Term
| Name the 4 divisions of the lower limb |
|
Definition
| Gluteal region, thigh, leg, foot |
|
|
Term
| What 3 bones is the bony pelvis formed by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the 4 superficial muscles of the gluteal region |
|
Definition
| Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and Tensor fascia latae |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the superficial muscles of the gluteal region? |
|
Definition
| Abduct and extend the thigh at the hip joint |
|
|
Term
| What is the iliotibial tract? |
|
Definition
| The tendinous thickening of the tensor fascia latae m. |
|
|
Term
| What are the superficial muscles of the gluteal region innervated by? |
|
Definition
| The superior gluteal n. except the gluteus maximus which is innervated by the inferior gluteal n. |
|
|
Term
| Name the 5 deep m. of the gluteal region. |
|
Definition
| Piriformis, obturator internus, gemellus superior, gemellus, gemellus inferior, quadratus femoris m. |
|
|
Term
| What are the deep m. of the gluteal region innervated by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the blood supply to the deep m. of the gluteal region? |
|
Definition
| Superior gluteal a. from internal iliac a. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the deep m. of the gluteal region? |
|
Definition
| Lateral rotation of the of the femur at the hip joint |
|
|
Term
| What do the deep m. of the gluteal region enter the pelvic cavity through? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the largest bone in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 4 m. form the quadriceps? |
|
Definition
| Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius |
|
|
Term
| Name the m. of the anterior compartment of the thigh. |
|
Definition
| Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, psoas major, iliacus, and sartorius m. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the m. of the anterior compartment of the thigh? |
|
Definition
| They are extensors, except the sartorius, which cross the anterior thigh at an angle and flex the thigh on the hip and the thigh on the knee |
|
|
Term
| What are the the m. of the anterior compartment of the thigh innervated by? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides the blood supply to the anterior compartment of the thigh? |
|
Definition
| Branches of the femoral artery |
|
|
Term
| Name the m. of the medial compartment of the thigh. |
|
Definition
| Gracillis, pectineus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, obturator externus |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the m. of the medial compartment of the thigh? |
|
Definition
| Adduct the thigh at the hip joint except the obturator externus, which is a lateral rotator of the thigh at the hip joint |
|
|
Term
| What innervates the m. of the medial compartment of the thigh? |
|
Definition
| Obturator nerve, except pectineus which is the femoral n. |
|
|
Term
| What provides the blood supply to the m. of the medial compartment of the thigh? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the m. of the posterior compartment of the thigh? |
|
Definition
| Biceps femoris, semitendinous, semimembranosus m. |
|
|
Term
| What are the m. of the posterior compartment of the thigh called together? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the m. of the posterior compartment of the thigh? |
|
Definition
| Extend the thigh at the hip joint and flex the thigh at the knee joint |
|
|
Term
| What innervates the m. of the posterior compartment of the thigh? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides the blood supply to the m. of the posterior compartment of the thigh? |
|
Definition
| Deep femoral and popliteal a. |
|
|
Term
| What is the area behind the knee called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 major arteries that enter the thigh? |
|
Definition
| Femoral a., obturator a., and inferior gluteal a. |
|
|
Term
| What is the femoral a. a continuation of and where does it pass under to enter the thigh? |
|
Definition
| External Iliac a., inguinal ligament |
|
|
Term
| What is the femoral a. called at the knee? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the large branch of the femoral a. called and what does it supply? |
|
Definition
| Profunda femoris a (deep femoral a.), most of the thigh m. |
|
|
Term
| Name the branches of the deep femoral a.? |
|
Definition
| Lateral and medial circumflex branches and 3 perforating branches |
|
|
Term
| What is the obturator a. a branch of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which compartment of the thigh does the obturator a. enter and through what? |
|
Definition
| Medial compartment, obturator canal |
|
|
Term
| What does the obturator a. anastamose with? |
|
Definition
| inferior circumflex and gluteal a. |
|
|
Term
| What does the inferior gluteal a. come from and what does it leave through? |
|
Definition
