Term
| (T/F) A horse that is resting a hind foot is usually upset |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) When approaching a horse, you should approach from the right side and cluck |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) When tying a horse to a stationary object, you should use a quick release knot at the level of the poll |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(T/F) The safest way to move around a horse is to be as close to the hindquarters as possible, using a firm touch and talking to them
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) When placing a bandage on the distal limb of a horse, it is acceptable to place one of your knees on the ground to stabilze yourself |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) The curry comb should never be used on the lower limb of a horse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Thrush is commonly seen in moist, muddy conditions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) A halter, lead rope, and a twich should be in place during all medical procedures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) The pectoral muscles are a site that may be used for IM injections in the horse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) The proper method for obtaining a respiratory rate in horses is to watch the nostrils for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) When ausculting the lungs of a horse, it is normal to hear loud, prominent lung sounds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F)When bandaging, the vetwrap is applied distal to proximal to prevent pooling of blood in the extremity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) AMDUCA's Animal Medical Drug Use Clarification Act states that there must be a valid patient-client-veterinarian relationship in order to use a drug "extra label" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) The preferred injectable route of administration in beed cattle is subcutaneous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Diethyl Stilbestrol must never be used in cattle for any reason |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Naxel is an acceptable antibiotic for use in food animals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Banamine is commonly used NSAID for a horse that is colicky |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Acepromazine can saely be given as a tranquilizer to geldings |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) The normal volume for bull ejaculate is about 5 ml |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) It is acceptable practice to use an electro-ejaculator for a fractious stallion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(T/F) Bull semen collection is performed by using an androgenized steer, never a cow
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Rapid cooling (cold shock) can cause abnormal motility and morphology in sperm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) 80% of body weight is water in the adult horse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(T/F) Total protein will increase to >8.0 g/dl in an animal that is >10% dehydrated
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) It is safe to administer up to 5 gallons of water through an orogastric tube to a cow that is lying in lateral recumbency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which grooming instrument should be last, as a finishing brush?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which piece of information is included in the subjective portion of the PE form
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is considered to be normal TPR for a horse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What anatomical structure is located in the RUQ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What anatomical structure is located in the LLQ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which route of administration is the Strangles vaccine given to a horse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following drugs is commonly administered through a "dial-a-dose" |
|
Definition
All of the above
(De-wormer, Banamine paste, Bute paste) |
|
|
Term
| Twitches work as a restrain device by: |
|
Definition
B & C
(Distraction and Endorphin release) |
|
|
Term
| Which twitch is designed for use when no assistant is available, and one must work alone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the best form of restraint for a mare when doing a repro exam? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Acepromazine is characterized as a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following drugs can be reversed by a drug called Yohimbine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following drugs is prohibited in cattle due to the potential to cause aplastic anemia in humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following drugs is used as anti-inflammatory and free-radical scavenger. This drug can be used topically or IV and can readily be absorbed through your skin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bandages may be used for: |
|
Definition
All of the above
(Protection, Support, Decrease edema, Decrease granulation tissue) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Draw out edema and toxins |
|
|
Term
| How often should a saline wrap be placed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following statements is true regarding the procedure for bandaging a horse's leg? |
|
Definition
All of the above are true
(Begin the bandage at mid-cannon bone, pull tension over the tendon not the cannon, overlap the vetwrap by 50%, Leave 0.5-1 inch of padding exposed at the distal and proximal ends) |
|
|
Term
| What type of stain is used in assessing sperm morphology? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is considered normal percentage of progressively motile sperm for a stallion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is considered normal total sperm ejaculate volume for a bull? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is an example of a condition that would cause electrolyte loss in large animal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which percentage of dehydration would you estimate a calf to be if they have cold extremities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is considered to be contiuing losses in a horse requiring fluid therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When susceptible cattle are kept at high elevations, pulmonary arterial hypertension can progress to congestive heat failure, with peripheral edema, venous congestion and ultimately death. The incidence of this disease can be reduced, through testing and elimination of susceptible breeding cattle from the herd, based on measurements obtained with one of the following tests? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary Arterial Pressure (PAP) |
|
|
Term
| What is the common name for the above pulmonary hypertensive disease when it progresses to congestive right heart failure with peripheral edema? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common methods used to examine the internal reproductive organs of the mare or cow, to determine pregnancy status, examine the ovaries, etc.? |
|
Definition
Rectal palpation
and
Ultrasonography |
|
|
Term
| The culture swab that is typically used to obtain an un-contaminated culture from the uterus of large animals is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) A pulse of 75 bpm in sheep is high |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Sheep have incisors on the top but not the bottom |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Flushing in sheep is increasing the plain of nutrition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long is gestation in sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) A temperature of 105 is high for goats |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) If you prematurely tear the umpilicus the newborn could be anemic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Breaking the water is the common term for the breakage of the amnion sac |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term for the act of parturition in the doe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) A doeling is a young female sheep |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Relaxation of the sacro-sciatic ligaments |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Stages of parturition in the mature cow occur faster than in the mare? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
"Waxing" means what and when does it occur?
