The site of longitudinal growth of long bone.

Site of attachment of bones to muscle tissue.

What is the diaphysis?

What is the epiphysis?

Epiphyseal Plate= site of longitudinal growth of long bone...it is a disk of cartilaginous cells separating the diaphysis and epiphysis.

Periosteum= site of attachment of bones to muscle tissue...it is a fibrous sheath that surrounds the bone.

Diaphysis= the cylindrical shaft of long bone that is composed primarily of compact bone surrounding a cavity of bone marrow.

Epiphysis= the dilated ends of long bone composed of spongy bone surrounded by a thin layer of compact bone.

Difference b/w endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification.

What is the lamellae, lacunae, and canaliculi of the Haversian system aka osteons?

Endochondral Ossification= replacement of existing cartilage by bone.

Intramembranous Ossification= replacement of mesenchymal (undifferentiated or embryonic) connective tissue by bone.

Lamellae= concetric circles of bony matrix surrounding the Haversian canals.

Lacunae= spaces within the matrix that house osteocytes.

Canaliculi= minute canals radiating from each lacuna that interconnect with e/o and the Haversian canals that allows exchange of nutrients and waste

Skeletal muscle is made up of parallel fibers, each made up of a multinucleated muslce cell.

Embedded in these fibers are filaments called myofibrils which are further divided into contractile units called sarcomeres.

The myofibrils are surrounded by a modified ER called the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 

The cytoplasm of a muscle fiber is called the sarcoplasm and the muscle cell membrane is called the sarcolemma. 

Transverse tubules (T system) is oriented perpindicularly to the myofibrils and is connected to the sarcolemma in order to propagate action potentials and provide channels for ion flow.

Skeletal muscle is striated

Red fibers aka Slow twitch fibers have more myoglobin and mitochondria b/c they derive most energy via aerobic respiration and are capable of sustained and vigorous activity.

White fibers aka Fast twitch fibers have less myoglobin and mitichondria and therefore derive most energy anaerobically. They have a greated rate of contraction but fatigue more easily.

Two major cell types of loose connective tissue.

Three types of fibers that compose loose connective tissue.

1.Fibroblasts= cells that secrete components of extracellular fibers.

2.Macrophages= cells that engulf bacteria and dead cells via phagocytosis.

1.Collagenous Fibers= composed of collagen and provides tensile strength.

2.Elastic Fibers= composed of elastin and provides resiliance.

3.Reticular Fibers= branched fibers that join together connective tissues with adjoining tissues.

Dense connective tissue forms...

Explain what flexor, extensor, abductor, adductor.

Dense connective tissue forms tendons (=attach muscles to bones) and ligaments (=hold bones at joints).

Flexor muscles contract to decrease the angle of a joint.

Extensor muscles contract to straighten the joint.

Abductor muscles move parts of the body away from the body's midline.

Adductor muscles move parts of the body towards the body's midline.

What are basement membranes?

Name the three classifications of the organization of epithelium (layers).

Name the three types of epithelial cell shape.

Basement membranes attach the inner surface of epithelial cells to the underlying connective tissue.

Simple epithelia= single layer of epithelial cells

Stratified epithelia= multiple layers of epithelial cells

Psuedostratified epithelia= single layer of epithelial cells but looks stratified due to differing heights of the cells.

Cuboidal (cube-like shape), columnar (height is at least 4X width), and squamous (scale-like).

What is a mucous membrane/mucosa?

What is mechanical digestion?

What is chemical digestion?

Where does chemical digestion begin?

Mucous membrane/mucosa is a specialized epithelium that lines most body cavities.

Mechanical digestion= the breakdown of large food particles into smaller particles in the mouth leading to greater surface area of food.

 Chemical digestion= the enzymatic breakdown of macromolecules into smaller molecules.

Chemical digestion beginsin the mouth when the salivary glands secrete saliva.

Saliva contains what enzyme for chemical digestion?

What is the function of the pharynx?

Flap that covers the opening of the trachea during swallowing.

Saliva contains salivary amylase or ptyalin which hydrolyzes starch into simple sugars (not very much though, food doesn't stay in the mouth for long).

Pharynx= cavity that leads food from the mouth into the esophagus and also the passageway for air to enter the trachea.

 Epiglotis= flap that covers the trachea during swallowing.

Muscular tube leading from the pharynx to the stomach.

What is peristalsis?

What is the lower esophageal sphincter or cardiac sphincter? 

Esophagus= muscular tube leading from the pharynx to the stomach.

Peristalsis= rhythmic waves of involuntary muscular contractions that pushes food down the esophagus.