| The internal iliac a. of the pelvis, greater sciatic notch |
|
|
Term
| What is the path of the great saphenous vein? |
|
Definition
| Originates from a venous arch in the dorsal aspect of the foot and ascends along the medial side of the lower limb to the proximal thigh. It passes through the saphenous ring to connect with the femoral vein in the femoral triangle. |
|
|
Term
| What are the articulations of the knee joint? |
|
Definition
| Between the tibia and femur (weight bearing) and between the patella and femur |
|
|
Term
| What does the articulation of the knee joint between the patella and femur allow? |
|
Definition
| allows a strong pull of the quadriceps over the knee with tendon wear |
|
|
Term
| What type of cartilage is in the knee joint? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the largest synovial joint in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the "knee cap" bone and what type of bone is this? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the fibrocartilagenous C-shaped cartilages in the knee joint? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the names of the 2 menisci in the knee? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the menisci attached to? |
|
Definition
| They're attached at each end to facets in the intercondylar region of the tibial plateau |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the menisci? |
|
Definition
| They help to stabilize the knee joint with change from extension to flexion |
|
|
Term
| Name the ligaments of the knee joint? |
|
Definition
| Patellar ligament, fibular and tibial collateral ligaments, anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments |
|
|
Term
| What is the patellar ligament a continuation of and what is it attached to? |
|
Definition
| Continuation of the quadriceps femoris tendon inferior to the patella. Attached above to the margins and apex of the patella and below to the tibia. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the fibular and tibial collateral ligaments? |
|
Definition
| Stabilize the hinge-like motion of the knee |
|
|
Term
| What do the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments interconnect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the boundaries of the popliteal fossa? |
|
Definition
Upper - distals ends of the semitendinous and semimembranosus medially and distal end of biceps femoris laterally
Lower - medial head of gastrocnemius medially and lateral head of the gastrocnemius and plantaris m. laterally |
|
|
Term
| What are the contents of the popliteal fossa? |
|
Definition
| Popliteal a. and v., common fibular n., and tibial n. |
|
|
Term
| Which is the larger, weight bearing bone of the leg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is formed by the superior and inferior portions of the tibia? |
|
Definition
Superior - forms part of the knee joint
Inferior - forms part of the ankle joint (medial malleolus) |
|
|
Term
| What is formed by the inferior part of the fibula? |
|
Definition
| The lateral malleolus of the knee joint |
|
|
Term
| What m. form the anterior crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
| Tibialis anterior, extensor hallicus longus, extensor digitorum longus, and fibularis tertius |
|
|
Term
| What innervates the m. of the anterior crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides the blood supply to the anterior crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the primary functions of the m. of anterior crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
| Dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle joints and dorsiflexion of the toes at the interphalangeal joints (extension) |
|
|
Term
| What are the m. of the lateral crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
| Fibularis longus and fibularis brevis m. |
|
|
Term
| What innervates the m. of the lateral crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main a. of the lateral crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the primary functions of the m. of the lateral crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
| Plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint and eversion of the foot |
|
|
Term
| What are the superficial m. of the posterior crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
| Gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris m. |
|
|
Term
| Where do the supericial m. of the posterior crural compartment of the leg insert? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the deep m. of the posterior crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
| Popliteus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallicus longus, and tibialis posterior m. |
|
|
Term
| What innervates the m. of the posterior crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the main arteries of the m. of the posterior crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
| Posterior tibial and peroneal a. |
