Term
| What signalment in cattle is most commonly associated with abomasal ulcers? |
|
Definition
dairy cattle in the first 6 weeks post partuition
***also young ruminants of ALL species |
|
|
Term
| What diet characteristics are most commonly associated with abomasal ulcers in ruminants? |
|
Definition
| high concentrate, high silage diets --> increase concentration of VFAs within the abomasum --> direct local irritant effect on abomasal mucosa |
|
|
Term
| How are abomasal ulcers classified in ruminants? |
|
Definition
type 1-4 based on degree of perforation, hemorrhage, and peritonitis
1: non-perforating, no significant bleeding
2: non-perforating with hemorrhage
3: perforating with localized peritonitis
4: perforating with diffuse peritonitis |
|
|
Term
| What is the best anti-mortem test for abomasal ulcers in ruminants? |
|
Definition
fecal occult blood (or presence of melena)
*** will detect 70% of cattle with ulcers, take fecal sample PRIOR to rectal palpation |
|
|
Term
| T/F bloodloss associated with abomasal ulcers in cattle can be so significant that some animals may die peracutely due to hypovolemic shock |
|
Definition
True
*** opposite end of the spectrum is also possible, slow bleeding chronic ulcers can present clinically as anemia, anorexia, agalactica and rumen stasis |
|
|
Term
| What are the two major rule outs for cattle will ventral abdominal pain? |
|
Definition
perforating abomasal ulcers (more localized to the right)
hardware disease |
|
|
Term
| How can you clinically distinguish perforating ulcers with local peritonitis from those with diffuse peritonitis? |
|
Definition
local peritonitis is associated with fever and localized ventral abdominal pain (right sided)
while diffuse peritonitis often presents as marked depression and weakness progressing to death secondary to endotoxemia and hypovolemic shock |
|
|
Term
| omeprazole and sucralfate can be used to treat abomasal ulcers in ruminants of what signalment? |
|
Definition
pre-ruminant calves
***oral bioavailability in adults is minimal to non-existent |
|
|
Term
| Other than dietary management what medical option is available for treatment of abomasal ulcers in valuable animals? |
|
Definition
| IV acid suppressors (off label use) |
|
|
Term
| What dietary management is indicated in the treatment of abomasal ulcers in cattle? |
|
Definition
| high quality forage only (reduce local irritant effect of VFA's on abomasal mucosa) |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most important management issues that producers can implement to prevent formation of abomasal ulcers? |
|
Definition
correct diet: avoid abrupt changes, ensure adequate fiber content
reduce stress (avoid overcrowding and competition for feed) |
|
|
Term
| T/F surgical resection of perforating ulcers can be the definitive treatment if diagnosed early in calves and cattle |
|
Definition
FALSE
*** only performed in calves, if perforating ulcers are noted during other surgical procedures in adults resection may be an option |
|
|
Term
| What are the two potential etiologies of abomasal impaction? |
|
Definition
| dietary problems or secondary to motility derangement |
|
|
Term
| What clinical signs are associated with abomasal impaction? |
|
Definition
progressive anorexia, weightloss and distention of right ventral abdomen <-- may be detected by ballotting the lower right flank
**** +/- hypocholermic metabolic alkalosis on chem |
|
|
Term
| What two treatments can be used in the case of abomasal impaction? |
|
Definition
first oral fluid therapy to try to soften and move feed mass
if non-responsive abomasotomy is required to manually remove obstruction
*** poor prognosis for neoplasia, chronic impaction and vagal indigestion (secondary to volvulus) |
|
|
Term
| What heritable disease of suffolk sheep resemble abomasal impaction clinically? |
|
Definition
abomasal emptying defect
*** etiology is unknown but thought to be secondary to autonomic dysregulation |
|
|
Term
| What chemistry abnormality is more common in cases of abomasal impaction and usually absent in cases of abomasal emptying defect? |
|
Definition
| hypocholermic metabolic alkalosis is usually absent in cases of abomasal emptying defect because there is not a complete obstruction to ingesta outflow in these patients |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiology and clinical course of simple indigestion? |
|
Definition
abrupt feed changes leading to slightly altered fermentation and microflora in multiple animals within the herd, usually resolves within 4-48 hours as microflora adapt
** presents as anorexia and rumen hypomotility with NORMAL vital signs and no indication of systemic illness |
|
|
Term
| Although treatment for simple indigestion is rarely indicated what dietary changes can be implemented to aid in recovery? |
|
Definition
emphasis forage
+/- rumen transfaunation if signs persist |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiology of rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
