
Term
how does RNA polymerase move? |
|
Definition
reads the DNA in the 3 to 5 direction and builds the RNA strand in the 5 to 3 direction |
|
|
Term
how does transcription proceed? |
|
Definition
about ten times more slowly than DNA replication and RNA polymerase does not contain a proofreading mechanism so the rate or error is higher than replication |
|
|
Term
the end of transcription is called ____, and requires a special ____ |
|
Definition
termination; termination sequence and special proteins to dissociate RNA polymerase from DNA. |
|
|
Term
most genetic regulation occurs at ___ where ___ |
|
Definition
transcription; regulatory proteins bind DNA and activate or inhibit its transcription |
|
|
Term
post transcriptional processing of RNA occurs in ____ |
|
Definition
both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells |
|
|
Term
in prokaryotes, ___ goes through post transcriptional processing. While in eukaryotes _____ |
|
Definition
rRNA and tRNA. each type of RNA undergoes posttranscriptional processing which allows for additional gene regulation |
|
|
Term
The initial mRNA nucleotide sequence arrived at through transcription is called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary transcript is modified in three ways |
|
Definition
1) addition of nucleotides 2) deletion of nucleotides 3) modification of nitrogenous bases |
|
|
Term
before leaving the nucleus, the primary transcript is cleaved into ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The introns are ___ and the exons are ___ |
|
Definition
then excised by the splicesomes; spliced together to form the single mRNA code that ultimately codes for the polypeptide |
|
|
Term
remember that introns ___ and exons ___ |
|
Definition
remain in the nucleus; exit the nucleus to be translated |
|
|
Term
most of a typical gene consists of ____ |
|
Definition
introns removed by snRNP's in the nucleus |
|
|
Term
to denature DNA means to ____ |
|
Definition
seperate the two strands of the double helix |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
double stranded and will look for a complimentary partner |
|
|
Term
what following double stranded combinations can be formed through nucleic acid hybridization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
digest/cut nucleic acid only at certain nucleotide sequences along the chain |
|
|
Term
typically a restriction site will be a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
recombinant DNA can be made long enough for bacteria to replicate and then placed within the bacteria using a ___, typically a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ is just DNA reverse transcribed from mRNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is a fast way to clone DNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a ___ identifies specific sequences of DNA by nucleic acid hybridization, and a ___ uses the same techniques to identify specific sequences of RNA |
|
Definition
southern blot; northern blot |
|
|
Term
the 5 step recipe for southern blot is ___ |
|
Definition
1. chop up some DNA 2. use an electric field to spread out particles according to size 3. blot it onto a membrane 4. add a radioactive probe made from DNA or RNA 5. visualize with radiographic film |
|
|
Term
the western blot is the one that detects a ___ with ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
mRNA nucleotides are strung together to form a ___ which translates the DNA nucleotide sequence into an amino acid sequence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the fact that more than one series of three nucleotides may code for any amino acid, the code is ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
any single series of three nucleotides will code for one and only one amino acids, the code is ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the start codon and the stop codons |
|
Definition
start:AUG stop: UGA, UAA,UAG |
|
|
Term
___ is the process of protein synthesis directed by mRNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ makes up the ribosome ___ contains the anti codons ___ is the template which carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the cytosol in the form of codons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the ribosome is composed of a ___ and a ___ |
|
Definition
small subunit and a large subunit |
|
|
Term
the complex structure of ribosomes requires a special organelle called the ___ in which to manufacture them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ do not possess a ___ but synthesis is similar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the processes of translation |
|
Definition
1. initiation: start codon reached, small subunit joins large subunit 2. elongation: polypeptide formation begins 3. termination: stop codon reached |
|
|
Term
in an elongation step called ___, codons are shifted |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in ___, sugars, lipids, or phosphate groups may be added to amino acids |
|
Definition
post-translational modifications |
|
|
Term
mutations are ___; mutations in ___ are not passed to offspring; mutations in ___ are. |
|
Definition
rare; somatic cells; germ cells |
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|
Term
any alteration in the genome that is not genetic recombination is called a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a ___ is the alteration in the sequence of DNA nucleotides in a single gene. A ___ occurs when the structure of the chromosome is changes |
|
Definition
gene mutation; chromosomal mutation |
|
|
Term
in animals, DNA is found only in the ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
the sections of DNA that are not in uses are wrapped tightly around globular proteins called ___, eight histone wrapped in DNA form a ___. The entire DNA/protein complex is called ___ |
|
Definition
histone; nucleosome; chromatin |
|
|
Term
how many chromosomes do humans have? in humans each chromosome possesses a partner that codes for the same trait, two such chromosomes are called ___. Any cell that contains homologous pairs is said to be ___, and any cell that does not contain homologues is ___ |
|
Definition
46 chromosomes; homologues; diploid; haploid |
|
|
Term
what are the stages in the life cycle of a cell? |
|
Definition
1. first growth phase (G1) 2. synthesis (S) 3. second growth phase (G2) 4. mitosis or meiosis (M) and Cytokinesis (C) |
|
|
Term
___ is nuclear division without genetic change |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the stages of mitosis |
|
Definition
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. condensation of chromatin into chromosomes. 2.centrioles move to opposite ends of cells 3. spindle apparatus begins to form |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
chromosomes align along the center of the cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. sister chromatids split at their attaching centromeres. 2. chromatids move towards opposite ends of cells 3. cytokinesis, the separation of the cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. nuclear membrane reforms 2. followed by reformation of the nucleus 3. chromosomes decondens and cytokinesis continues |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
genetically identical daughter cells |
|
|
Term
meiosis is a double nuclear division which produces ____. In humans, only ___ and the ___ undergo meiosis. all other cells are ___ and undergo ___ only |
|
Definition
four haploid gametes (also called germ cells). spermatogonium, oogonium. somatic cells; mitosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