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the m. of the posterior crural compartment of the leg? |
|
Definition
| Plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint, flexion of the toes at the interphalangeal joints and eversion of the foot |
|
|
Term
| What provides the blood supply to the tarsal tunnel? |
|
Definition
| Popliteal a. from the femoral a. and combines to the anterior and posterior tibial a. |
|
|
Term
| What are the boundaries of the tarsal tunnel? |
|
Definition
| Bounded on 3 side by bone and 1 by flexor retinaculum |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 main arteries that supply the dorsum of the foot? |
|
Definition
| Dorsalis pedis a. and lateral tarsal a. |
|
|
Term
| What is the path of the dorsalis pedis a.? |
|
Definition
| A continuation of the anterior tibial a., passes superficially over the tarsal bones and reaches the base of the metatarsal bones. Here it continues as the arcuate a. and sends off 4 dorsal metatarsal a. to toes 1-4 |
|
|
Term
| What is the path of the lateral tarsal a.? |
|
Definition
| A branch of the dorsalis pedis a. higher up. It anastamoses with the arcuate a. and sends off the 5th metatarsal a. and several medial tarsal a. |
|
|
Term
| Explain the path of venous return from the foot |
|
Definition
| 2nd metatarsal v. to arcuate v. to dorsalis pedis v. to anterior tibial v. popliteal v. to femoral v. to external iliac v. to common iliac v. to IVC to right atrium |
|
|
Term
| What is the innervation to the dorsum of the foot? |
|
Definition
| Deep peroneal n. divides into medial (innervates 1st and 2nd toes) and lateral (3rd, 4th, and 5th toes) branches |
|
|
Term
| What tendons are found in the dorsum whose m. are not present? |
|
Definition
| Tendons of extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallicus longus, and tibialis anterior |
|
|
Term
| What is the one m. present in the dorsum of the foot? Which is thought by some to be present as well? |
|
Definition
Extensor digiti brevis
Extensor hallicus brevis |
|
|
Term
| What is the innervation to the sole of the foot? |
|
Definition
| Either the medial or lateral planter n. Both are terminating branches of the tibial n., which is a branch of the sciatic. |
|
|
Term
| Is the lateral plantar a. the smaller or larger branch and explain its course. |
|
Definition
| Larger. It descends to the bases of the metatarsal bones and forms an arcuate a. (the majority of the plantar arterial arch). The plantar metatarsal a. arise from the arcuate a. and course to the respective toes. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 groups of bones in the foot? |
|
Definition
Tarsal bones (7)
Metatarsals (I to V)
Phalanges |
|
|
Term
| What bones are in the proximal and distal groups of the tarsal bones? |
|
Definition
Proximal - Talus and calcaneus
Distal - navicular, cuboid, and cuneiforms (3) |
|
|
Term
| The talus articulates with which bones to form what joint? |
|
Definition
| Tibia and fibula to form the ankle joint |
|
|
Term
| What is the largest of the tarsal bones and what does it form? |
|
Definition
| Calcaneus - forms the bony framework of the heel |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 cuneiform bones? |
|
Definition
| Lateral, intermediate, and medial |
|
|
Term
| What are the parts of the metatarsals and how are they numbered? |
|
Definition
| Head (distal end), shaft, and base (proximal end). Numbered from I to V, the one associated with the great toe is I |
|
|
Term
| How many phalanges are associated with each toe? |
|
Definition
| 3 - proximal, middle, and distal. Except the great toe, which only has 2 - proximal and distal. They also each have a base, shaft, and distal head. |
|
|
Term
| What are the arches of the foot and what is their function? |
|
Definition
| longitudinal and transverse arch. They help to absorb and distribute the weight of the downward forces of the foot. |
|
|
Term
| A chronic disease of apocrine sweat glands found in the axilla, groin, under breasts, etc. that heal w/ scarring? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does hidradenitis suppurativa occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can Hidradenitis Suppurativa form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name 6 risk factors of Hidradenitis Suppurativa. |
|
Definition
| 1) Women 2) AA 3) h/o acne 4) Tight, curly hair (ingrown) 5) Obesity 6) Tight clothing |
|
|
Term
| Name 5 tx for Hidradenitis Suppurativa. |
|
Definition
| 1) I&D 2) PO or topical abx 3) Bleach baths 4) Laser 5) Accutane |
|
|
Term
| A chronic, autoimmune blistering dz that causes subepidermal blisters. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the pathophysiology of bullous pemphigoid. |
|
Definition
| IgG autoantibodies bind to the basement membrane leading to separation of dermis from epidermis |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of bullous pemphigoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How common is bullous pemphigoid? Who does it more commonly occur in? |