Lower esophageal sphincter/cardiac sphincter= ring of muscle in the lower esophagus that opens at the end of peristalsis to allow food to enter the stomach.

The three types of gastric gland cells and their functions.

1.Mucous cells secrete mucus in order to protect the stomach lining from harshly acidic stomach juices.

2.Chief cells secrete pepsinogen...which is converted into pepsin by HCl which degrades food proteins into peptides.

3.Parietal cells secrete HCl which kills bacteria, dissolves intercellular "glue" holding food tissues together, and converts pepsinogen to pepsin.

What regulates the passage of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine?

Where is chemical digestion completed?

How is the surface area of the small intestine maximized?

The Pyloric Sphincter regulates the passage of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine.

Chemical digestion is completed in the small intestine.

The surface area of the small intestine is maximized by villi projections from the intestinal submucosa and microvilli projections from the individual cells lining the villi.

Name the three sections of the small intestine.

Most digestion in the small intestine occurs in...

Most nutrient absorption occurs...

The 3 sections of the small intestine= the duodenum, jejunum, and the ileum.

Most digestion in the small intestine occurs in the duodenum.

Most nutrient absorption occurs across the walls of the jejunum and the ileum.

What are chylomicrons?

What are lacteals?

Chylomicrons are processed in...and delivered to...

Chylomicrons= protein-coated droplets that triglycerides, cholesterol, and phosphoglycerides are packaged into.

Lacteals= tiny lymph vessels within the villi of the small intestine that lead to the lymphatic system...chylomicrons secreted into the lacteals.

After chylomicrons reach venous blood through the lymphatic system, they are processed in the bloodstream and delivered to the liverhttp://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QKaHkuWjDlM&feature=related. 

What are the three parts of the large intestine?

Name the production site, function site, and function of the following digestive enzymes:

Salivary Amylase (Ptyalin)

Pancreatic Amylase

Maltose

Sucrase

Lactase

Bile (not an enzyme)

Lipase

Name the production site, functional site, and function of the following digestive enzymes:

Pepsin (secreted as pepsinogen)

Trypsin (secreted as trypsinogen)

Chymotrypsin (secreted as chymotrypsinogen)

Carboxypeptidase

Aminopeptidase

Dipeptidase

Enterokinase

The three portal systems (special circulatory routes) of systemic circulation.

What are the atrioventricular valves? How are they different on each side of the heart?

What are the 2 semilunar valves?

The three portal systems of systemic circulation:

1.Hepatic Portal Circulation (portal system to the liver)

2.Portal circulation to the kidneys

3.Hypophyseal Portal Circulation (portal system to the brain)

Atrioventricular valves= valves between the atrium and ventricle on each side. 

Valve on the right side= tricuspid valve (3 cusps)

Valve on the left side= mitral valve (2 cusps)

The 2 semilunar valves are:

1.Aortic valve (b/w the left ventricle and aorta)

2.Pulmonic valve (b/w the right ventricle and pulmonary artery)

Deoxygenated blood from the lower body and extremities enters the heart through...

Deoxygenated blood from the head and neck region return to the heart via the...and enters the heart through...

Oxygenated blood is supplied to the heart muscle by the...

 ...returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from the heart muscle.

Deoxygenated blood from the lower body and extremities enters the through the inferior vena cava.

Deoxygenated blood from the head and neck region return to the heart via the jugular vein and enters the heart through superior vena cava. 

Oxygenated blood is supplied to the heart muscle by the coronary artery - the first branches of the aorta.

The coronary vein and coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from the heart muscle.

What modifies the rate of heart contraction?

The parasympathetic nervous system innervates the heart via...

Explain the difference between arteries, veins, and capillaries.

The rate of heart contraction is modified by the autonomic nervous system.

The parasymphathetic nervous system innervates the heart via the vagus nerve.

Arteries are thick-walled, elastic, and muscular. Transports oxygenated blood from heart to rest of the body (except the pulmonary artery which carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs.

Veins are relatively thin-walled, inelastic, and transport deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart (except for the pulmonary vein which carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart)

Capillaries are very thin-walled and composed of a single layer of epithlial cells.

As blood flows from artery to capillaries, what happens to the blood pressure and why?

What are the three types of leukocytes?

How do erythrocytes obtain ATP? How are they formed?

How are leukocytes formed?

As blood flows from artery to capillaries, the blood pressure gradually decreases due to friction b/w blood and vessels and increase in cross-sectional area from the numerous capillary beds.