meiosis is two rounds of division called meiosis I and meiosis II |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
homologous chromosomes line up along side each other, matching genes exactly. At this time crossing over may occur |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the homologues remain attached, and move to the metaphase plate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
seperates the homologues from their partners |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
in humans the nuclear membrane reforms and cytokinesis occurs, the new cells are haploid |
|
|
Term
meiosis I is ___ division |
|
Definition
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|
Term
___ are infectious agents, much smaller than bacteria |
|
Definition
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|
Term
in its most basic form, a virus consists of a ___, called a ___, and one to several hundred genes ____ |
|
Definition
protein coat; capsid; in the form of DNA or RNA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most animal viruses, some plant viruses, and very few bacterial viruses surround themselves with a ____ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
the envelope typically contains some ___ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
a mature virus outside the host cell is called a ___. all organisms experience ___ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
viruses are not ____. why? |
|
Definition
currently classified as living organisms. they require the host cell's machinery to reproduce, viruses do not metabolize organic nutrients, instead they use ATP from the host cell |
|
|
Term
the receptor on the host that a virus usually attaches to is usually a ____ |
|
Definition
specific glycoprotein on the host cell membrane, the virus cannot attack the cell if the specific receptor is not available.a |
|
|
Term
___ is a virus that infects bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most viruses that infect eukaryotes are engulfed by a ____ process |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
explain what happens in a lytic infection? |
|
Definition
the virus commandeers the cell's reproductive machinery and begins reproducting new viruses. There is a brief period before the first fully formed virion appears called the eclipse period. The cell may fill with new viruses until it lyses or bursts, or it may release the viruses one at a time. |
|
|
Term
In a lytic infection, the period from infection to lysis is called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A virus following a lytic cycle is called a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what happens in a lysogenic infection? |
|
Definition
The viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome, or if the virus is an RNA virus and possesses the enzyme reverse transcriptase, DNA is actually reverse transcribed from RNA and then incorporated into the host cell genome. When the host cell replicates its DNA, the viral DNA is replicated as well. |
|
|
Term
A virus in a lysogenic cycle is called a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A host cell infected with a temperate virus may show ___. While the viral DNA remains incorporated into the host DNA, the virus is said to be ____ |
|
Definition
no symptoms of infection; dormant or latent, and is called a provirus (prophage in bacterium) |
|
|
Term
The dormant virus may become active when ___ |
|
Definition
the host cell is under some type of stress |
|
|
Term
a virus with ___ is responsible for the common cold, which means ____ |
|
Definition
unenveloped plus-strand RNA; not all animal viruses are enveloped |
|
|
Term
a ___ can be either an injection of antibodies or an injection of a non-pathogenic virus with the same capsid or envelope |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prokaryotes do not have a ___ or ___ |
|
Definition
membrane bound nucleus; complex membrane bound organelles |
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|
Term
Prokaryotes are split into what two domains? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
___ have as much in common with eukaryotes as they do with bacteria and are usually found in extreme environments |
|
Definition
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|
Term
most know prokaryotes are members of the domain ___ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
unlike bacteria, the cell walls of archea are not made from ___ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
___ are organisms that are capable of using CO2 as their sole source of carbon |
|
Definition
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|
Term
___ is an organism that cannot synthesize its own food and is dependent on complex organic substances for nutrition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
all organisms acquire energy from one of what two sources: |
|
Definition
1. light 2. oxidation of organic or inorganic matter |
|
|
Term
organisms that use light as their energy source are called ____; those that use oxidation of organic or inorganic matter are called ___ |
|
Definition
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|
Term
electrons or hydrogens can be acquired from inorganic matter by ___; or organic matter by ___ |
|
Definition
lithotrophs; organotrophs |
|
|
Term
The structure that replaces the nucleus in prokaryotes is called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the major shapes of bacteria? |
|
Definition
cocci=round bacilli=rod shaped spirilla=helically shaped rigid |
|
|
Term
the cytosol of nearly all prokaryotes is surrounded by a phospholipid bilayer called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The phospholipid bilayer is often composed of ____ |
|
Definition
a phosphate group, two fatty acid chains, and a glycerol backbone |
|
|
Term
The phosphate group is ___, while the fatty acid chains are ___, making the molecule ___ |
|
Definition
polar; nonpolar; amphipathic |
|
|
Term
when placed in an aqueous solution, amphipathic molecules ____ |
|
Definition
spontaneously aggregate, turning their polar ends toward the solution and their nonpolar ends toward each other. |
|
|
Term
___ are also embedded within the plasma membrane and act as ___ |
|
Definition
proteins; transporters, receptors, attachment sites, and enzymes |
|
|
Term
amphipathic proteins that transverse the membrane from the inside of the cell to the outside are called ___. ___ are situated entirely on the surface of the membrane |
|
Definition
intrinsic or integral proteins; peripheral or extrinsic proteins |
|
|
Term
integral or extrinsic proteins may contain carbohydrate chains making them ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the model of the plasma membrane is known as the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
all molecules move rapidly in random directions frequently colliding with one another, this random movement is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two aspects of a compound that affect its semipermeability? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When proteins assist molecules in moving through the membrane because they are to large or to polar, these proteins are called ___ |
|
Definition
transport or carrier proteins |
|
|
Term
the type of movement that involves transport proteins is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
facilitated diffusion is said to make the plasma membrane ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