| overconsumption of any feed containing highly fermentable carbohydrates (ex. corn, sugar beet, potatoes etc.) --> over production of VFAs --> decreased rumen pH |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of lowered rumen pH? |
|
Definition
| rumen hypomotility and death of many of the normal rumen microorganisms --> rapid proliferation of gram + Strep. bovis which produce of lactic acid resulting in an even lower rumen pH |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of lesions associated with acute rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
| chemical rumenitis occurs at a pH < 5 with secondary colonization by bacteria/fungi at locations of reduced mucosal barriers +/- bacterial seeding into portal vein --> hepatic abscessation |
|
|
Term
| What two species of bacteria are associated with lactic acidosis and further reduction of rumen pH in cases of acute rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
| Strep. bovis and Lactobacillus sp. |
|
|
Term
| What effect does accumulation of lactic acid (due to step. bovis and lactobacillus sp. overgrowth) have on rumen osmolarity? |
|
Definition
| dramatically increases rumen osmolarity (>400, N=280) |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathologic consequence of increased rumen osmolarity (secondary to lactic acidosis) in cattle with acute rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
| water moves into the rumen in an attempt to normalized osmolality resulting in rumen distention and loss of normal content stratification as well as progressive dehydration, hypovolemia and osmotic diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| What form of lactic acid cannot be metabolized by the body and accumulates in the rumen and tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What rumen fluid characterisitics are highly suggestive of acute rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
| pH<5 +/- sharp beer like odor and absence of active protozoa |
|
|
Term
| What are four potentially fatal sequelae of acute rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
mycotic/bacterial rumenitis
liver abscessess
caval thrombosis syndrome (septic emboli shower into the caudal vena cava from hepatic abcessess --> hematogenous pneumonia and arteritis)
polioencephalomalacia (secondary to vitamin B deficiency as a result of thiaminase produced by overgrowth of rumen microflora -> ataxia, depression, weakness/stargazers, blindness) |
|
|
Term
| What are two rarely fatal sequelae of acute rumen acidosis that result in decreased production in affected animals? |
|
Definition
laminitis (secondary to endotoxemia)
chronic rumenitis/ill-thrift |
|
|
Term
| What is the ideal treatment for acute rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
empty rumen contents (ideally via left flank rumenotomy, but in less severe cases, or in less valuable animals lavage is an option <-- less thorough and more laborious)
with transfaunation of 4-6 liters of normal rumen fluid +/- alkalinizing agents (MgOH or HCO3) |
|
|
Term
| What two treatments can be used to address dehydration, hypovolemic shock and metabolic acidosis secondary to acute rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
| IV fluids and bicarbonate |
|
|
Term
| What three adjunctive therapies can be used in anticipation of sequelae to acute rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
systemic antibiotics (prevent bacteremia and hepatic abscessation)
NSAIDs (only once patient has been rehydrated, to prevent endotoxemia and laminitis)
Thiamine (prevent polioencephalomalacia) |
|
|
Term
| What signalment is most commonly associated with subacute rumen acidosis (repeated episodes of rumen pH below 5.5)? |
|
Definition
| early lactation dairy cows adapting to high energy rations |
|
|
Term
| What disease is most commonly associated with subacute rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
| chronic laminitis (secondary to endotoxemia) |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose and manage subacture rumen acidosis? |
|
Definition
screen rumen pH from a representative sampling of early to mid lactation cows, pH <5.5 in a majority of animals is diagnostic
address through diet (adequate fiber, adequate transition, ensure no accidental access to feet ie. broken feeder etc.) |
|
|
Term
| What is the definition of bloat aka rumen typmany? |
|
Definition
| distention of the rumen with excessive volume of gas (either free gas or foam) |
|
|
Term
| What region of the abdomen is most prominently distended in cases of rumen tympany/bloat? |
|
Definition
| left dorsal abdomen --> becomes generalized as severity increases |
|
|
Term
| What are the two potential etiologies associated with free gas bloat? |
|
Definition
physical obstruction of eructation (ex. choke, compressive esophageal masses, lymphadenopathy etc.)