|
|
Definition
| Dried colostrum/ 48 hours prepartum |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) During parturition you want to interfere as soon as possible |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Placental expulsion
(matching stages of parturition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Springing
(matching stages of parturition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Amnion forced into cervix
(matching stages of parturition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Waxing
(matching stages of parturition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Breaking of water
(matching stages of parturition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dilation and relaxation of maternal crypts
(matching stages of parturition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Last 2-3 hrs. in cow, 1-2 hrs. in a horse
(matching stages of parturition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cervix 3/4 dilated, fetal extension
(matching stages of parturition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Last 3/4-1 hr. in cow, 30 min. in horse
(matching stages of parturition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Separation of maternal and fetal placenta
(matching stages of parturition)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Calf/foal born
(matching stages of parturition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Typically only female foals have a problem with rupturing their bladder during parturition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Because horses' anatomy is so different from a cat, we need a special ophthalmoscope to properly view the eye |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) It is less common to perform surgery on the nasolacrimal duct in large animal than in small animal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Biopsy
(matching test to body system) |
|
Definition
| Dermatologic, Hemolymphatic |
|
|
Term
Clotting profile
(matching test to body system) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Combined Immunodeficiency Testing
(matching test to body system) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CSF Evaluation
(matching test to body system) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Skin Scraping
(matching test to body system) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Serum Chemistry
(matching test to body system) |
|
Definition
| Hemolymphatic, Urinary, Neurologic |
|
|
Term
Detect fluid in the thoracic cavity in the patient greater than 400 lbs.
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Guttural pouch exam
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Evaluation of heart function
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Evaluation of the lung field in patient less than 400 lbs.
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Larynx evaluation
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ovulation Prediction
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Testicular imaging
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bladder rupture in a foal
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cervical Spine Evaluation
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Detect consolidated areas of the lungs in a patient greater than 400 lbs.
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pregnancy confirmation
(matching procedure to tool) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Sheep and goats have a split lip and cattle don't |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What part of the ruminant stomach do heavier items fall into first? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hardware disease in cattle and other ruminants, is the result of: |
|
Definition
B and C
(Nails, wire and other sharp metallic objects that can puncture the reticulum, cause peritonitis and sometimes migrate into the pericardial sac. Ruminants indiscriminately eat their feed without chewing and inedible foreign materials are swallowed along with the feed) |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a more severe condition, an actual torsion of the abomasum, requiring immediate surgery for correction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the ruminant stomach has acid and enzymatic digestion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the ruminant stomach is where fresh feed lies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which part of the ruminant stomach is where a majority of FA and water absorbtion occurs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Bacterial and protozoan digestion by the ruminant stomach contributes to the total protein value of their diet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Gastric ulcers are more common in the adult horse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Mycobacterium avium var. paratuberculosis (Johnes dz) cause a malabsorptive disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Low IgG due to low quality colostrum |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the most common bacterial pathogen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main affect of the viral neonatal diarrheal pathogens? |
|
Definition
| Villus atrophy causing decreased fluid and nutrient absorption |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a large GPROD, anaerobic, exotoxin producer that can cause sudden death due to toemia without diarrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following neonatal dirrheal pathogen is or are zoonotic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The main cause of death in the scouring neonate is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is most widespread diarrheal virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is the preferred IV fluid solution for scouring neonates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What affect can oral bicarb solutions have on the neonate? |