movement of a substance against its electrochemical gradient requires ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bacterial plasma membrane and everything inside it is called the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
surrounding the protoplast is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the component of the envelope, adjacent to the plasma membrane is the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most bacteria are ___ to their environment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____= more particles in bacteria cytosol than fluid surrounding them ___= cytosol equals amount of particles ___= cytosol contains less particles |
|
Definition
hypertonic, isotonic, hypotonic |
|
|
Term
the bacterial cell wall is made of ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a gram positive bacteria ____ |
|
Definition
stains purple, thick peptidoglycan cell wall |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
stains pink, have a thin peptidoglycan cell wall |
|
|
Term
bacterial ___ are long, hollow, rigid, helical cylinders made from a globular protein called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
eukaryotic flagella are composed of ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
bacteria do not undergo ___, and cannot ____ |
|
Definition
mitosis or meiosis; reproduce sexually |
|
|
Term
3 alternative forms of bacterial genetic recombination |
|
Definition
conjugation, transformation, transduction |
|
|
Term
bacteria are also capable of undergoing a type of cell division called ___, which is a type of asexual reproduction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
two genetically identical daughter cells with one circular chromosome in each daugher cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
one of the bacterium have a plasmid with the gene that codes for the sex pilus. The bacteria with the F plasmid (fertility factor) is the F+, and the one without is the F-. |
|
|
Term
Transformation is the process by which ___ |
|
Definition
bacteria may incorporate DNA from their external environment into their genome |
|
|
Term
transduction is the process by which ___ |
|
Definition
DNA is transferred by one bacterium to another by a virus |
|
|
Term
fungi are ___, and spend most of their time in a ___, and can reproduce ___ |
|
Definition
eukaryotic heterotrophs; haploid state; either sexually or asexually |
|
|
Term
The major feature distinguishing eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells is the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
only ___ have nuclei. ___ cannot leave the cell, therefore ___ must take place in the nucleus. ___ leaves the nucleus through nuclear pores |
|
Definition
eukaryotes; DNA; transcription; RNA |
|
|
Term
the aqueous soup inside the nucleous is called the ___. The nucleus is wrapped in a ___ |
|
Definition
nucleoplasm; double phospholipid bilayer called the nuclear envelope/membrane |
|
|
Term
The nuclear envelope is perforated with large holes called ___. Within the nucleus is an area called the ___ where rRNA is transcribed and the subunits of the ribosomes are assembled |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
besides transport across the membrane, cells can aquire substances from the extracellular environment through ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
phagocytosis and pinocytosis |
|
|
Term
in phagocytosis the cell ___, while in pinocytosis the cell ___ |
|
Definition
takes up solid substances; take up liquid |
|
|
Term
___ is simply a reverse of endocytosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the eukaryotic cell contains a thick maze of membranous walls called the ___ separating the ___ from the ___ |
|
Definition
ER; cytosol from the ER lumen/cisternal space |
|
|
Term
ER near the nucleus that has many ribosomes attached to it is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
proteins synthesized on the rough ER are pushed into the ___ and sent to the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the cell can be divided into the ____ and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in order to reach the cytosol, a substance must cross the membrane by ___, but it can reach the ER lumen via ___ without ever transporting across the membrane |
|
Definition
passive or facilitated diffusion or active transport; endocytosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
modifies and packages proteins for use in other part of the cell and outside the cell |
|
|
Term
lysosome contain ____. lysosomes come from the ___ |
|
Definition
hydrolytic enzymes that digest substances taken in by endocytosis. come from the golgi |
|
|
Term
endoplasmic reticulum which lacks ribosomes is called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The smooth ER is the site of ____ |
|
Definition
lipid synthesis including steroids. The smooth ER also helps to detoxify some things. |
|
|
Term
The structure and motility of a cell is determined by a network of filaments known as the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
two major types of filaments in the cytoskeleton are ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
microfilaments and microtrubules |
|
|
Term
microtubules are ___ than microfilaments. They are ____ made from a protein called ___ |
|
Definition
larger; rigid hollow tubes; tubulin |
|
|
Term
The ___ is made from microtubules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ and ___ are specialized structures also made from microtubules. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The major portion of each flagellum and cilium is called the ___, and contains nine pair of microtubules forming a circle around two lone microtubules in an arrangement known as ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The major microtubule organizing center in animal cells is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
eukaryotic flagella are made from a ___ microtubule configuration. a prokaryotic flagellum is a ___. Eukaryotic flagella undergo a ___ action, while prokaryotic flagella ___ |
|
Definition
9+2; thin strand of a single protein called a flagellin; whip like action; rotate |
|
|
Term
microfilaments are ___ than microtubules. The protein ___ forms a major component of microfilaments. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ form a watertight seal from cell to cell that can block water, ions, and other molecules from moving around and past cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ join two cells at a single point |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ are small tunnels connecting cells, that allow small molecules and ions to move between cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
remember the three types of cellular junctions. ___ act as a fluid barrier around cells. ___ are like spot welds holding cells together. ___ are tunnels between cells allowing for the exchange of small molecules |
|
Definition
tight junctions; desmosomes; gap junctions |
|
|
Term
___ are the powerhouses of the eukaryotic cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
According to the ___, mitochondria may have evolved from a symbiotic relationship between ancient prokaryotes and eukaryotes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
mitochondria are surrounded by ___ |
|
Definition
two phospholipid bilayers |
|
|
Term
The ___ of the mitochondria invaginates to form ___. it also holds the ___ |
|
Definition
inner membrane; cristae; electron transport chain |
|
|
Term
