Term
T/F: The National Drug Code (NDC) is always required on all drug labeling? |
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Definition
False: NDC is requested on labeling but is not required |
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Term
The NDC code consists of ___ characters |
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Definition
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Term
What are parts of the NDC code? |
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Definition
Labeler code = 1st 5 numbers - identifies the distributor/manufacturer
Drug product code = middle 3 digits - identifies drug classe (unique to drug)
Package = last 2 digits - identifies amount in package |
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Term
Identify the 3 NDC segments: Benadryl® Liquid Medication 120ml NDC 0501 2050 04 |
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Definition
Labeler code = 05012 (1st 5 digits)
Drug product code = 050 (6th-8th digits)
Package = 04 (last 2 digits) |
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Term
A display of written, printed or graphic matter upon the immediate container of any article; printed, written or graphic material that is literally affixed to the container of the drug |
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Definition
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Term
All labels and other written printed or graphic matters either upon any container or any of its wrappers or accompanying such article; printed, written or graphic material that is enclosed with or accompanies the drug once it enters interstate commerce and is put up for sale after shipment. |
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Definition
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Term
__ determines date of the prescription or the date of its filling or refill. |
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Definition
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Term
Section 503 (b)(2) of the Prescription Label Act/OBRA Act requires that prescription label have the following 6 information: |
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Definition
· Name and address of the dispenser (pharmacy)
· Serial number of the prescription
· Date of the prescription or the date of its filling (or refilling)---state law often determines which date is to be used
· Name of the prescriber
· Name of the patient
· Directions for use, including precautions, if any, as indicated on the prescription |
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Term
These 6 things are not required by federal law and are left to the discretion of the individual states. |
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Definition
· Address of the patient
· Initials of dispensing pharmacist
· Telephone number of the pharmacy
· Drug name, strength, and manufacturer’s lot number
· Beyond-use date (if any)
· Name of manufacturer or distributor |
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Term
What is the purpose of labeling of a manufacturer's container? |
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Definition
to inform and alert the prescriber and the dispensing pharmacist. |
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Term
a form which can be redeemed at no cost, or at a reduced cost for a drug bearing one of the federal legends |
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Definition
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Term
T/F: No person may sell, purchase or trade, offer to sell, purchase or trade or counterfeit a drug coupon.
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Definition
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Term
drugs that have the same therapeutic effect |
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Definition
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Term
drugs that are the same molecule, dose,salt form and dosage form. They dissolve, metabolize and are eliminated the same way. |
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Definition
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Term
refers to drug products that contain the same therapeutic moiety BUT may consist of different salts, esters or complexes, dosage forms, strengths |
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Definition
Pharmaceutical equivalent |
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Term
T/F: Most states allow substitution between pharmaceutical alternatives. |
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Definition
False: Most states do NOT allow substitution between pharmaceutical alternatives |
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Term
Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations |
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Definition
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Term
such products are determined to be bioequivalent and are thus "therapeutically equivalent" to the brand name or reference product.
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Definition
A-rated products on Orange Book |
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Term
these are products that are found not to be bioequivalent |
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Definition
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Term
some drug products identified by the FDA as having actual or potential bioequivalence problems, may be acceptable substitutes if the equivalency problem has been resolved by in vivo and/or in vitro studies. |
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Definition
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Term
designation which signifies that the product meets "necessary bioequivalence requirements" |
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Definition
AB-products on the Orange Book |
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Term
products not presenting bioequivalent problems in conventional dosage forms |
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Definition
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Term
Solutions and powders for aerosolization |
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Definition
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Term
Injectable products with oil solvents |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Adequate and well-controlled studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester of pregnancy (and there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters). |
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Definition
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Term
Animal reproduction studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women. |
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Definition
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Term
Animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks. |
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Definition
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Term
There is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks. |
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Definition
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Term
Studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities and/or there is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience, and the risks involved in use of the drug in pregnant women clearly outweigh potential benefits. |
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Definition
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Term
Orange Book is updated ___ |
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Definition
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Term
Established five schedules of controlled substances; the schedules reflect the relative potential for abuse. |
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Definition
Controlled Substance Act of 1970 |
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Term
Drugs in these schedule are not to be prescribed since they dont have any accepted medical use. |
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Definition
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Term
Drugs in this schedule have currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States or a currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions
* abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to severe psychologic or physical dependence |
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Definition
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Term
abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychologic dependence. |
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Definition
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Term
The authority to decide in which schedule a drug is placed is vested in the ___ |
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Definition
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Term
What is considered a narcotic? |
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Definition
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Term
T/F: All controlled substances are considered narcotics. |
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Definition
False: all narcotics are controlled substances, but not all controlled substances are narcotics. |
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Term
Every person or firm who manufactures, distributes, or dispenses any controlled substances or who proposes to engage in the same must register with the ____ |
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Definition
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Term
T/F: A pharmacy may be registered to dispense controlled substances to other registrants, for example, to physicians for their office use. |
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Definition
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Term
- New Application for Retail Pharmacy, Hospital/Clinic, Practitioner, Teaching Institution, or Mid-Level Practitioner.
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Definition
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Term
- New Application for Manufacturer, Distributor, Researcher, Analytical Laboratory, Importer, Exporter
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Definition
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Term
New Application for Narcotic Treatment Programs |
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Definition
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Term
- New Application for Domestic Chemical
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Definition
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Term
DEA registration numbers consist of ___ characters |
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Definition
9 (2 letters and 7 numbers) |
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Term
What does this DEA registration letters mean when it is the 1st letter of the DEA number?