OR
reticuloruminal motor dysfunction (more common than physical obstruction, occurs secondary to hypocalcemia, vagal indigestion (hardware dz), acute rumen acidosis etc.) |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiology of frothy bloat? |
|
Definition
nutritional (esp. legumes) <- pasture form
also a feedlot form associated with high concentrate ration and low fiber intake -> overgrowth of slime producing bacteria |
|
|
Term
| What two components of alfalfa favor the production of froth leading to bloat in cattle? |
|
Definition
| soluble proteins and chloroplast |
|
|
Term
| Other than progressive distention of the left PLF what other two clinical signs are often present in cases of bloat? |
|
Definition
dyspnea (increased pressure on diaphragm)
impaired CV function (impaired venous return to the heart) |
|
|
Term
| What is the ideal method of decompressing the rumen in cases of free gas bloat? For frothy bloat? |
|
Definition
pass a large-bore stomach tube for free gas bloat +/- trocar (significant risk of peritonitis)
surgical rumenotomy is the only way to decompress severe frothy bloat; however, antifoaming agents (poloxalene, DSS, mineral oil) can be used in more mild cases |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiology of hardware disease? |
|
Definition
| penetration of the reticulum by an ingested foreign body |
|
|
Term
| T/F peritonitis secondary to hardware disease tends to be localized to the cranial abdomen rather than diffuse |
|
Definition
| TRUE <- which is why we use the scootch and xiphoid pressure tests to diagnose hardware dz |
|
|
Term
| What are three clinical signs associated with cases of acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis (aka hardware dz)? |
|
Definition
| rumen atony, fever, cranial ventral abdominal pain <-- although these clinical signs subside dramatically within a couple of days the disease process still progresses |
|
|
Term
| What is an important diagnostic tool in characterizing the extent of disease in cases of traumatic reticuloperitonitis (hardware)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you differentiate pain associated with perforating abomasal ulcers from hardware dz? |
|
Definition
| pain associated with abomasal ulcers is more localized to the right side of the cranial ventral abdomen, while pain associated with hardware disease is localized more to the left |
|
|
Term
| What is the short term prognosis for hardware disease? long term? |
|
Definition
| Short term prognosis is good (60% of untreated cases recover, 90% of treated cases recover) but longer term complications are common (chronic peritonitis, bacteremia, vagal inigestion, FB migration etc.) |
|
|
Term
| What are some indications for surgery as a treatment for hardware disease? |
|
Definition
valuable cow
late in gestation
evidence of migrating FB or reticular wall abscess on rads or US
lack of response to medical management (magnet, broad spectrum antibiotics, NSAID, restricted movement <-- to encourage formation of fibrous adhesions that localize the peritonitis) after 3 days of tx |
|
|
Term
| What approach is used for surgical management of hardware disease? |
|
Definition
left flank rumenotomy (access interior of the reticulum from within the rumen)
*** right flank celiotomy can be used to explore the exterior of the reticulum and r/o other differentials (LDA/RDA, intestinal obstruction etc.) |
|
|
Term
| How does hardware disease contribute to the development of vagal indigestion? |
|
Definition
| inflammation of the wall reticulum and adjacent vagal nerve results in motility dysfunction --> functional outflow obstruction --> papple shaped abdominal contour secondary to volume distention |
|
|
Term
| What are the two major clinical forms of vagal indigestion? |
|
Definition
omasal <- most commonly associated with hardware disease
abomasal <-- most commonly associated with abomasal volvulus |
|
|
Term
| What is the best way to prevent hardware disease? |
|
Definition
reticular magnets!
also minimize contact with junk... |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common bacterial organism implicated in liver abscesses in ruminants? |
|
Definition
| Fusobacterium necrophorum (component of normal rumen microflora) |
|
|
Term
| What vessels contribute to hepatic blood supply? |
|
Definition
hepatic artery, portal venous system, and umbilical vein in the fetus
***portal vein is most commonly implicated in hematogenous transport of bacteria to the liver |
|
|
Term
| What are three potential etiologies that may result in the development of liver abscesses in ruminants? |
|
Definition
rumenitis (secondary to subclinical or acute rumen acidosis)
navel infections (associated with unsanitary environment)
Foreign bodies that penetrate the liver or peritoneum in TRP (hardware dz) |
|
|
Term
| What virulence factors does F. necrophorum possess that contribute to abscess formation? |
|
Definition
| leukotoxin and endotoxic lipopolysaccharide |
|
|
Term
| T/F most cases of liver abscesses in ruminants are associated with thick connective tissue capsules and animals are subclinical |
|
Definition
TRUE
**Dx at slaughter via gross lesions, may have slightly reduced feed intake and efficiency antemortem |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathophysiology behind photosensitization and icterus as a sequelae to heptatic abcessation? |
|
Definition
| obstruction of the common bile duct --> accumulation of bile acids and bilirubin |
|
|
Term
| What three clinical syndromes are associated with caudal vena caval thrombosis in ruminants? |
|
Definition
portal hypertension --> ascites and diarrhea secondary to increased venous hydrostatic pressure
PTE and hematogenous pneumonia --> severe dyspnea and suddent death from septic or anaphylactic shock