between the inner and outer membrane of the mitochondria, there is the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the four basic tissue types in animals |
|
Definition
nervous, muscle, epithelial, connective |
|
|
Term
Three classes of molecules that make up animal cell matrices |
|
Definition
1. glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans 2. structural proteins 3. adhesive proteins |
|
|
Term
intercellular communication is accomplished chemically via what three types of molecules |
|
Definition
1. neurotransmitters 2. local mediators 3. hormones |
|
|
Term
___ travel over very short intercellular gaps; ___ function in the immediate area around the cell from which they were released; ___ travel throughout the organism via the blood stream. |
|
Definition
neurotransmitters; local mediators; hormones |
|
|
Term
neurotransmitters are released by ___. neuronal communication tends to be __,___, and ___ |
|
Definition
neurons; rapid, direct, specific |
|
|
Term
hormonal communication tends to be ___, ___, ___ |
|
Definition
slower, spread throughout the body, and affect many cells and tissues in many different ways. |
|
|
Term
local mediators are released by a variety of cells into the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The functional unit of the nervous system is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ___ of the neuron receive a signal to be transmitted |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
typically the ___ of the cell body is highly conductive and any electrical stimulus creates a disturbance in the electric field that is transferred immediately to the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ___ generates an action potential in all directions, including down the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in a neuron the signal travels from the ___ to the ___, where an ap is generated, and moves down the ___ to the ___ |
|
Definition
dendrites; axon hillock; axon; synapse |
|
|
Term
neurons do not depend on ___ to obtain glucose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ___ is a disturbance in the electric field across the membrane of a neuron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the resting potential is established by equilibrium between ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
passive diffusion of ions across the membrane and the Na/K pump |
|
|
Term
the Na+/K+ pump, pumps ____ |
|
Definition
3 Na out for every 2 K in |
|
|
Term
what happens during depolarization |
|
Definition
stimulus depolarizes the membrane by acting on chemically gated sodium channels, resulting in Na moving into the cell making the cell more + |
|
|
Term
what happens during repolarization? |
|
Definition
voltage gated sodium channels close; voltage gated potassium channels open and leads to repolarization |
|
|
Term
what happens during hyperpolarization? |
|
Definition
potassium channels are slow to close, so for a brief time the inside membrane is even more negative than resting potential |
|
|
Term
___ returns the membrane to its resting potential |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
at rest the inside of the cell is ___ than the outside |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
an action potential is ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the stimulus to the membrane must be greater than the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
once an action potential has begun, there is a short period of time called the ___ in which no stimulus will create another action potential. The ___ gives the time during which only an abnormally large stimulus will create an action potential |
|
Definition
absolute refractory period; relative refractory period |
|
|
Term
neural impulses are transmitted from one cell to another chemically or electronically via a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ are uncommon, they are composed of ____ |
|
Definition
electrical synapses; gap junctions betweeen cells |
|
|
Term
___,___, ____ contain electrical synapses |
|
Definition
cardiac muscle, visceral smooth muscle, and a very few neurons in the central nervous system |
|
|
Term
since they don't involve diffusion of chemicals, electrical synapses are ___ than chemical synapses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 possible neuronal structures |
|
Definition
unipolar, bipolar, multi polar |
|
|
Term
unipolar: bipolar: multipolar: |
|
Definition
unipolar: sensory only bipolar: retina, inner ear, olfactory area of the brain multipolar: most neurons of the brain |
|
|
Term
chemical synapses are ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the sudden influx of calcium ions causes some of the neurotransmitter vesicles to be released through an exocytotic process into the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
receptors may be ion channels themselves, which are opened when their respective neurotransmitter attaches, or they may act via a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
besides neurons, nervous tissue contains may support cells called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
only vertebrates have ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in the peripheral nervous system, myelin is produced by ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
myelin increases the rate at which ____ |
|
Definition
an axon can transmit signals |
|
|
Term
to the naked eye, myelinated cells appear ___, while neuronal cells appear ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the gaps between myelin are called ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the movement of the ap from one node of ranvier to the next is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ receives signals from a receptor cell, and transmits this info to the brain |
|
Definition
sensory (afferent neurons) |
|
|
Term
___ transfers signals from neuron to neuron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ carries signals to muscles or glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
neuron processes are typically bundled together to form ____ |
|
Definition
nerves (called tracts in the CNS) |
|
|
Term
The central nervous system consists of ___ |
|
Definition
the brain and spinal cord, lots of interneurons |
|
|
Term
The Peripheral nervous system heads the ___ and ___ functions of the nervous system. can be divided into the ___ or ___. |
|
Definition
sensory and motor functions; somatic and autonomic |
|
|
Term
the somatic system can be divided into: The autonomic can be divided into: |
|
Definition
sensory and motor; sympathetic and parasympathetic |
|
|
Term
acetylcholine is used by: |
|
Definition
all preganglionic neurons in the ANS and postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic. |
|
|
Term
epi and norepi are used by: |
|
Definition
the postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
the receptors for epi and norepi are called ____. the receptors for ach are called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the lower brain consists of the: |
|
Definition
medulla, pons, mesencephalon, hypothalamus, thalamus, cerebellum, and basal ganglia |
|
|
Term
the higher brain consists of the: |
|
Definition
cerebrum or cerebral cortex |
|
|
Term
5 types of sensory receptors |
|
Definition
mechanoreceptors for touch thermoreceptors for temp change nociceptors for pain electromagnetic receptors for light chemoreceptors for taste, smell, and blood chemistry |
|
|
Term
The lens of the eye is a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what three small bones are in the middle ear |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in the ear, the ___ detects sound, while the ___ detects orientation and movement of the head |