|
Definition
| Rare. Onset usu. >65yo, men = women |
|
|
Term
| Describe the lesions caused by bullous pemphigoid. |
|
Definition
| Tense bullae that heal /s scarring |
|
|
Term
| Where is the most common location of bullous pemphigoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name 5 tx for bullous pemohighoid. |
|
Definition
| 1) Topical steroids 2) Long-term oral prednisone 3) Tertacycline 4) Methotextrate 5) Immunosuppressants |
|
|
Term
| Condition that causes areas of complete depigmentation because melanocytes are destroyed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the avg. age of onset of vitiligo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the visual appearance of areas affected by vitiligo. What are the most common locations on the body? |
|
Definition
| Sharply circumscribed white patches that become confluent. MC face, neck, scalp. |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of vitiligo? |
|
Definition
| Unknown. Autoimmune, some genetic inheritance. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 1) Topical steroids 2) Topical immunomodulators (protopic, Elidel) 3) UV 4) Laser 5) Oral steroids 6) Depigmentation 7) Surgery |
|
|
Term
| An autoimmune blostering d/o associated w/ Celiac's dz. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common age of dermatitis herpetiformis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the rash of dermatitis herpetiformis. |
|
Definition
| Very pruritic, burning sensation, erythematous excoriated papules or plaques and herpetiform lesions |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common location on the body affected by dermatitis herpetiformis? |
|
Definition
| Elbows, knees, and buttock. Palms and soles are spared. |
|
|
Term
| How is dermatitis herpetiformis dx? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for dermatitis herpitiformis? |
|
Definition
| 1) Gluten free diet 2) Dapsone |
|
|
Term
| What are side effects of dapsone? (4) |
|
Definition
| Hemolysis, methemoglobinemia, peripheral neuropathy, cross rxn w/ sulfa allergy |
|
|
Term
| What are complications of dermatitis herpetiformis? |
|
Definition
| lymphoma and intestinal CA |
|
|
Term
| Skin condition described as having salmon colored plaques with a thick, silvery scale? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the etiology of psoriasis? What causes the sx? |
|
Definition
| Autoimmune. Fast turnover of dermal cells - 3 to 5 days (normal 23days) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common location of psoriasis? What is the most common type? |
|
Definition
| Elbows and knees. Plaque psoriasis. |
|
|
Term
| Name the 5 types of psoriasis. |
|
Definition
| 1) Plaque 2) Guttate 3) Inverse 4) Pustular 5) Erythrodermic |
|
|
Term
| Describe appearance of guttate psoriasis. |
|
Definition
| <1cm "dew drop" plaques all over the body. |
|
|
Term
| Who is guttate psoriasis most common in? |
|
Definition
| Young, healthy people. Typicalll /p strep infection. |
|
|
Term
| Describe appearance of inverse psoriasis. Where does it typically occur? |
|
Definition
| Moist, "beefy red", not scaly. Occurs in skin folds, axillae, groin. |
|
|
Term
| Where does pustular psoriasis typically occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe appearance of erythrodermic psoriasis. |
|
Definition
| Generalized erythema and scale. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for psoriasis being triggered after trauma, such as surgery or tattoo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What meds can trigger psoriasis? |
|
Definition
| NSAIDS, Lithium, Inderal, Indomethacin, anti-malarials, beta blockers |
|
|
Term
| What complication of psoriasis occurs in 10-30% of sufferers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are anti-inflammatory tx for psoriasis? |
|
Definition
| Topical and intranasal steroids |
|
|
Term
| Name 4 immunosuppresant tx for psoriasis. |
|
Definition
| 1) UV 2) Biologics (Enbrel, Humira, Amevive, Remicade, Raptiva) 3) Methotextrate 4) Cyclosporin |
|
|
Term
| What tx for psoriasis helps decrease scale? |
|
Definition
| Vitamin D analogue (Dovonex, Vectical) |
|
|
Term
| A skin conditions whose hallmark prodome is a herald patch, a salmon colored 1-2cm round patch. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who does pityriasis rosea typically affect? Where is the most common location? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the secondary eruption of pityriasis rosea. |
|
Definition
| Collarette of fine scale OR Christmas tree pattern that is symmetric and gen. on trunks and extremities |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of pityriasis rosea? When does it most commonly occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for pityriasis rosea? |
|
Definition
| None - self limiting 8-12wks. UV can help, mild topical steroids PRN. |
|
|
Term
