Term
Glucose is a: a. atom b. molecule c. organelle d. filament |
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Definition
a. atom b. molecule c. organelle d. filament |
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Term
What happens to the body when homeostasis breaks down? a. disease b. organ system malfunction c. death d. all of these |
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Definition
a. disease b. organ system malfunction c. death d. all of these |
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Term
If a surgeon makes an incision just inferior to the diaphragm which body cavity will be opened? a. abdominopelvic cavity b. pleural cavity c. dorsal cavity d. pericardial cavity |
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Definition
a. abdominopelvic cavity b. pleural cavity c. dorsal cavity d. pericardial cavity |
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Term
Midsagittal section separates the two eyes? True/False |
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Definition
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Term
Of the two serous membranes covering the outer surface, the outer membrane is called parietal pericardium. True/False |
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Definition
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Term
The serous membrane covering the abdominopelvic cavity is called the: a. pericardium b. peritonieum c. pleura d. visceral |
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Definition
a. pericardium b. peritonieum c. pleura d. visceral |
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Term
In positive feedback, the initial stimulus produces a response that: a. suppress the stimulus b. has no effect on stimulus c. interferes with process d. exaggerates the stimulus |
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Definition
a. suppress the stimulus b. has no effect on stimulus c. interferes with process d. exaggerates the stimulus |
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Term
Which of the following regions corresponds to the lower back? a. pelvic b. cephalic c. gluteal d. lumbar e. thoracic |
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Definition
a. pelvic b. cephalic c. gluteal d. lumbar e. thoracic |
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Term
Which organ is located within the pleural cavity? a. heart b. small intestine c. lung d. spleen e. stomach |
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Definition
a. heart b. small intestine c. lung d. spleen e. stomach |
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Term
Name the four primary systems that are involved in homeostasis of body fluid volume. |
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Definition
digestive cardiovascular urinary integumentary |
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Term
The pituitary gland and thyroid gland are organs of the _____ system. a. endocrine b. cardiovascular c. respiratory d. lymphatic e. digestive |
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Definition
a. endocrine b. cardiovascular c. respiratory d. lymphatic e. digestive |
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Term
Skin, hair and naills are associated with the ____ system. a. skeletal b. musclular c. integumentary d. endocrine e. both a and b |
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Definition
a. skeletal b. musclular c. integumentary d. endocrine e. both a and b |
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Term
The liver is primarily located in the ____ region a. left inguinal b. right inguinal c. epigastric d. left lumbar e. right lumbar |
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Definition
a. left inguinal b. right inguinal c. epigastric d. left lumbar e. right lumbar |
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Term
What is the functional significance of gap junctions? a. they maintain waater tight passages b. they resist stretching and twisting c. they coordinate the function of tissue d. they attach cells to extracellular matrix |
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Definition
a. they maintain waater tight passages b. they resist stretching and twisting c. they coordinate the function of tissue d. they attach cells to extracellular matrix |
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Term
Many allergy sufferers take antihistamines to relieve their allergy symptoms. Which type of cell produces the molecule that this medication blocks |
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Definition
a. eosinopholis b. mast cells c. basophils d. both b and c |
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Term
If someone has a herniated introvertebral disc, what type of cartilage is damaged? a. elastic b. fibrocartilage c. hyalin cartilage d. areolar cartiage |
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Definition
a. elastic b. fibrocartilage c. hyalin cartilage d. areolar cartiage |
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Term
A type of junction common in cardiac and smooth muscle tissues is the a. desmosome b. basal lamina c. tight junction d. gap junction |
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Definition
a. desmosome b. basal lamina c. tight junction d. gap junction |
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Term
The most abundand connection between cells in the superficial layers of the skin are: a. conexons b. gap junctions c. desmosomes d. tight junctions |
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Definition
a. conexons b. gap junctions c. desmosomes d. tight junctions |
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Term
What membranes have an epithelium that is stratified and supported by dense connective tissue? a. synovial b. serous c. cutaneous d. mucous |
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Definition
a. synovial b. serous c. cutaneous d. mucous |
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Term
The three major types of cartilage in the body are: a. collagen, reticular, and elastic b. areolar, adipose, and reticular c. hyalin, elastic, and fibrocartilage d. tendons, reticular and elastic |