|
Definition
cochlea; semicircular canals |
|
|
Term
what are the four primary taste sensations |
|
Definition
bitter, sour, salty, sweet |
|
|
Term
The difference between endocrine and exocrine glands is that ____ |
|
Definition
endocrine glands release hormones directly into body fluids. Exocrine glands release enzymes to the external environment through ducts |
|
|
Term
exocrine glands include ____ |
|
Definition
sweat, sebaceous, mucous, and digestive |
|
|
Term
The ___ acts as both an endocrine and exocrine gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The effects of the endocrine system tend to be ____ |
|
Definition
slower, less direct, and longer lasting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
binding to proteins called receptors |
|
|
Term
hormones exist in three basic types |
|
Definition
peptide hormones, steroid hormones, and tyrosine derivatives |
|
|
Term
since peptides are proteins, ____ |
|
Definition
they can't diffuse through the membrane, so they bind to receptors on the membrane and act through a second messenger |
|
|
Term
The peptide hormones you must know for the MCAT are: |
|
Definition
The anterior pituitary hormones: FH, LH, ACTH, hGH, TSH, and prolactin The posterior pituitary hormones: ADH and oxytocin The parathyroid hormone: PTH The pancreatic hormones: glucagon and insulin |
|
|
Term
since steroid hormones are lipids, they ___ |
|
Definition
diffuse through the membrane and act in the nucleus |
|
|
Term
the important steroid hormones for the MCAT are: |
|
Definition
adrenal cortex: cortisol and aldosterone gonadal hormones: estrogen, progesterone, testosterone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
thyroid hormones diffuse into nucleus, and catecholamines act on receptors on the membrane |
|
|
Term
The important tyrosine derivatives are: |
|
Definition
thyroid hormones: T3, T4, catecholamines formed in adrenal cortex: epi and norepi |
|
|
Term
a high ADH increases ___ and decreases ___ |
|
Definition
water reabsorption and blood pressure; water excretion |
|
|
Term
The anterior pituitary is located in the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The anterior pituitary secretes what 6 peptide hormones: |
|
Definition
1.hGH 2. adrenocorticotropin 3. thyroid stimulating hormone 4. follicle stimulating hormone 5. leutinizing hormone 6. prolactin |
|
|
Term
___ stimulates growth in almost all cells of the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids via the second messenger system using cAMP. stress can cause release |
|
Definition
adrenocorticotropic hormone |
|
|
Term
___ stimulates the thyroid to release T3 and T4 via camp |
|
Definition
thyroid stimulating hormone |
|
|
Term
___ promotes lactation by the breasts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ___, aka ___, extends from the hypothalamus |
|
Definition
posterior pituitary; neurohypophysis |
|
|
Term
the posterior pituitary secretes what two hormones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ increases uterine contractions during pregnancy and causes milk to be ejected from the breasts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ increases water reabsorption and decreases water excretion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The adrenal cortex secretes what two hormones: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The adrenal medulla secretes what two: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ increases Na+ reabsorption and H and K secretion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glucogenesis in the liver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
is the creation of glucose and glycogen, mainly in the liver |
|
|
Term
The general effect of T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (throxine) is to ___ |
|
Definition
increase the basal metabolic rate |
|
|
Term
___ is releases by the thyroid gland and decreases blood calcium by decreasing osteoclast activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the thyroid secretes ___ The parathyroid secretes ___ The pancreas secretes ___ |
|
Definition
T3, T4, calcitonin PTH insulin and glucagon |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
secreted by beta cells, associated with high energy abundance, lowers blood glucose levels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
peptide, release by alpha cells, stimulates glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis in liver, net effect is to raise blood glucose levels |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the breakdown of glycogen |
|
|
Term
___ is a peptide that increases blood calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
production of sperm occurs in the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
sertoli cells, stimulated by ___, surround and nurture the sermatocyte and spermatids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
leydig cells release ___ when stimulated by ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
testosterone is the primary ____ |
|
Definition
androgen (male sex hormone) |
|
|
Term
spermatozoon mature in the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
oogenesis begins in the _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3 phases of the menstrual cycle |
|
Definition
1. the follicular phase 2. the luteal phase 3. flow |
|
|
Term
the ___ begins with the development of the follicle and ends at ovulation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the ___ begins with ovulation and ends with the degeneration of the ___ into the ___ |
|
Definition
luteal phase; corpus luteum; corpus albicans |
|
|
Term
___ is the shedding of the uterine lining lasting approximately 5 days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
once in the fallopian tube, the egg is swept toward the uterus by ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the oocyte goes through the second meiotic division to become an ___ and releases a second polar body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ begins while the zygote is still in the fallopian tube. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The zygote goes through many cycles of mitosis; when the zygote is comprised of eight or more cells, it is called a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cells of the morula continue to divide for four days forming a hollow ball filled with fluid called a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The blastocyst lodges in the uterus in a process called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The blastocyst is made up of ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
upon implantation, the egg begins secreting a peptide hormone called ___ that prevents degeneration of the corpus luteum, and maintains its secretion of estrogen and progesterone |
|
Definition
human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) |
|
|
Term
___ in the blood and urine of the mother is the first sign of pregnancy |
|
Definition
Human chorionic gonadotropin |
|
|
Term
a ___ is formed from the tissue of the egg and the mother, and takes over the job of hormone secretion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