| What other two conditions that are typically seen together w/ eczema as part of the classic triad? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With eczema, which typically comes first, the rash or the itch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the physical appearance of skin affected by eczema. |
|
Definition
| Red papules or plaques with scale, lichenification |
|
|
Term
| What part of the body does eczema typically affect in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the appearance of nummular eczema. |
|
Definition
| Annular, coin-shaped lesions |
|
|
Term
| What are potential triggers of eczema? |
|
Definition
| 1) Harsh chemicals/soaps 2) Excessive nathing/dry skin 3) Foods that worsen 4) Pet dander 5) Excessive heat |
|
|
Term
| Name 4 meds to tx eczema. |
|
Definition
| 1)Topical steroids 2) Topical immunosuppressants (Elidel and Protopic) 3) UV light 4) Antihistamines |
|
|
Term
| How common is acne vulgaris? Who is it moct common in? |
|
Definition
| Affects >90% of the population, MC in adolescents |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 mian types of acne lesions? |
|
Definition
| Non-inflammatory and inflammatory |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 types of non-inflammatory acne lesions? |
|
Definition
| Comedones - blackheads (open) and whiteheads (closed) |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 types of inflammatory acne lesions? |
|
Definition
| Papules/pustules (superficial) and cysts/nodules (deep) |
|
|
Term
| Name 4 causes of acne vulgaris. |
|
Definition
| 1) Skin cells plug hair follicle 2) Excess sebum 3) Bacteria (P. Acnes) 4) Inflammation |
|
|
Term
| What can be used to tx P. Acnes? What is a difficulty with tx it? |
|
Definition
| Topical abx (clindamycin, erythromycin), high resistance - need to use benzoyl peroxide to prevent resistance |
|
|
Term
| What acne med. is very teratogenic and prescription requires signing the Ipledge system? |
|
Definition
| Oral isotretinoin (accutane, sotret, claravis, amnesteem) |
|
|
Term
| What complication of acne can lead to hospitalization? What causes it? |
|
Definition
| Acne Fulminans. High levels of testosterone and P. acnes |
|
|
Term
| Rosacea is a common skin condition that involves __________ and ___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the 4 types of rosacea. |
|
Definition
| 1) Vascular 2) Acne 3) Phymatous 4) Occular |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of rosacea? Describe its presentation. |
|
Definition
| Vascular, facial redness that spares the periorbital area |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Papules and pustules w/ central facial redness and telangiectasias |
|
|
Term
| Describe the presentation in phymatous rosacea. |
|
Definition
| Skin thickening and irregular surface |
|
|
Term
| Where does phymatous rosacea affect? |
|
Definition
| MC the nose (rhinophyma), also chin, forehead, eyelids |
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for phymatous rosacea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Usu. chronic blepharitis and conjunctivitis, dryness, sting/burning of eyes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Sun, alcohol, heat, exercise, spicy foods, alcohol |
|
|
Term
| A chronic inflammatory skin disease characterized by pruritus, erythema, a prediliction for skin creases, and a relapsing course. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ~90% of cases of AD occur before age ___. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What makes up the atopic triad? |
|
Definition
| Asthma, Allergic rhinitis, AD |
|
|
Term
| What is the most consistent sx of AD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the stepwise progression of the clinical presentation of AD. |
|
Definition
| Scratching - excoriation - lichenification - skin breakdown |
|
|
Term
| When does infant AD typ occur? |
|
Definition
| 2-6mths of age, 50% resolve by 18 mths |
|
|
Term
| What parts of the infant's skin does AD typ affect? |
|
Definition
| Cheeks, chin, forehead, and scalp |
|
|
Term
| Describe the rash in infant AD. |
|
Definition
| Itchy, red, often w/ scaling. Pruritus makes infant restless. |
|
|
Term
| What parts of the skin does the childhood stage of AD typ. affect? |
|
Definition
| Flexural areas - antecubital and popliteal fossae, wrists and ankles |
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|
Term
| Describe the rash in the childhood stage of AD. |
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Definition
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Term
| What aggravates the pruritic sx of AD? |
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Definition
| Perspiration, dry air, cold, stress, harsh fabrics (wool) |
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Term
| When does the adult stage of AD begin? |
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Definition
| At puberty when sx worsen or begin, subsides by age 30 |