A, B, M, F, P |
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Definition
A - dispenser
B- dispenser
M- midlevel practitioner
F - dispenser
P - distributor |
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Term
When selling controlled substances from one pharmacy to another, if the total amount of such sales to practitioners exceeds ____ distributed and dispensed during any 12-month period, the pharmacy must register as a ____ as well. |
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Definition
5% of the total dosage units
distributor |
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Term
T/F: A practitioner who compounds a mixture containing a controlled substance and administers it to a patient pursuant to a valid prescription is required to register as a manufacturer. |
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Definition
False: a practitioner who compounds a mixture containing a controlled substance and administers it to a patient pursuant to a valid prescription is not required to register as a manufacturer. |
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Term
The DEA can get any record from a pharmacy except these 3 records without permission of the registrant. |
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Definition
1. Financial record
2. Sales record
3. Pricing record |
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Term
Acquisition and transfer of Schedule I & II drugs between two institutions require a ___ which is a triplicate form |
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Definition
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Term
Name the 3 common mistakes made on DEA 222 form. |
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Definition
1. Form is used to order non-CIIs (only C-I & IIs can be ordered using form 222)
2. Ordering more than 10 scheduled drugs on form 222
3. Erasing errors, instead of crossing them out |
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Term
What type of DEA forms are used for CIII-V? |
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Definition
No DEA form needed - these drugs are considered not to be as dangerous. |
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Term
In case of theft of controlled substance, what should you the Texas pharmacist do? |
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Definition
1. Notify the DEA, DPS and TSBP
2. Complete DEA form 106 and mail it to the above departments and keep on for your records. |
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Term
The primary records of dispersals by a pharmacy are ___ |
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Definition
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Term
T/F: controlled substance prescriptions can be kept together with other prescriptions. |
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Definition
False: controlled substance prescriptions must be kept segregated from other prescriptions to make them quickly and easily identifiable |
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Term
What is the approved filing method allowed in Texas? |
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Definition
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Term
Examples of Schedule I drugs |
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Definition
LSD, PCP, marijuana, mescaline, heroin |
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Term
Valium®, Ativan®, Ambien® belong to what schedule? |
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Definition
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Term
Tylenol® with codeine #3, anabolic steroids, growth hormone belongs to what schedule? |
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Definition
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Term
What class do these belong to: cocaine, morphine, Dilaudid, fentanyl, amphetamine, secobarbital, pentobarbital, methylphenidate, Ritalin®, Tylox®, Demerol®, Mepergan Fortis® |
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Definition
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Term
Add a new Subchapter H that gives DPS the authority to access administrative penalties on registrants who violate the law. The amount of the penalty my not exceed ____ for each violation/day nor exceed a total of ____ |
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Definition
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Term
When controlled substance is received from manufacturer, purchaser must record on his retained copy of the order form (DEA 222) the ___ and ___ |
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Definition
number of bulk containers of each item and the date received. |
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Term
How can a pharmacy return schedule merchandise back to manufacturer? |
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Definition
Pharmacist contacts distributor and request that the distributor/wholesaler issue an order form, the pharmacist "fills" the order form with the mdse. he/she is returning. The pharmacy (acting as a distributor) would retain one copy and forward one to the DEA. |
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Term
A supplier must complete the shipment pursuant to an order form within _____; order form is void ___ after purchaser executes form |
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Definition
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Term
Before using the electronic ordering 222 form a DEA registrant must appoint a ____ who will serve as that registrant’s recognized agent regarding issues pertaining to issuance of, revocation of, and changes to digital certificates issued under that registrant’s DEA registration. |
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Definition
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Term
T/F: A CSOS Certificate may not be installed into multiple software programs and may also be transferred to multiple ordering computers |
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Definition
False: A CSOS Certificate may be installed into multiple software programs and may also be transferred to multiple ordering computers |
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Term
Triplicate order system (DEA 222) is for ___ and ___only |
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Definition
C-I and C-II only
- not for CIII to CIV due to less chance of abuse |
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Term
Acquisition records of these scheduled substances consist of ____or ___ from the wholesaler/distributor/supplier |
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Definition
invoices or packing slips |
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Term
____ must contain number of dosage units or volume dispensed, name and address of the person to whom the drug is dispensed, date, name/initials of dispensing pharmacist. |
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Definition
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Term
The primary records of dispersals by a pharmacy are ___ |
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Definition
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Term
Records of this 6 categories of drugs must be maintained separately including prescription files, invoices and receipts , inventories |
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Definition
Schedule II -V and dangerous drugs |
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Term
Inventories and records are to be kept under the federal and Texas regulations for ____years from the date such inventory and records are made |
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Definition
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Term
These 2 controlled drugs can be sold without prescription. Which one is the sale prohibited in Texas? |
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Definition
More than 8 ounces or 48 units of opium products ex. Donnagel PG; Parepectolin, Kapectolin PG, Kaolin Pectin P.G.
or
> 4 ounces or 24 units of codeine - in Tx sale is prohibited without prescription |
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Term
When doing inventory of the pharmacyan exact count or measure of ___ and __ is mandatory, but estimates of ___ are ok. |
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Definition
C1 & CII = mandatory
but an estimate for CIII-V |
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Term
Inventories must be kept at the registered location for ___ |
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Definition
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Term
At the time a drug is added to the list of controlled substances, the ___notice usually specifies the date when inventories must be taken. |
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Definition
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Term
Annual inventory is required for all controlled substances plus all dosage forms of __and ___
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Definition
nalbuphine (Nubain) and carisoprodol (Soma) |
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Term
After inventory, the PIC must sign the inventory record within ___ |
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Definition
72 hours or 3 working days |
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Term
Notify the board in writing within ___ that a change of PIC has occurred |
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Definition
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Term
__ is required for Schedule II drugs in Class C (institutional) pharmacies only |
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Definition
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