PTE and pulmonary aneurysm --> epistaxis and/or hemptysis |
|
|
Term
| What constallation of clinical signs is considered pathognomonic for caudal vena caval thrombosis syndrome in ruminants (sequelea to hepatic abcessation)? |
|
Definition
anemia
dyspnea and increased lower airway noise
hemoptysis |
|
|
Term
| What three organs should be assess for gross lesions on necropsy in animals with suspected hepatic abcessation? |
|
Definition
| liver, lung, caudal vena cava |
|
|
Term
| T/F laboratory findings associated with hepatic abcesses in ruminants are variable and non-specific |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Although most cases of suspected hepatic abcesses in ruminants are not treated what antibiotics may be considered if treatment is to be pursued? |
|
Definition
penicillin, oxytetracycline or macrolides (ie. tylosin)
*** although F. necrophorum is susceptible to these drugs inhibitory concentrations may not be obtainable within thickly encapsulated abcesses |
|
|
Term
| What can be done to prevent development of hepatic abcesses in dairy cattle? Feedlot cattle? |
|
Definition
| for both, prevent rumen acidosis! (slow transitions to high concentrate feed to allow microflora and rumen papillae to adapt, provide adequate fiber and TMR is better than component feeding, free choice NaHCO3 to buffer mild fluctuations in rumen pH) *** feedlot cattle also benefit from subtherapeutic administration of antimicrobials (usually tylan) |
|
|
Term
| T/F vaccination against F. necrophorum is an effective way to reduce morbidity associated with hepatic abscesses in feedlot cattle |
|
Definition
| FALSE **** recent study showed no reduction in incidence or severity, vaccines not used on a regular basis on many feedlots |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiologic agent of bacillary hemoglobinuria? |
|
Definition
| toxins of Clostridium hemolyticum (novyi type D) |
|
|
Term
| How are cattle exposed to C. hemolyticum? |
|
Definition
| spores are ingested during grazing --> absorbed in intestine and transported to the liver where they persist within kupffer cells (hepatic macrophages) for long periods of time in an incative state as long has normal tissue perfusion and oxygenation is maintained |
|
|
Term
| What type of soil is most commonly associated with endemic bacillary hemoglobinuria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does liver fluke migration initiate sporulation and production of toxins by C. hemolyticum spores? |
|
Definition
| liver fluke migration causes localized anaerobiosis allowing spores to germinate and produce toxins (beta, eta, theta) |
|
|
Term
| What three toxins are produced by C. hemolyticum in the case of bacillary hemoglobinuria? |
|
Definition
beta toxin (necrotizing and hemolytic)
eta toxin (tropomyosinase)
theta toxin (lipase) |
|
|
Term
| What history and clinical signs are strongly suggestive of bacillary hemoglobinuria? |
|
Definition
| endemic area with history of liver fluke infestation, herd vaccination for clostridium is overdue or non-existent, previously healthy animals found suddenly dead with bleeding at mucus membranes |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathognomonic lesion associated with bacillary hemoglobinuria on necropsy? |
|
Definition
| lesions of coagulation necrosis with a zone of hyperemia at interface with viable liver tissue |
|
|
Term
| What three prevention techniques can be used to reduce the incidence of bacillary hemoglobinuria in ruminants? |
|
Definition
burn,bury, or remove carcasses (reduce environmental contamination)
vaccinate
implement liver fluke control measures |
|
|
Term
| What are four indications for approaching the rumen surgically? |
|
Definition
rumen distention (papple, dyspnea esp. if recumbant)
altered rumen motility
altered rumen contents (low pH (esp. if <5), high chloride, dead protozoa, loss of normal stratification)
ventral abdominal pain |
|
|
Term
| What clinical response corresponds to a positive wither's pinch test? |
|
Definition
A positive response occurs if the animal fails to move away from the negative stimulus
*** normal animals will scootch down and back (ventral and caudal) away from the withers pinch, this stretches the ventral peritoneum and pleura causing pain in animals with perforating abomasal ulcers or hardware disease <-- positive response is not localizing! |
|
|
Term
| What clinical response correlates with a positive ventral board test? |
|
Definition
animals that are positive will move up (dorsally) away from the pressure, and may vocalize in pain (listen over the trachea)
*** manual pressure allows for more specific localization of ventral pain than the ventral board or withers pinch test |
|
|
Term
| What test provides the best localization of ventral abdominal pain in cattle? |
|
Definition
| manual pressure, however, response will be more subtle than with wither's pinch or ventral board |
|
|
Term
| Why are radiographs an important diagnostic tool to be used prior to surgery in the case of a cow presenting with ventral abdominal pain? |
|
Definition
| r/o hardware disease, identify location and number of metallic foreign bodies in the case of hardware disease, identify abscesses, peritonitis or any thoracic involvment (ex. pericarditis secondary to hardware) |
|
|
Term
| What is the best choice of antibiotic for pre-op prophylaxis prior to rumenotomy? |
|
Definition
penecillin (best spectrum of action against anaerobes and gram positive aerobes <-- rumen microflora)
**** ceftiofur also has fair anaerobic coverage and could be used in this situation |
|
|
Term
| What is the ideal technique to for administering local anesthetic in preparation for rumenotomy? |
|
Definition
paravertebral block provides the best analgesia without creating excessive fluid in the incision line