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Definition
a. collagen, reticular, and elastic b. areolar, adipose, and reticular c. hyalin, elastic, and fibrocartilage d. tendons, reticular and elastic |
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Term
The primary function of the serous membrane in the body is to: a. minimize friction between opposing surfaces b. line cavitiies that communicate with exterior c. perform absorptive and secretory functions d. cover the surface of the body |
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Definition
a. minimize friction between opposing surfaces b. line cavitiies that communicate with exterior c. perform absorptive and secretory functions d. cover the surface of the bod |
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Term
The two major components of the dermis are: a. superficial fascia and cutaneous membrane b. epidermis and hypodermis c. papillary layer and retidcular layer d. stratum germinativum and stratum corneum |
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Definition
a. superficial fascia and cutaneous membrane b. epidermis and hypodermis c. papillary layer and retidcular layer d. stratum germinativum and stratum corneum |
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Term
If we try to put the sole of our feet together, this movement is: a. flexion b. dorsiflexion c. inversion d. eversion |
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Definition
a. flexion b. dorsiflexion c. inversion d. eversion |
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Term
Diarthroses joints are found in: a. shoulder b. knee c. hip d. inter carpals e. all except d |
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Definition
a. shoulder b. knee c. hip d. inter carpals e. all except d |
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Term
What are bursae? a. small adjacent joints b. pockets lined with synovial membrane c. pockets filled with interstitial fluid d. small bones of the wrist |
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Definition
a. small adjacent joints b. pockets lined with synovial membrane c. pockets filled with interstitial fluid d. small bones of the wrist |
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Term
What is the main advantage of synovial joint? a. broad range of motion, reduced friction b. limited motion reduced friction c. no movement, highly stable d. provide stability to joint |
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Definition
a. broad range of motion, reduced friction b. limited motion reduced friction c. no movement, highly stable d. provide stability to joint |
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Term
Cranial bones are examples of: a. diarthroses b. syndesmosis c. symphosis d. synarthroses |
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Definition
a. diarthroses b. syndesmosis c. symphosis d. synarthroses |
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Term
Synovial joints consist of: a. glassy cartilage surface b. articular capsule c. reinforcing ligaments d. all of these |
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Definition
a. glassy cartilage surface b. articular capsule c. reinforcing ligaments d. all of these |
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Term
Flexion means bending movement that decreases the angle of the joint. True/False |
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Definition
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Term
Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion is referred to up and down movement of the foot. True/False |
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Definition
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Term
The connective tissue that covers the sarcolemma of an individual muscle fiber is called: a. epimysium b. perimysium c. endomysium d. periosteum |
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Definition
a. epimysium b. perimysium c. endomysium d. periosteum |
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Term
A fascicle is a: a. muscle fiber b. bundle of muscle fibers enclosed by a connective tissue sheath c. bundle of myofibrils d. group of myofilaments |
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Definition
a. muscle fiber b. bundle of muscle fibers enclosed by a connective tissue sheath c. bundle of myofibrils d. group of myofilaments |
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Term
The function of the T tubules in muscle contraction is to: a. store glycogen b. release glucose into cell sarcoplasm c. transmit the action potential deep into the muscle cells d. form proteins |
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Definition
a. store glycogen b. release glucose into cell sarcoplasm c. transmit the action potential deep into the muscle cells d. form proteins |
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Term
One of the functions of the sarcoplasmic reticulum is in the regulation of intracellular calcium in muscle fibers. True/False |
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Definition
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Term
Thin filaments are composed of the protein Myosin. True/False |
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Definition
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Term
In response to a nerve impulse, the electrical charges on the sarcolemma are reversed. This is called: a. polarization b. the sodium pump c. the potassium pump d. repolarization |
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Definition
a. polarization b. the sodium pump c. the potassium pump d. repolarization |
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Term
The axon terminal of a motor neuron releases: a. sodium ions b. cholinesterase c. acetylcholine d. potassium ions |
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Definition
a. sodium ions b. cholinesterase c. acetylcholine d. potassium ions |
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Term