as the embryo develops past the eight cell stage, the cells become different from each other due to cell to cell interactions. The process where a cell becomes committed to a specialized developmental path is called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The specialization that occurs at the end of development forming a specialized tissue cell is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The formation of the gastrula occurs in the second week after fertilization in a process called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
during gastrulation, the three primary germ layers are formed: |
|
Definition
1. ectoderm 2. mesoderm 3. endoderm |
|
|
Term
the ___ develop into the outer coverings of the body, such as skin, nails, and tooth enamel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the ___ develop develop into the lining of the digestive tract, and into much of the liver and pancreas |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ___ is the stuff that lies between the inner and outer coverings of the body; such as muscle, bone, etc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in the third week, the gastrula develops into a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in neurulation, the ___ induces the overlaying ectoderm to thicken and form the neural plate |
|
Definition
notochord (made from mesoderm) |
|
|
Term
the notochord eventually degenerates, while a ___ forms from the neural plate to become the spinal cord, brain, and most of the nervous system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ occurs when one cell type affects the direction of differentiation of another cell type |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
part of normal cell development is programmed cell death or ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
apoptosis is essential for development of the ___ and many other things |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is the break down of ingested foods before they are absorbed into the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The major reaction involved in the digestion of all macromolecules is ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
give the seven structures in the basic anatomy of the digestive tract. |
|
Definition
1. mouth 2. esophagus 3. stomach 4. small intestine (duodenum, ileum, jejunum) 5. large intestine (ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon) 6. rectum 7. anus |
|
|
Term
digestion begins in the ___ with ___ |
|
Definition
mouth; alpha amylase contained in the saliva |
|
|
Term
alpha amylase begins by breaking down ___, with the aid of ___ |
|
Definition
the long straight chains of starch into polysaccharides; chewing (increases the surface area of food, which enables more enzymes to act on the food at any one time) |
|
|
Term
chewed food forms a clump in the mouth called the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bolus is pushed into the ___ by swallowing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bolus is moved through the esophagus by ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ acts to lubricate the food, helping it to move down the esophagus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
no digestion occurs in the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is the wave like motion of smooth muscle that moves food through the digestive tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The bolus moves into the stomach through the ____ |
|
Definition
lower esophageal sphincter (or cardiac sphincter) |
|
|
Term
The stomach mixes and stores food, reducing it to a semifluid mass called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The stomach contains ___ that have ___ |
|
Definition
exocrine glands; gastric pits |
|
|
Term
another important function of the stomach is to begin ____ with the enzyme ____ |
|
Definition
protein digestion; pepsin |
|
|
Term
The low pH of the stomach helps digest proteins by ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A full stomach has a pH of ___. This helps to kill ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the four major cell types in the stomach |
|
Definition
1. mucous cells 2. chief (peptic) cells 3. parietal (oxyntic) cells 4. G cells |
|
|
Term
mucous cells secrete ___; line the ___ and ___. |
|
Definition
mucous; stomach wall and the necks of the exocrine glands |
|
|
Term
mucous is composed of ____ and ___; it ___ the stomach wall and protects the ____. some mucous cells also secrete a small amount of ___ |
|
Definition
glycoproteins and electrolytes; lubricates; epithelial lining; pepsinogen |
|
|
Term
chief cells are found ____; they secrete ___ |
|
Definition
deep in exocrine glands; pepsinogen (the zymogen precursor to pepsin) |
|
|
Term
pepsinogen is activated to pepsin by ___. Once activated, ____ |
|
Definition
the low pH in the stomach; pepsin begins protein digestion |
|
|
Term
parietal cells are found in the ____; they secrete ___ |
|
Definition
exocrine glands of the stomach; HCl |
|
|
Term
parietal cells also secrete ___, which helps the ileum absorb B 12 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
G cells secrete ___ into the interstitium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the gastrin, a large peptide hormone, is absorbed into the blood and stimulates ___ |
|
Definition
parietal cells to secrete HCL |
|
|
Term
The major hormones that affect the secretion of stomach juices are ___, ___, and ___ |
|
Definition
ach, gastrin, and histamin |
|
|
Term
___ increases the secretion of all cell types; while ___ and ___ mainly inhibit HCl secretion |
|
Definition
ACH; gastrin and histamine |
|
|
Term
___ digestion begins in the stomach; and no ___ occurs in the stomach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
about 90% of digestion and absorption occurs in the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the small intestine is divided into three parts; from smallest to largest they are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most of the digestion occurs in the ___, and most of the absorption occurs in the ___ |
|
Definition
duodenum; jejunum and ileum |
|
|
Term
The wall of the small intestine is similar to the wall of the stomach except that the outermost layer contains finger-like projections called ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
within each villus are a capillary network and a lymph vessel, called a ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
nutrients absorbed through the wall of the small intestine pass into the ____ |
|
Definition
capillary network and the lacteal |
|
|
Term
on the apical surface of the cells of each villus are much smaller finger-like projections called ___ that ____ |
|
Definition
microvilli; increase the surface area of the intestinal wall |
|
|
Term
some of the epithelial cells of the small intestine are ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The semi-fluid chyme is squeezed out of the stomach through the ___ and into the ___ |
|
Definition
pyloric sphincter; duodenum |
|
|
Term
the fluid inside the duodenum has a pH of ___ due mainly to ___ secreted by the ___ |
|
Definition
6; bicarbonate ion; pancreas |
|
|
Term
The small intestine is where the action is in ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The major enzymes released by the pancreas are: |
|
Definition
trypsin, chymotrypsin; pancreatic amylase; lipase; ribonuclease; and deoxyribonuclease |
|
|
Term