*** inverted L is also an option however care must be made to infuse adequate anesthesia to each layer of the body wall.
****** line block results in lots of fluid in the incision line and should be avoided |
|
|
Term
| Why should your incision into the body wall be low and cranial when approaching the rumen surgically? |
|
Definition
| you need to be able to reach into the reticulum and abomasal orifice from your incision into the rumen and these structures are ventral and cranial to the rumen |
|
|
Term
| Once you make your left flank vertical incision in a cow, what should be the very next thing you ALWAYS do? |
|
Definition
Thoroughly explore the abdomen (6 compartments)
*** once you enter the rumen, or any other abdominal viscera you will be contaminated and abdominal exploration will result in diffuse peritonitis.....death |
|
|
Term
| When suturing the rumen to the skin during a rumenotomy what is the ideal suture pattern to use? |
|
Definition
| Continuous mattress- tight apposition and quick to do |
|
|
Term
| After suturing the serosal side of the rumen to the skin, why is it important to avoid extending your rumenotomy incision to the very ends of your skin sutures? |
|
Definition
| Give yourself flexibility for closure and avoid tearing the rumen beyond the skin incisions --> contamination of the peritoneal cavity with rumen fluid |
|
|
Term
| What five internal structures should you explore when performing a rumenotomy? |
|
Definition
rumenoreticular fold
omasal orifice (should be toned if adequate nerve function)
omasal canal
esophageal orifice
retuculum (digitally explore "walk" entire surface +/- magnets to identify foreign bodies) |
|
|
Term
| What 5/6 structures should you palpate transruminally when performing a ruminotomy? |
|
Definition
omasum
abomasum
pylorus
kidneys (esp. left)
uterus (if pregnant)
Aorta |
|
|
Term
| Foreign bodies lodged in which three anatomic sites are accessible from a left flank rumenotomy? |
|
Definition
omasal canal
caudal esophagus
reticulum (ie. penetrating) |
|
|
Term
| If you have identified a cranial abdominal abcsess located dorsal to the reticulum on radiographs, what is the surgical treatment of choice? |
|
Definition
left flank rumenotomy --> lance and drain (gravitationally) abscess into the reticulum
**** because cattle form abcsesses with thick connective tissue capsules, the cranial wall of the abscess is strong enough to contain reticular contents, thus preventing peritonitis |
|
|
Term
| What is the surgical approach for applying acid secretory inhibitor drugs to the abomasum for the treatment of ulcers? |
|
Definition
| standing left flank rumenotomy --> place nasogastric tube in the omasum --> allows drugs to be delivered to the abomasum without bio-deactivation by rumen microflora |
|
|
Term
| What should you always do before closing a rumenotomy? |
|
Definition
| transfaunation of rumen fluid from a healthy donor <-- patient was either anorexic or ingesta was removed to facilitate surgical exploration and treatment |
|
|
Term
| After lavaging the exposed serosal surface of the rumen how should you close the rumenotomy incision? |
|
Definition
| double inversion --> cut skin stay sutures --> lavage serosal surface of the rumen again (externally) --> close skin incision |
|
|
Term
| What are some advantages and disadvantages of using a rumen board rather than skin stay sutures to approach the rumen for rumenotomy? |
|
Definition
the rumen board is quicker but less secure (ie. greater risk of leakage) than skin stay sutures
**** especially less secure if you anticipate having to remove a large volume of ingesta, or if you need to go in and out of the rumen many times |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a rumenotomy and a rumenostomy? |
|
Definition
| rumenotomy is closed immediately following the procedure, rumenosotomy is allowed to remain open either temporarily (ex. non-responsive gas bloat) or permanently (ex. cannulated rumen fluid donor) |
|
|
Term
| What are two contraindication for therapeautic rumenostomy? |
|
Definition
frothy bloat
eructation obstruction |
|
|
Term
| What size and location should your rumenostomy be placed for the therapeutic treatment of nonresponsive free gas bloat? |
|
Definition
| small stoma at high left flank (gas cap region of the rumen) |
|
|
Term
| How can you surgically manage an abscess that is ventral or not firmly attached to the reticulum (noted via rads and left flank explore/rumenotomy)? |
|
Definition
| Place cow in dorsal recumbancy --> ventral approach and marsupialization (stab incision into abcess, place drain, close incision around drain) |
|
|
Term
| T/F abomasal displacement and torsion can be treated effectively surgically |
|
Definition
FALSE
** the abomasum is supported entirely by omentum and cannot torse on itself but rather, twists along its mesenteric axis (volvulus)
abomasal displacement and VOLVULUS are treated surgically |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common signalment associated with left displaced abomasum? |