Most abundant source of energy in a muscle fiber is: a. glycogen b. ATP c. fat d. creatine phosphate |
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Definition
a. glycogen b. ATP c. fat d. creatine phosphate |
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Term
Depolarization of a neuron cell membrane will shift the membrane potential toward a. 0 mV b. -70 mV c. -90 mV d a, b and c |
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Definition
a. 0 mV b. -70 mV c. -90 mV d a, b and c |
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Term
The primary determinant of the resting membrane potential is: a. membrane permeability to sodium b. membrane permeability to potassium c. intercellular negatively charged proteins d. negatively charged cholride ions in ECF |
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Definition
a. membrane permeability to sodium b. membrane permeability to potassium c. intercellular negatively charged proteins d. negatively charged cholride ions in ECF |
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Term
The ventral roots of each spinal segment: a. bring sensory information into the spinal cord b. control peripheral effectors c. contain the axons of somatic motor and visceral motor neurpons d. both b and c |
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Definition
a. bring sensory information into the spinal cord b. control peripheral effectors c. contain the axons of somatic motor and visceral motor neurpons d. both b and c |
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Term
Spinal nerves are mixed nerves because they: a. contain sensory and motor fibers b. exit at intervertebral foramina c. are associated with a pair of dorsal root ganglia d. are associated with dorsal and ventral roots |
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Definition
a. contain sensory and motor fibers b. exit at intervertebral foramina c. are associated with a pair of dorsal root ganglia d. are associated with dorsal and ventral roots |
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Term
The white matter of the spinal cord is dominated by: a. unmyelinated axons b. cell bodies of neurons, neuroglia, and anmyelinated axons c. schwann cells and satellite d. myelinated axons |
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Definition
a. unmyelinated axons b. cell bodies of neurons, neuroglia, and anmyelinated axons c. schwann cells and satellite d. myelinated axons |
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Term
The outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds each spinal nerve is the: a. perineurium b. epineurium c. endoneurium d. epimysium |
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Definition
a. perineurium b. epineurium c. endoneurium d. epimysium |
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Term
A sensory region monitored by the dorsal rami of a single spinal segment is: a. ganglion b. fasicle c. dermatome d. ramus |
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Definition
a. ganglion b. fasicle c. dermatome d. ramus |
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Term
The major nerve of the cervical plexus that innervates the diaphragm is the: a. median nerve b. axillary nerve c. phrenic nerve d. fibular nerve |
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Definition
a. median nerve b. axillary nerve c. phrenic nerve d. fibular nerve |
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Term
The genitofemoral, femoral, and lateral femoral cutaneous nerves are major nerves of the: a. lumbar plexus b. sacral plexus c. brachial plexus d. cervical plexus |
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Definition
a. lumbar plexus b. sacral plexus c. brachial plexus d. cervical plexus |
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Term
The synapsing of several neurons on the same postsynaptic neurons is called: a. serial processing b. convergent c. brachial plexus d. cervical plexus |
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Definition
a. serial processing b. convergent c. brachial plexus d. cervical plexus |
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Term
The reflexes that control the most rapid, stereotyped motor responses of the nervous system to stimuli are: a. monosynaptic reflexes b. polysynaptic reflexes c. tendon reflexes d. extensor reflexes |
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Definition
a. monosynaptic reflexes b. polysynaptic reflexes c. tendon reflexes d. extensor reflexes |
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Term
Lab 8 Which statement is true about stimulation of sympathetic neurons? a. will increase alertness b. increase the heart rate, and breathing c. rise the blood pressure d. accelerate glycogen breakdown e. all are correct |
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Definition
a. will increase alertness b. increase the heart rate, and breathing c. rise the blood pressure d. accelerate glycogen breakdown e. all are correct |
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Term
Lab 8 The effectors of the ANS are skeletal muscles True/False |
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Definition
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Term
Lab 8 All preganglionic autonomic fibers release ___ at their synaptic terminals and the effects are always ____ . a norepinephrine; inhibitory b. norepinephrine; excitatory c. acetylcholine; excitatory d. acetylcholine; inhibitory |
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Definition
a norepinephrine; inhibitory b. norepinephrine; excitatory c. acetylcholine; excitatory d. acetylcholine; inhibitory |
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Term
Lab 8 The neurotransmitter at all synapses in the parasympathetic division of the ANS is: a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. cyclic-AMP d. acetylcholine |
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Definition
a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. cyclic-AMP d. acetylcholine |
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Term