___ is activated by the enzyme enterokinase. activated ___ then activates the other enzymes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ and ___ degrade proteins into small polypeptides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ hydrolyzes polysaccharrides to dissaccharides and trisaccharides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ degrades fat, specifically triglycerides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ is produced in the liver and stored by the gall bladder. It ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
gall bladder released bile through the cystic duct, which empties into the common bile duct shared with the liver; this empties into the pancreatic duct before connecting to the duodenum |
|
|
Term
bile emulsifies fats, which means ___ |
|
Definition
it breaks it up into small particles without changing it chemically. This increases the surface area of the fat, allowing lipase to degrade it |
|
|
Term
bile is necessary to ____, but it does not ___ |
|
Definition
increase the surface area of the fats; digest the fat |
|
|
Term
chyme is moved through the intestines by ___. a second type of intestinal motion, ___, mixes the chyme with the digestive juices |
|
Definition
peristalsis; segmentation |
|
|
Term
the large intestine, or colon, has four parts: |
|
Definition
ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon |
|
|
Term
The major functions of the large intestine are ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
water absorption and electrolyte absorption |
|
|
Term
whenever you see large intestine on the MCAT, you should think ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
be aware that there is a mutualistic symbiosis between ___ and ___ in the large intestine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ cannot be digested by humans and is considered roughage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
all carbohydrates are absorbed into the bloodstream and carried by the ___ to the liver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The formation of glycogen is called ____. When the blood glucose level decreases, ___ takes place in the liver, and glucose is returned to normal |
|
Definition
glycogenesis; glycogenolysis |
|
|
Term
carbs are turned into ___ and then into ___ for energy storage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when the glycogen stores are full, ____ |
|
Definition
glucose is converted to fate |
|
|
Term
all dietary protein is ___ before being absorbed into the blood |
|
Definition
completely broken down to its amino acids |
|
|
Term
nearly all ammonia is coverted to ___ by the liver, and then excreted in the urine by the kidney |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most of dietary fat consists of ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
fat becomes globules called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the chylomicron concentration peaks ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the major absorption of fat occurs in the ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ hydrolyzes the triglycerides in chylomicrons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
inside the fat and liver cells, triglycerides are reconstituted at the ____ |
|
Definition
smooth endoplasmic reticulum |
|
|
Term
the first stop for most of the digested fat is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
most fatty acids are tranported in the form of free fatty acid, which combines immediately in the blood with ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
between meals, 95% of lipids in the plasma are in the form of ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
four types of lipoproteins |
|
Definition
very low density LP intermediate density LP low density LP high density lipoprotein |
|
|
Term
the liver is positioned to recieve blood from the capillary beds of the intestines, stomach, spleen, and pancreas via the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a second blood supply, used to oxygenate the liver is received through the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
all blood received by the liver moves through large flattened spaces called the ___ and collects in the ___, which leads to the ___ |
|
Definition
hepatic sinusoids; hepatic vein; vena cava |
|
|
Term
___ and ___ are two important clotting factors |
|
Definition
prothrombin and fibrinogen |
|
|
Term
___ is the major osmoregulatory protein in the blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ are a group of proteins that include antibodies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
antibodies are made by ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the function of the kidney is to excrete ___, maintain ___, and help control ___ |
|
Definition
waste products; homeostasis of the body fluid volume and solute composition, plasma pH |
|
|
Term
kidneys are made up of a ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
outer cortex; inner medulla |
|
|
Term
urine is created by the kidney and emptied into the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The renal pelvis is emptied by the ___, which carries urine to the ___, which is drained by the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The functional unit of the kidney is the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
blood flows into the first capillary bed of the nephron called the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
together, Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus make up the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ forces some plasma through fenestrations of the glomerular endothelium and into ____ |
|
Definition
hydrostatic pressure; Bowman's capsule |
|
|
Term
the fenestrations screen out blood cells and large proteins from entering ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The fluid that find its way into Bowman's capsule is called ____ |
|
Definition
filtrate/ultrafiltrate/primary urine |
|
|
Term
filtrate moves from Bowman's capsule to the ___, where most ___ takes place |
|
Definition
proximal tubule; reabsorption |
|
|
Term
drugs, toxins, and other solutes are ___ into the filtrate by the cells of the proximal tubule. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ are secreted through an antiport system with ____, which is driven by the ____ |
|
Definition
hydrogen ions; sodium; sodium concentration gradient |
|
|
Term
from the proximal tubule, the filtrate flows into the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the loop of henle dips into the ___, and its function is to increase the ____ |
|
Definition
medulla; solute concentration, and thus osmotic pressure, of the medulla |
|
|
Term
The descending loop of henle is _____, therefore ___ |
|
Definition
permeable to water and impermeable to NaCl, osmolarity goes up |
|
|
Term
the ascending loop of henle ____ |
|
Definition
is impermeable to water, passively and actively permeable to NaCl |
|
|
Term
a second capillary bed, called the ___, surrounds the loop of henle and helps to maintain the concentration of the medulla |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The distal tubule reabsorbs ___ and ___, while secreting ___, ___, and ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ acts on the distal tubule to increase sodium and potassium membrane transport proteins. The net effect is to lower ___ |
|
Definition
aldosterone; lower filtrate osmolarity |
|
|
Term
___ increases the permeability of the cells to water, concentrating the filtrate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the distal tubule empties into the ____, which carries ____ |
|
Definition
collecting duct; filtrate into the highly osmotic medulla |
|
|
Term
The collecting duct is impermeable to ___ but sensitive to ___, in its presence ___ |
|
Definition
water; ADH; the collecting duct becomes permeable to water |
|
|
Term