Three types of leukocytes:

1.Granular leukocytes (basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils) - inflammation, pus formation, allergic reactions

2.Lymphocytes (B & T lymphocytes) - immune response and antibody production

3.Monocytes - phagocytize foreign matter - can migrate from blood to tissue and become macrophages 

Erythrocytes do not contain mito (or any nuclei or membrane bound organelles), so they obtain all ATP anaerobically via glycolysis.

Erythrocytes are formed from stem cells of bone marrow.

Leukocytes are formed from stem cells of bone marrow of long bones.

How are platelets formed?

What is their function?

Do they have nuclei?

How is the composition of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets compared?

Name the two major RBC antigens.

Platelets are formed from bone marrow.

Their function in blood clot formation.

Platelets lack nuclei.

Blood composition: Erythrocytes>Platelets>Leukocytes 

(but leukocyte number can increase when fighting infection)

The two major RBC antigens:

ABO group and Rh factor

Which blood type is the universal recipient?

Which is the universal donor?

 What do right and left shifts of hemoglobin dissociation curves represent?

Universal recipient= AB (has both A and B antigen on RBCs so doesn't create antibodies to either)

Universal donor= O (has not antigens on RBCs and creates both anti-A and anti-B antibodies)

A right shift occurs when O₂ release in tissues is more necessary. This occurs when CO₂ blood levels increase, when pH decreases (acidity increases), and when temperature increases.

A left shift occurs when oxygen needs to be bound to Hb. A left shift is seen in the lungs where it is important for O₂ to bind to Hb and in fetal Hb (fetal Hb has a higher affinity for O₂ that adult Hb)

...in general, a right shift means that for a given partial pressure of O₂, there will be less O₂ bound to the Hb.

When platelets come in contact with damaged vessels, they release a chemical to neighboring platelets to adhere to one another.

Then, the platelets and damaged tissue release thromboplastin which works with calcium and vitamin K to convert prothrombin to thrombin (active form.

Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin.

Threads of fibrin coat the damagedarea and traps blood cells to form the blood clot.

Name the 2 specific defense mechanisms of the immune system.

What are immunoglobulins (Igs)? Describe their structure.

The 2 specific defense mechanisms of the immune system:

1.Humoral Immunity= involves production of antibodies

2.Cell-Mediated Immunity= involves cells combating fungal and viral infections.

*Lymphocytes are responsible for both!

Immunoglobulins (Igs)= antibodies. They are complex proteins consisiting of 4 polypeptide chains - 2 identical heavy chains and 2 identical light chains. They are held together by disulfide bridges and covalent bonds. They also consist of variable regions (antigen binding sites) and constant regions (regions that aid in the process by which antigens are destroyed).

What kind of lymphocytes play a large role in humoral immunity and where do they originate from? What kind of cells do they differentiate into and what to do they do?

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

B cells= lymphocytes that play a large role in humoral immunity. They originate from the bone marrow and differentiate in the spleen, lymph nodes, and other lymphatic organs.

Their daughter cells are:

Plasma cells/Effector cells which produce and release antibodes specific to the antigen which is the primary response.

Memory cells which "remember" the antigen for later (long lived). Memory cells can elicit a more immediate response called a secondary response.

Active Immunity= production of antibodies in response to an immune event (e.g. vaccinations)

Passive Immunity= direct transfer of antibodies via injection or diffusion through placenta...very short lived.

What lymphocytes play a major role in cell-mediated immunity?

Where do they develop and where do they mature and proliferate?

What do these lymphocytes differentiate into?

T cells= the lymphocytes that play a major role in cell-mediated immunity.

T cells develop in bone marrow and mature and proliferate in the thymus.

T cells differentiate into:

1.Cytotoxic T cells which directly destroy antigens.

2.Helper T cells which activate other B and T cells and macrophages by secreting lymphokinases.

3.Suppressor T cells which regulate B and T cells by decreasing their activity.

...memory T cells can also be formed...their production of additional cytotoxic T cells= secondary response!

What everyday events do T cells play an important role in?

What is lymph?

 What are lymph nodes?

T cells play an important role in allergic reactions and organ transplant rejection.

Lymph= excess interstitial fluid

Lymph nodes= swellings of the lymphatic vessels that contain phagocytotic cells (leukocytes) which filter the lymph before it converges with the cardiovascular system.

What does the forebrain consist of?

...and what do those consist of?

What is the midbrain important for?

What three structures make up the hindbrain?

Forebrain= Telencephalon (cerebral cortex of left and right hemispheres) and the Diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus)

Midbrain is the relay center for visual and auditory impulses and also plays an important role in motor control.