Lab 8 Parasympathetic peripheral nerves originate from brain stem and sacral segment of CNS True/False |
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Definition
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Term
Lab 8 Which autonomic division activates digestive system and secretion of digestive glands and used for sexual arousal? a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. both a and b d. somatic nervous system |
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Definition
a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. both a and b d. somatic nervous system |
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Term
Lab 8 Which part of the brain plans and initiates voluntary motor activity? a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. cerebral cortex d. brain stem |
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Definition
a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. cerebral cortex d. brain stem |
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Term
Lab 8 Which part of the brain coordinates comples motor patterns? a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. brain stem d. medulla oblongata |
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Definition
a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. brain stem d. medulla oblongata |
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Term
Lab 8 Which part of the brain controls basic respiratory reflexes? a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. cerebral cortex d. medulla oblongata |
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Definition
a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. cerebral cortex d. medulla oblongata |
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Term
Lab 8 The neurotransmitter at synapses in the parasympathetic division is Ach True/False |
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Definition
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Term
Lab 8 The cerebellum adjusts voluntary and involuntary motor activity in response to each of the following except: a. proprioceptive data b. visual information c. information from the cerebral cortex d. informatino from the vital centers |
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Definition
a. proprioceptive data b. visual information c. information from the cerebral cortex d. informatino from the vital centers |
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Term
Lab 8 Which of the following is essential formemory consolidation? a. brodmann's area b. basal nuclei c. hippocampus d. prefrontal lobe |
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Definition
a. brodmann's area b. basal nuclei c. hippocampus d. prefrontal lobe |
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Term
Lab 8 Which is part of the lymphatic system? a. spleen b. tonsil c. thymus gland d. all of these e. only a and b |
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Definition
a. spleen b. tonsil c. thymus gland d. all of these e. only a and b |
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Term
Lab 8 The regulation of autonomic function, such as heart rate and blood pressure, originates in the: a. cerebrum b. cerebellum c. diencephalon d. medulla oblongata |
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Definition
a. cerebrum b. cerebellum c. diencephalon d. medulla oblongata |
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Term
Lab 8 The smooth surface that covers the brain but does not follow the underlying neural convolutions or sulci is the: a. neural cortex b. dura mater c. pia mater d. arachnoid membrane |
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Definition
a. neural cortex b. dura mater c. pia mater d. arachnoid membrane |
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Term
Lab 8 The meningeal layer that adheres to the surface contour of the brain, extending into every fold and curve, is the: a. pia mater b. dura mater c. arachnoid membrane d. neural cortex |
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Definition
a. pia mater b. dura mater c. arachnoid membrane d. neural cortex |
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Term
Lab 8 Cerebrospinal fluid is produced and secreted in the: a. hypothalamus b. choroid plexus c. medulla oblongata d. crista galli |
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Definition
a. hypothalamus b. choroid plexus c. medulla oblongata d. crista galli |
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Term
Lab 8 The primary purpose of the blood-brain barrier is to: a. provide the brain with oxygenated blood b. drain venous blood via the internal jugular veins c. isolate neural tissue in the CNS from the general circulation d. a b and c are correct |
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Definition
a. provide the brain with oxygenated blood b. drain venous blood via the internal jugular veins c. isolate neural tissue in the CNS from the general circulation d. a b and c are correct |
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Term
Lab 8 The final relay point for ascending sensory information that will be projected to the primary sensory cortex is the: a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. spinal cord d. medulla oblongata |
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Definition
a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. spinal cord d. medulla oblongata |
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Term
Lab 8 The stablishment of emotional states is a function of the: a. limbic system b. tectum c. mamillary bodies d. thalamus |
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Definition
a. limbic system b. tectum c. mamillary bodies d. thalamus |
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Term
Lab 8 Coordination of learned movement patterns at the subconscious level is performed by: a. cerebellum b. substantia nigra c. association fibers d. hypothalamus |
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Definition
a. cerebellum b. substantia nigra c. association fibers d. hypothalamus |
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