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Term
| Describe the skin in adult AD. |
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Definition
| Dry, itchy, reddened and cracked - often lichenification |
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Term
| Describe the distribution of skin areas affected by adult AD. |
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Definition
| Can be flexural as in children or more localized (hands, periorbital, or anogenital) |
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Term
| 80% of pts w/ AD have elevated ______. |
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Definition
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Term
| Guidelines for dx of AD requires that a pt has ____ of _____ major criteria or __ of __ minor features. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the major criteria for dx of AD? |
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Definition
| 1)Pruritus 2)Affects flexural in adults or extensor/face in infants 3)Chronic or relapsing dermatitis 4)Fam h/o atopic triad d/o |
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Term
| A complication of AD is secondary infection w/ what organisms? |
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Definition
| Staph (primary), strep, or herpes |
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Term
| What are the 5 steps for tx AD? |
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Definition
| 1)Education 2)Prevention 3)Mild sx despite routine care 4)Mid-potency steroids and Calcineurin inhibitors 5)Referral |
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Term
| Name 3 ways to prevent flares of AD. |
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Definition
| 1)Moisturize (Moisturel, eucerin, Aquaphor, Vaseline) 2)Avoid perfumed soaps/lotions 3)Decrease bathtime |
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Term
| What meds are used to tx AD w/ mild sx depsite daily care? |
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Definition
| 1)Mild topical steroids (hydrocortisone) 2)Oral antihistamine (claritin, zyrtec, benadryl) |
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Term
| What are advantages to using Calcineurin to tx AD? what is the mechanism of action? Name 2 ex. Who should not use them? |
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Definition
| No skin atrophy or striae. Stop T cells and mast cells from releasing cytokines. Elidel (Pimecrolimus) and protopic (Tacrolimus). Immunocompromised pts. |
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Term
| When would you use 1st generation Cephalosporins to tx AD? |
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Definition
| Honey crust, pustules, cellulitis, unexpected flares and recalcitrant cases |
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Term
| If MRSA is suspected, what abx are used? The nose is a major reservoir of S. aureus, what would you use? |
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Definition
| Bactrim or clindamycin. Mupiricin (bactroban) applied to the nose. |
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Term
| What is the common name for seborrheic dermatitis in children? Adults? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the pathophysiology of seborrheic dermatitis? |
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Definition
| Poss. Malasezia furfur (skin saprophyte) or Pityrosporum yeast. Hyperproliferation of skin/excess oil secretion. |
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Term
| Describe the clinical findings in seborrheic dermatitis. |
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Definition
| Moist papules w/ yellow, greasy scaling, erythema, mild pruritus |
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Term
| Describe the distribution of affected areas in seborrheic dermatitis. |
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Definition
| Lateral side of nose, nasolabial folds, eyebrows, scalp (dandruff) |
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Term
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Definition
| 1)Frequent washings 2)Antiproliferative shampoos (T-Gel - Tar), Selsun - Se, Head and Shoulders - Zn) 3)Antifungal shampoos (ketoconazole, ciclopirox) |
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Term
| Name 2 other tx for seborrheic dermatitis (other than shampoos). |
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Definition
| Topical steroids and topical or systemic antifungals |
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Term
| What might you think if a pt has severe seborrheic dermatitis? What other dz is seborrheic dermatitis a common finding? |
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Definition
| HIV (up to 80% of AIDS pt have it). Parkinson's dz. |
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Term