Hindbrain consists of the cerebellum, pons, and the medulla oblongata.

What are the functions of the cerebellum?

What are the functions of the pons?

What are the functions of the medulla oblongata?

What structures make up the brain stem?

Name the four regions of the spinal cord.

What is the somatic nervous system involved in?

What are the two types of reflexes modulated by the somatic nervous system?

The four regions of the spinal cord in order from brain stem to tail:

1.Cervical

2.Thoracic

3.Lumbar

4.Sacral

The somatic nervous system is a branch of the peripheral nervous system and is involved in reflex actions and voluntary movements - innervates skeletal muscle.

1.Monosynaptic reflexes= only have one synapse b/w the sensory and motor neuron (e.g. knee jerk reflex)

2.Polysynaptic reflexes= have more than one synapse involved in the action (e.g. withdrawal reflex)

True or False: Reflexes occur at the level of the spinal cord, and do not require the participation of the brain.

What does the autonomic nervous system (ANS) innervate?

Where do the parasympathetic neurons originate and what neurotransmitter do the pre and postganglionic neurons use?

True: Reflexes occur at the level of the spinal cord and do not require the participation of the brain.

The ANS innervates cardiac and smooth muscle.

Parasympathetic neurons originate from the brain stem (cranial nerves) and the sacral part of the spinal cord. Both pre- and postganglionic neurons release ACh.

The vagus nerve is a very important nerve in what nervous system?

What do the pre- and postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release?

B/w the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system, which has the shorter preganglionic axon and which has the shorter postganglionic axon?

The vagus nerve is a very important nerve in the parasympathetic nervous system...

it innervates many of the thoracic and abdominal viscera.

The preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release ACh as well as stimulate the adrenal medulla to release EPI.

The postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release NE.

The sympathetic nervous system has the shorter pregangionic axon (which releases ACh) and a longer postganglionic axon (which releases NE).

The parasympathetic nervous system has the longer preganglionic axon (which releases ACh) and a shorter postganglionic axon (which also releases ACh).

What are the three types of sensory receptors that humans have?

Describe the following parts of the eye:

retina

choroid

ciliary muscles 

sclera

cornea

iris

lens

What is rhodopsin?

What is the pathway of light starting from the photoreceptors?

What is the blind spot?

Rhodopsin= rod pigment that absorbs only one wavelength.

Photoreceptors synapse on bipolar cells which then synapse on ganglion cells. The ganglion axons bundle to form the optic nerves which transmit visual information to the brain. 

The blind spot is the spot at which the optic nerve exits the eye (there are no photorceptors at this location).

What makes up the outer ear?

 What is the tympanic membrane and where is it located?

What are the three ossicles of the middle ear?

What makes up the inner ear?

What is the inner ear liquid called?

Outer ear= auricle (pinna) and the auditory canal.

The tympanic membrane is the ear drum and is located in the middle ear. 

The three ossicles of the middle ear:

malleus, incus, and stapes

Inner ear= cochlea (including the organ of Corti) and the semicircular canals.

Liquid of the inner ear= endolymph

Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that is made up of...

What does parathyroid hormone do?

What does calcitonin do?

Osteoblasts produce...

Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that is made up of chondrin which is secreted by specialized cells called chondrocytes.

Parathyroid hormone raises plasma calcium levels by stimulating calcium release from bone.

Calcitonin lowers plasma calcium levels by inhibiting calcium release from bones. 

Osteoblasts produce collagen, which when mineralized, forms bone!

Osteoblasts are regulated by...

and osteoclasts are regulated by...

Name the 3 kinds of joints and describe them.

Osteoblasts are regulated by parathyroid hormone and osteoclasts are regulated by osteoblasts.

The 3 kinds of joints:

 1.Immovable joints connect bones that do not move relative to each other, such as bones of the skull.

2.Partly movable joints connect bones that exhibit some flexibility of movement and usually have cartilage b/w them, such as bones of the vertebral column.

3.Synovial joints allow a wide range of movement and are lubricated by synovial fluid.

Yellow bone marrow serves to store...

What is the function of the spleen?

What is thymosin and where is it secreted from?

What are interferons?

Yellow bone marrow serves to store fat.

The spleen serves to store blood as well as filter blood and lymph.

Thymosin is a hormone secreted by the thymus which stimulates pre-T cells to mature.

Interferons stimulate the production of proteins that interfere with viral replication.

The inflammatory response is caused by the release of ... from damaged cells and is often accompanied by...

What is lymphokine?

Name the enzyme that is found in tears that breaks down bacterial cell walls.