|
Definition
| Prevents curd formation furthering the diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| What is the main affect of E. coli? |
|
Definition
| Endotoxin disrupts cell membrane causing loss of fluids and electrolytes |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) A calf puller can be used in a horse dystocia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for ketosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) A boar is a neutered male pig |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Hogs are monogastric and have a spiral colon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long is gestation in sows? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term for the act of parturition in swine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is the term for a neutered male hog? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A hog comes in with a temperature of 101.9, pulse of 72 and repiration rate of 20 bpm. Which statement is true? |
|
Definition
| Temp is normal, Pulse normal, Respiration increased |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Hogs number of thoracic vertebrae is always 14 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Retained placentas are a very serious problem in cows compared to horses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What post partum condition is due to excessive calcium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During stage 2 of parturition you should assist in delivery if longer than |
|
Definition
| 40 minutes in a mare and 2 hours in a cow |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of dystocia in cattle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F)During parturition you want to interfere as soon as possible |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What foot and leg conformation causes winging? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What foot and leg conformation causes paddling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Standing Under Behind or Camped Under is a conformational defect in some horses. What medical condition would cause a horse with normal conformation to assume a camped under stance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which age range is it most likely to be successful in correcting conformational defects in the lower legs of a horse through the use of surgery, splints and therapeutic hoof trimming |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a horse has too steep a slope (too upright or too large an angle from horizontal) of the pastern it will predispose the horse to: |
|
Definition
| Concussive injury to the inter-pharlangeal joints and fetlock joint |
|
|
Term
| If a horse has too shallow a slope (too small an angle from horizontal of the pastern it will predispose the horse to |
|
Definition
| strain injuries to the flexor tendons and suspensory ligaments |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) One of the surgical procedures that can be used to treat valgus or varus angular limb deformities is periosteal stripping. This procedure is performed adjacent to the growth plate on the concave surface of the deformed limb |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which one of the following are congenital anomalies in foals/calves? (circle all that apply) |
|
Definition
| Arthrogryposis, kyphosis, lordosis, club foot |
|
|
Term
| If a horse displays lameness only when tested by trotting in a tight circle. What grade of lameness would the horse have, using AAEP grading system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Exertional rhabdomyolosis (Monday Morning Disease or Myoglobinuria) can best be described as: |
|
Definition
| Muscle fiber damage or death, resulting from intra-muscular lactic acidosis, arteriole constriction and ischemia, when a predisposed horse is not warmed up properly |
|
|
Term
| Navicular disease occurs in what structure of the foot of the horse? |
|
Definition
| Distal phalangeal sesamoid bone |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following are common DJD conditions, that includes osteophyte formation? Select all that apply |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In neonatal calves and foals, septic arthritis can result from septicemia. A common infection that can result in septicemia and septic arthritis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following conditions belong to the osteochondrosis complex |
|
Definition
| Osteochondritis Dessicans, Physitis or epiphysitis, sub-chondral bone cysts |
|
|
Term
| The Osteochondrosis Complex typically occurs in rapidly growing young animals, on a high level of nutrition. Which of the following also predispose the animal to osteochondrosis: |
|
Definition
| Feeding a diet deficient in trace minerals and calcium (low Ca:P ratio) |
|
|
Term
| In chronic laminitis with coffin bone rotation, the hoof wall may become overgrown and curl upwards at the toe. Which of the following best describes the cause: |
|
Definition
| Differential growth of the hoof wall with decreased hoof wall growth on anterior hoof wall relative to the heal |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following are part of the pathogenesis of degenerative joint disease: (select all that apply) |
|
Definition
| Exposure of sub-chondral bone |
|
|
Term
| Bog spavin is a condition of the tibio-tarsal joint. Which of the following best describes bog spavin? |
|
Definition
| Fluid distension of the tibio-tarsal joint |
|
|
Term
| Which procedures are emplowed in treatment of hoof cracks? Circle all that apply |
|
Definition
Debride crack and stabilize with wire lacing.
Acrylic patch of debrided crack.