|
Definition
high producing dairy cow, 0-8 wks post-partum <- decreased abomasal motility secondary to hypocalcemia, dietary change or other postpartum diseases + increased space between the rumen and the body wall after calving
***occurs sporadically in other cows, bulls and calves |
|
|
Term
| What two pathologic processes contribute to the development of a displaced abomasum? |
|
Definition
| decreased abomasal motility (confinment housing, hypocalcemia, concurrent systemic disease) coupled with increased gas production (high concentrate diet) --> gas accumulation and dorsal deviation of the abomasum |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis behind the electrolyte abnormalities that are commonly present in cattle with a displaced abomasum? |
|
Definition
abomasum secretes HCL, atony or physical obstruction results in pooling of HCL within the abomasum --> metabolic alkalosis
similar mechanism of abomasul sequestration coupled with decreased feed intake are responsible for hypokalemia and hyponatremia |
|
|
Term
| T/F ketotic cattle present with metabolic acidosis |
|
Definition
FALSE
**** ketosis does not cause metabolic acidosis in cattle <-- if you see acidosis it is most likely secondary to dehydration and ischemic gut with lactic acidosis that is overriding the initial hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis associated with abomasal displacment and volvulus |
|
|
Term
| What pattern of fluid and electrolyte disturbances are associated with displaced abomasum? abomausm volvulus? |
|
Definition
hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, hyponatremia, paradoxical aciduria + metabolic acidosis <-- may be an indication of volvulus and gut ischemia/hypovolemic shock
*** paradoxical aciduria occurs secondary to hypokalemia/natremia. The kidneys need to reabsorb Na and K and as a result excess HCO3 (secondary to hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis) is secreted by the kidneys alongside the only available cation H+ --> aciduria |
|
|
Term
| What physical exam findings are associated with LDA? |
|
Definition
slab sided (displaced abomasum pulls rumen away from the body wall --> sinks in behind the ribs)
normal to low rumen motility (rumen is pulled away from the body wall by the LDA making ascultation difficult)
characteristic ping (mid to upper third of the abdomen, btwn ribs 9-13) |
|
|
Term
| What four diseases often occur concurrently with LDA? |
|
Definition
hypocalcemia ketosis mastitis metritis
*** all of these are common in postparturient dairy cattle and can depress appetite resulting in decreased rumen fill (more space in the abdomen for the abomasum to drift off midline and to the left) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three physical requirement necessary to produce a ping? |
|
Definition
gas-fluid interface
viscus under tension
viscus adjacent to body wall |
|
|
Term
| What are the three most common causes of left sided pings? |
|
Definition
LDA (middle to upper abdomen, btwn 9-13th rib)
Rumen (dorsal, extending into the paralumbar fossa)
pneumoperitoneum (dorsal, adjacent to vertebral transverse processes)
*** rarely left sided pings can be associated with the uterus, cecum or a peritoneal abscess |
|
|
Term
| Which is more common, LDA or RDA? Which is associated with more severe pathology? |
|
Definition
| LDA is more common, RDA is more severe |
|
|
Term
| T/F It is important to distinguish RDA from RVA through pings prior to surgery |
|
Definition
FALSE
cannot distinguish RDA from RVA via ping, treat ALL right sided pings as potential RVA, which is a surgical emergency! |
|
|
Term
| What are the three main differential for right sided pings in cattle? |
|
Definition
RDA
RVA
cecum
**** less commonly intestine/colon or pneumoperitoneum |
|
|
Term
| What is the best way to determine early hypocalcemia on physical exam? |
|
Definition
cool ear tips
+/- slow PLR (hard to appreciate)
<--- these occur way before muscle tremmors |
|
|
Term
| What type of fluid is ideal for rehydrating cattle with LDA or RDA/RVA? |
|
Definition
| 0.9% NaCl <--- NaCl is an acidifying fluid and these patients have hypochloremic metabolic ALKALOSIS |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications for performing a blind procedure (roll or suture/toggle pin) for the treatment of LDA? |
|
Definition
ONLY for left sided pings (ie. LDA)
animals that are not individually valuable
Provides only temporary relief (roll) |
|
|
Term
| What are the contranidications for treating an LDA with a blind procedure (roll or suture/toggle pin)? |
|
Definition
no ping (these techniques utilize the dorsal movement of a gas filled abomasum to restore normal position)
high value animal
right sided ping (only do blind procedures for LDA)
exploration is needed |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common complication following a blind procedure to correct LDA? |
|
Definition
Redisplacement (>60% using rolling)