| Describe the appearance of nummular dermatitis. |
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Definition
| Generalized, intensely pruritic coin-shaped patches of eczematous dermatitis |
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Term
| Who is nummular eczema more common in? Describe the distribution of skin affected. |
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Definition
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Term
| Name 3 tx for nummular eczema. |
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Definition
| Topical steroid (ointment), moisturization, light tx. Very difficult to tx - variable and unpredictable outbreaks. |
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Term
| Who does dyshidrotic dermatitis typ affect? It is AKA? |
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Definition
| Women - early 20's and Men - mid-40's usu. w/ an atopic hx. Pompholyx. |
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Term
| Describe the clinical presentation of dyshidrotic dermatitis. Describe the areas of distribution. |
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Definition
| Intensely pruritic, recurrent, vesicular lesions 1-5mm diameter w/ clear fluid. Palms and soles, lateral aspects of fingers. |
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Term
| What is the tx for dyshidrotic dermatitis? (4) |
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Definition
| 1)Wet dressings bid 2)Med. to potent topical corticosteroids 3)Oral antihistamines 4)UVA or x-ray in recurrent cases. |
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Term
| Who does perioral dermatitis typ. affect? |
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Definition
| Young women and children 7mths to 13yrs (girls=boys) |
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Term
| The exact etiology of perioral dermatitis is unknown, but what are 3 possible causes? |
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Definition
| 1)Skin intolerance to beauty products 2)Drying agents (benzoyl peroxide, alcohol based products) 3)Bacterial |
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Term
| Describe the clinical presentation of perioral dermatitis and distribution areas. |
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Definition
| Pustules and papules resembling acne around nasolabial folds and chin, sparing the vermilion border |
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Term
| How is perioral dermatitis tx? (3) |
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Definition
| 1)Stop heavy moisturizers, steroids, and cosmetics 3)Use mild soap 4)Topical or oral abx |
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Term
| Stasis dermatitis is an eczematous reaction in pts w/ ______. |
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Definition
| Venous insufficiency in lower legs and ankles (medial malleolus) |
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Term
| Describe subacute stasis dermatitis. |
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Definition
| In winter mths legs become dry and scaly, pruritic (itching worsens it), darkening of skin. |
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Term
| What is used to tx subacute stasis dermatitis? |
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Definition
| Topical corticosteroid ointments (II-V) and Lubricants |
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Term
| Describe acute stasis dermatitis. |
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Definition
| Red, superficial, pruritic plaque, may have cellulitis, weeps and dev. crusts. |
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Term
| Describe chronic stasis dermatitis. |
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Definition
| Cyanotic red plaque over medial malleolus, skin thickening, cycles of healing and recurrent attacks (skin remains thick and dark during healing times) |
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Term
| Name 4 tx for acute/chronic stasis dermatitis. |
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Definition
| 1)Topical steroids (III-V) 2)Oral abx if cellulitis 3)Wet dressings 4)Compression hose |
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Term
| An eruption that is created by habitual scratching of eczematous dermatitis in a single localized area, AKA neurodermatitis. |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the clinical presentation of lichen complex chronicus. |
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Definition
| Very thick oval plaque, usu. just one lesion, severe itching, lichenification. |
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Term
| Tx for Lichen complex chronicus? |
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Definition
| Stop itching!! Topical steroids or oral if severe. |
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