The ___ monitors filtrate pressure in the distal tubule |
|
Definition
juxtaglomerular apparatus |
|
|
Term
specialized cells in the ja, called ___, secrete ____ which ultimately ____ |
|
Definition
granular cells; renin; stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone |
|
|
Term
trace the pathway of blood through the heart beginning with the left ventricle |
|
Definition
left ventricle > aorta > arteries > arterioles > capillaries > venules > veins > superior and inferior vena cava > right atrium |
|
|
Term
The previous circulation is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is pulmonary circulation |
|
Definition
right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary artery > lungs > pulmonary veins > left atrium |
|
|
Term
the heart contracts automatically, paced by a group of specialized cardiac muscle cells called the ___ located in the ___ |
|
Definition
sinoatrial node; right atrium |
|
|
Term
the SA node is autorhythmic, spreading its contractions to the surrounding cardiac muscles via ___ made from ___ |
|
Definition
electrical synapses; gap junctions |
|
|
Term
The pace of the SA node is ___ than normal heartbeats, but the ____ innervates the SA node, slowing the contractions. |
|
Definition
faster; parasympathetic vagus nerve |
|
|
Term
The ap then spreads to the ____ |
|
Definition
atrioventricular node which is slower to contract, causing a delay which allows the atria to finish their contractions |
|
|
Term
The ap in the heart travels as follows |
|
Definition
sa node > AV node > bundle of his > purkinje fibers |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
allow for a more unified, stronger, contraction |
|
|
Term
the vagus nerve is ___; innervating the ___ and ___; it ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
parasympathetic; heart and digestive system; slows the rate of heart contractions and increases digestive activity |
|
|
Term
___ are elastic, and stretch as they fill with blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ are microscopic blood vessel and nutrient and gas exchange take place across their walls |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
four methods for materials to cross the capillary walls |
|
Definition
1. pinocytosis 2. diffusion through cell membrane 3. movement through pores/fenestrations 4. movement thorough the space between cells |
|
|
Term
venules and veins are similar in structure to ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ carries blood away from the heart; ___ carries blood toward the heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ contain the most deoxygenated blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
blood pressure increases near the ____ and decreases to its lowest in the ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
inspiration occurs when the ___ of the midbrain signals the ___ to contract |
|
Definition
medulla oblongata; diaphragm |
|
|
Term
the nasal cavity ____ incoming air |
|
Definition
filters, moistens, and warms |
|
|
Term
the ___ functions as a passageway for food and air |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ___ is the voice box and sits behind the ___, which prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the ___ lies in front of the esophagus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
before entering the lungs, the trachea split into the ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
each bronchus branches many more times to become tiny ___, which terminate in grape like clusters called ____ composed of alveoli |
|
Definition
bronchioles; alveolar sacs |
|
|
Term
oxygen is pick up by ___, which also release carbon dioxide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
98% of the oxygen in the blood binds rapidly and reversible with the protein ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
explain the oxygen dissociation curve |
|
Definition
right shift: increase in CO2 pressure, [H+], or temp, decrease in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
blood in a centrifuge divides into what 3 parts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
important proteins contained in the plasma are ___, ___, and ___ |
|
Definition
albumin, immunoglobulins, and clotting factors |
|
|
Term
___ transport fatty acids and steroids, as well as acting to regulate the osmotic pressure of the blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
plasma in which the clotting protein fibrinogen has been removed is called ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
____ are like bags of hemoglobin and have no organelles, not even a nucleus, which means they do not reproduce |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ do not contain organelles or hemoglobin, they function to protect the body from foreign invaders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
agranular leukocytes include |
|
Definition
monocytes, lymphocytes and megakaryocytes |
|
|
Term
granular leukocytes include |
|
Definition
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils |
|
|
Term
all blood cells differentiate from the same type of precursor, a ___ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ are small portions of membrane bound cytoplasm torn form megakaryocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
explain the humoral immune response |
|
Definition
-antibodies dissolved in extracellular fluid -B lymphocytes (B cells) -lymphoid follicles - appendix, tonsils, and spleen |
|
|
Term
___ are stimulated by the presence of an antigen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
B cells, as a result of being stimulated by an antigen, differentiate into ___ and ___ |
|
Definition
plasma cells; memory cells |
|
|
Term
___ cells then produce antibodies that are specific to the antigen that triggered the whole process |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ cells are cells that retain the memory of the antigen and the type of antibody that needed to be produced |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
explain the cell mediated response |
|
Definition
- T cells - no antibodies secreted - antigen receptors on cells - destroys bacteria and viruses within host cells - cytokines |
|
|
Term
T cells differentiate into ___ and ____ cells |
|
Definition
T helper cells; T cytotoxic cells |
|
|
Term
cells involved in triggering the immune destruction of tagged cells; they are necessary for B cell activation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
natural killer cells; they kill cells infected by virus/cause apoprosis |
|
|
Term
what are the three types of muscle tissue |
|
Definition
skeletal, cardiac, smooth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a ___ connects muscle to bone; a ___ connects bone to bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscle ___ is on the larger bone and its ___ is on the smaller bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ differentiate into osteoblasts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ exchange nutrients and waste materials with the blood |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ secrete collagen and organic compounds upon which bone is built, and differentiate into osteocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
bone also stores ___ and ___ and is the site of ___ |
|
Definition
calcium; phosphate; blood cell formation |
|
|
Term
___ is flexible, resilient connective tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
___ cartilage is the most common and reduces friction and absorbs shock in joints |
|
Definition
|
|