*** also failure to reposition (adhesions or too much fluid accumulation in the abomasum to allow for gas repositioning) and blind tacks missing or tacking other structures to the body wall (ex. duoudenom)
respiratory compromise due to dorsal recumbancy (not as bad as RPM abomasopexy b/c blind procedures can be completed more quickly) |
|
|
Term
| Which surgical approach can be used to correct both LDA and RDA? |
|
Definition
Standing right flank omentopexy
** also best approach for general abdominal explore |
|
|
Term
| What is the next step after making your skin incision as you approach surgical correction of a displaced abomasum? |
|
Definition
Decompression of the abomasum -> makes it much easier to reposition
**** use a large gauge needle attached to tubing |
|
|
Term
| What landmarks can be used when repositioning a displaced abomasum from standing right flank omentopexy? |
|
Definition
pylorus
greater omentum (between descending duoudenum and pylorus)
greater curvature of the abomasum (banana)
omasum (round scoop of ice cream)
reticulum |
|
|
Term
| In the case of RVA, which direction does the abomasum revolve around the mesentary? |
|
Definition
usually twists counterclockwise
*** so when repositioning RDA have to twist clockwise |
|
|
Term
| What three structures must be engaged when placing the three mattress sutures for omentopexy following repositing of an abomasal displacement or volvumus? |
|
Definition
body wall (all muscle layers, place knots in SQ tissue)
peritoneum (enhances adhesion formation <-- we want this to keep the abomasum in position)
greater omentum |
|
|
Term
| What is the most stable pexy but cannot be used in cattle with respiratory distress, marked musculoskeletal disease or distended abdomen due to extended period of recumbancy? |
|
Definition
Right paramedian abomasopexy
*** engages serosal and submucosal layers of the abomasum (omentopexy doesn't actually engage the abomasum at all) |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to slip the mucosa when closing a right paramedian abomasopexy? |
|
Definition
| We do not want our pexy sutures to enter the lumen of the abomasum (increased risk of fistula formation post-op) |
|
|
Term
| What structures should be engaged when performing a right paramedian abomasopexy? |
|
Definition
serosal and submucosal layers of abomasum
peritoneum and internal fascia
all muscle layers of the body wall
*** pexy sutures should be placed at the caudal pylorus just cranial to the attachement of the greater omentum |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common (but still rare) complication associated with right paramedian abomasopexy? |
|
Definition
| fistulation (most likely due to accidental penetration of the abomasal mucosa when placing pexy sutures) |
|
|
Term
| What are the two differential diagnoses for BVD? |
|
Definition
malignant catarrhal fever and rinderpest (eradicated)
*** these three diseases cause diarrhea, oral, and coronary band lesions |
|
|
Term
| In what disease state do animals with BVD display diarrhea? |
|
Definition
| acute infection or mucosal disease in a persistently infected animal (fetal infection btwn 50-125 days of gestation) |
|
|
Term
| What species act as the resevoir host (ie. asymptomatic, act as a source of infection) for malignant catarrhal fever? |
|
Definition
Sheep
*** high mortality rate in cattle, bison, and cervids but not very contagious between non-reservoir host animals (ie. generally sporatic incidence of disease) |
|
|
Term
| What clinical signs are associated with malignant catarrhal fever? |
|
Definition
| diarrhea, ulcerative nasal/oral lesions, corneal edema (secondary to vasculitis), catarrh (large volumes of mucoid nasal discharge and salivation) |
|
|
Term
| What is a major cause of diarrhea in juvenile rumenants but not adults, despite a high rate of infection in rumenants of all ages? |
|
Definition
coccidiosis
**** parasite has a long prepatent period so animals <3wks of age do not display clinical signs (diarrhea) |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathophysiology of coccidiosis? |
|
Definition
| overcrowding --> increases exposure and environmental contamination --> overcrowding also causes stress --> impaired immune function and increases suceptibility to infection ----> parasite develops and replicated within intestinal epithelium causing significant mucosal injury *** affects both SI and LI, however most clinical signs are related to LI lesions (mucoid diarrhea, hematochezia, tenesmus +/- rectal prolapse) |
|
|
Term
| Although most animals with clinical coccidiosis persent with self limiting mucoid diarrhea, hematochezia and tenesmus, what other syndrome associated with coccidiosis is highly fatal? |
|
Definition
nervous coccidiosis- symptoms of encephalopathy
*** rare, associated with high parasite burdens |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to evaluate fecal samples from multiple affected animals when evaluating a herd for clinical coccidiosis? |
|
Definition