The inflammatory response is cause by the release of histamine from damaged cells and is often accompanied by fever which serves to retard bacterial growth.

Lymphokine= signaling molecule that is involved in the coordination of the immune response.

Lysozymes= enzymes found in tears that break down bacterial cell walls.

For an antigen to stimulate a T cell receptor, it must...

What is the difference between MHC class I and MHC class II proteins?

What are interleukins?

For an antigen to stimulate a T cell receptor, it must be presented to the cell as part of a complex of proteins called MHC (Major Histocompatability Complex) that is found in the plasma membrane of cells.

MHC class I proteins are found on the surface of all cells.

MHC class II proteins are found only present on immune cells, including macrophages, and B and T cells.

Interleukins activate cytotoxic T cells to kill infected cells and stimulate B cells to secrete antibodies.

What is the purpose of the lymphatic system?

 How is lymph moved through the lymph vessels?

Where does the lymphatic system join with the circulatory system? 

The purpose of the lymphatic system is to return excess interstitial fluid (lymph) from the tissues to circulation. Without this system, lymph would accumulate in the tissues.

Lymph is moved through the lymph vessels by pressure from the skeletal muscles (NO direct pumpint). The pressure of the lymph is very low so fluids from the tissue are drawn into the lymph vessels.

The lymphatic system joins with the circulatory system and the thoracic duct.

Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs?

Describe the pathway that air takes in order to reach the point of gas exchange in the lungs.

What is surfactant and what is its function?

Gas exchange occurs at the alveoli.

Air -> Pharynx -> Larynx -> Trachea -> Lungs -> Bronchus -> Bronchiole -> Alveolar Ducts -> Alveolar Sacs -> Alveoli.

Surfactant= fluid that coats each alveolus in order to facilitate gas diffusion and reduce surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli to prevent alveolar collapse during exhalation. 

True/False: The partial pressure of oxygen is greater in the alveoli than in the blood, therefore there is a net diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli to the capillaries.

How about for carbon dioxide?

Name the two membranes the surround the lungs and the region in between.

TRUE: The partial pressure of O₂ is greater in the alveoli than in the blood, therefore there is a net diffusion of O₂ from the alveoli to the capillaries.

For CO₂, the partial pressure is greater in the blood, so there is a net diffusion of CO₂ from the capillaries to the alveoli.

The two membranes that surround the lungs= the visceral pleura and parietal pleura.

Region b/w these two membranes= interpleural space.

Two muscles that aid in respiration.

 What is negative-pressure breathing?

Describe the action of the muscles for inhalation and exhalation.

Two muscles that aid in respiration:

The diaphragm (curved when relaxed and flattened when chest cavity is expanding (contraction)) increases the size of the chest cavity.

and intercostal muscles which contract to move the rib cage up and out.

Negative-pressure breathing= inhalation

 air enters the lungs due to the vacuum that is created in them.

Inhalation= The external intercostals and diaphragm contract to expand the lungs.

Exhalation= The internal intercostals and abdominal muscles contract to compress the lungs.

What is ventilation regulated by?

What are the carotid bodies?

What is the tidal volume?

Ventilation is regulated respiratory centers - neuron clusters in the medulla oblongata whose rhythmic discharges stimulate contractions of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles.

Carotid bodies= chemoreceptors in the carotid artery that respond to pH and partial pressure of CO₂.

Tidal Volume= the amount of air normally inhaled and exhaled with each breath.

What is the expiratory reserve volume?

What is the vital capacity?

 What is the residual lung capacity?

Expiratory Reserve Volume= the amount of air that can still be forcibly exhaled following a normal exhalation.

Vital capacity= the maximum amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled and inhaled with each breath.

Residual Lung Capacity= the volume of air in the lungs that is always in the lungs, even after exhalation. This air also helps prevent alveolar collapse during exhalation. 

What type of immune cell remains dormant in the lymph nodes until activated by a specific antigen?

What is helicase?

What is DNA polymerase?

B cells remain dormant in the lymph nodes until activated by a specific antigen.

Helicase is an enzyme that unwinds the DNA helix (breaks H bonds b/w bases) for replication.

DNA polymerase= enzyme that forms new strange of DNA in the 5' to 3' direction.

What are the main points of the Cell Theory?

How big are prokaryotice cells? How big are eukaryotic cells?

Cell Theory=

1.All living things are made up of cells.

2.Cells are the basic unit of life

3.Cells come from other cells

4.Cells carry genetic information in the form of DNA and is passed from parent to daughter cell.

Prokaryotes= 1-10μm

Eukaryotes= 10-10μm