Hoof wall resection in serious cases |
|
|
Term
| Gravel is an infection of the equine hoof structures. Which of the following best describes this process |
|
Definition
| Gravel begins with a break in the hoof at the junction of the sole and hoof wall. This injury becomes infected and the infection migrates into the deep tissues of the sensitive lamina. Migration may cause abscessation at the coronary band |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Hyperkalemic Periodic Paresis (HYPP) is a genetic disorder commonly found in Quarter Horses descendent from a stallion named "Impressive" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(T/F) Hot feed like grain can cause a condition known as founder which can lead to which type of laminitis?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This condition results from trauma to the suprascapular nerve and is common in draft horse breeds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Trauma to joint capsule, ligaments and associaled soft tissues
(matching term with definition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An injury affecting appearance but not funtion
(matching term with definition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characterized by injury or disease that interferes with normal, desirable function of that animal
(matching term with definition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Exhibiting normal health; free of injury or disease; having the capacity to perform the function intended for that animal
(matching term with definition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Excessive proliferation of granulation tissue when wounds heal via second intention
(matching term with definition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Overstretching of a muscle or tendon due to excessive tension or over-use
(matching term with definition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A departure from normal stance or gait
(matching term with definition) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Horse has a fractured left tibia and is non-weight bearing on the leg
(AAEP system of grading lameness)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Horse is always lame at trot
(AAEP system of grading lameness)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Horse comes to the clinic with a complaint of lameness but it is not apparent when trotting the horse in a straight line
(AAEP system of grading lameness)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Horse appears to be nodding its head and is consistently lame during all parts of the lameness exam
(AAEP system of grading lameness)
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) The name of the block used for a c-section is a parallel block? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) The incision for a c-section is on the midline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which parasite can cause Verminous Arteritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bovine respiratory disease has a morbiditiy of up to 100%, but a low mortality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Potomac Horse Fever is caused by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) The small strongyles larval stages are difficult to treat at the routine dosage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which equine virus is known for causing URI and abortions? |
|
Definition
| Equine viral rhinopneumonitis |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following parasite in foals can cause ileo-cecal valve obstruction with after deworming |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bovine respiratory virus is called Red Nose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following causes "summer sores" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) In order to control parasites it is recommended to worm all horses at the same time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whenis it best to treat for Gasterophilus sp? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) A c-section can be done with the cow lying down in lateral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Dopram is a respiratory stimulate given to non breathing calves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (T/F) The first thing a technician should do once the calf is removed from sterile field is to assist the veterinarian with suturing the incision |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which parasite can cause a "summer cough"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which parasite causes tail rubbing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following acn cause 2-5 mm blisters, pustules on the genitalia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often are mares vaccinated during pregnancy to prevent EHV-1 abortions? |
|
Definition
| 5, 7, 9 month's gestation |
|
|
Term
| Which equine parasite has an indirect life cycle with the oribatid mite as the intermediate host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What equine parasite is most harmful? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common time of the ear to see fibrous impaction colic is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Retained meconium in a newborn foal is usually treated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An accumulation of gas in a section of the gastro-intestinal tract |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following are physical injuries to the gastro-intestinal tract that may result in occlusion of the bowel lumen and/or obstruction of the venous flow from the affected section of the bowel. Select all that apply |
|
Definition
Torsion.
Strangulation or incarceration.
Intussusception |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following analgesics is the best choice for routine treatment of a horse with colic due to impaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| It is best to try and prevent sand impaction than to treat it once it occurs. Which of the follwoing would be included in a prevention plan. |
|
Definition
| Feed psyllium in grain mix |
|
|
Term
| (T/F) Equine colic prevention includes routine dental care, regular exercise and a regular feeding schedule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which functional division of veterinary medicine includes nutrition, vaccination, diagnostics, therapy and reproduction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following statements best describes a phenotypic trait |
|
Definition
| A characteristic that is the result of gene expression and environmental influences |
|
|
Term
| EPD and PTA statistics are calculated from: |
|
Definition
| Statistical analysis of phenotypic trait measuremnts from the individual, its ancestors, sibilings and progeny |
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Term
| EPD is the abbreviation for |
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Definition
| Expected Progeny Difference |
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Term
| PTA is the abbreviation for: |
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Definition
| Predicted Transmitting Ability |
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Term
| Purposes for a physcial exam include: |
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Definition
All of the above
(insurance exam, pre-purchase exam, diagnosis, performance problem) |
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Term
| While evaluating the musculoskeletal system what TWO special test are often combined for a complete diagnosis |
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Definition
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Term
| (T/F) When evaluating synovial fluid, one of the components you analyze is the protein content |
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Definition
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Term
| (T/F) Serum Chemistry (chem panels) for the equine patient always include CPK |
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Definition
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Term
| When utilizing nerve blocks for lameness evaluation to localize the source of the lameness you would: |
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Definition
| Start at the coffin joint and work proximally |
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Term
| A 30 month old horse could be considered a 2 year old |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the gestation length in the mare? |
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Definition
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Term
| An intact adolescent male horse is a: |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the correct dental formula for a horse? |
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Definition
| 2(I3/3C0-1/0-1PM3-4/3M3/3) |
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Term
| The normal pulse for an adult cow is |
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Definition
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Term
| The true stomach is called the ______ |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the vertebral formula in cattle |
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Definition
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Term
Heart Rate
(matching region with what you are evaluating) |
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Definition
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Term
Cecum Tympany
(matching region with what you are evaluating |
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Definition
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Term
Gut sounds
(matching region with what you are evaluating |
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Definition
| Left side abdomen and right side abdomen |
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Term
Auscultation after administering a rebreathing test
(matching region with what you are evaluating |
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Definition
| Left side thorax and right side thorax |
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Term
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Definition
| left side legs and right side legs |
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