| asymptomatic animals shed coccidia oocysts, clinical disease is associated with large numbers of oocysts, on fecal flotation or direct smear, from multiple affected animals |
|
|
Term
| T/F metaphylaxis is more effective at reducing morbidity and mortality associated with coccidiosis than administration of anti-coccidial medications to affected animals |
|
Definition
TRUE
*** once clinical signs are evident mucosal damage has already occurred, isolate affected animals to limit environmental contamination and supportive treatment can be used when indicated (marked dehydration or anemia) |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiologic agent of winter dysentary? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the signalment and history commonly associated with an outbreak of winter dysentary (coronavirus)? |
|
Definition
| adult dairy cattle, high morbitidy low mortality, most common in winter months (confinment facilitates transmission) and hematochezia (colon is most significantly affected) +/- fever |
|
|
Term
| What is the etiologic agent of Johne's disease? |
|
Definition
| Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis |
|
|
Term
| What is the impact of a subclinically infected animal with Johne's disease? |
|
Definition
| decreased milk production (major economic losses) and source of infection to naive animals |
|
|
Term
| Animals may be exposed to Johne's through which three modes of transmission? |
|
Definition
In utero
colostrum
fecal-oral
**** niave animals acquire infection early in life (<6 months) |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathophysiology of johne's disease? |
|
Definition
| M. avium paratuberculosis is ingested an invades M cells of ileum --> granulometous lesions develop --> malabsorption and protein loosing enteropathy --> chronic "hosepipe" diarrhea, peripheral edema and cachexia |
|
|
Term
| T/F small ruminants with Johne's rarely develop diarrhea until terminal |
|
Definition
| TRUE *** vs. cattle, which often develop diarrhea as the initial presenting clinical sign |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for Johne's? |
|
Definition
CULL!!! Affected animals contaminate the environment and pose a risk to youngstock, additionally they are less productive
*** NO drug eliminates the infection |
|
|
Term
| If you submit a number of blood samples for johne's ELISA serology and receive a positive result how should you interpret this? |
|
Definition
| Johne's ELISA has low sensitivity (lots of false negatives, esp. in early subclinical stage of disease) but high specificity, so even one positive result indicates that there are likely many infected animals in the herd *** gold standard is culture, use this to confirm positive ELISA results |
|
|
Term
| Which salmonella serotype is host-adapted to cattle and therefore poses the greatest risk of zoonotic transmission? |
|
Definition
Salmonella enterica dublin
***organisms persist in carrier animals with continuous or intermittent shedding in the feces +/- milk |
|
|
Term
| How is salmonellosis transmitted and what clinical signs are associated with infection? |
|
Definition
transmitted via fecal-oral route
causes fever and diarrhea (ddx winter dysentary), endotoxemia and septicemia (esp. in calves) |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose and treat salmonellosis in cattle? |
|
Definition
dx base on culture (feces or blood <- if septicemic)
Antibiotics are not especially effective at mitigating diarrhea but should be used in cases of sepsis. Supportive care is usually adequate however salmonella typhimurium antiserum is available for individual valuable animals |
|
|
Term
| What are some benefits and drawbacks associated with the MLV salmonella vaccine? |
|
Definition
| MLV results in greatest reduction in morbidity and mortality associated with infection in calves, but is also known to induce endotoxic shock <-- use bacterine vaccine in calves <3wks |
|
|
Term
| Why is it so important for ruminants to maintain normal salivation? |
|
Definition
| salivary gland produces large volumes of HCO3 (necessary to buffer the rumen) as well as potassium |
|
|
Term
| What are three potential causes of abnormal prehension in ruminants? |
|
Definition
tongue lesions
oral masses
neurologic dysfunction (botulism and rabies <-- always wear gloves when perfoming an oral exam!) |
|
|
Term
| What are three potential causes of excessive salivation in cattle? |
|
Definition
increased production of saliva aka ptyalism (oral trauma/foreign bodies
excessive mineral intake)
inability to swallow (esophageal obstruction, pharyngeal trauma, neurologic)
rumen/omasal/abomasal dysfunction (often additional clinical signs) |
|
|
Term
| What are some risk factors that predipose ruminants to developing dental attrition/erosion? |
|
Definition
| sandy/low forage pastures + poor enamel (calcium or copper deficiency, highly acidic feed ex. fermented sweet potato waste) |
|
|
Term
| What flock wide problem is common in sheep that are farmed abroad? |
|
Definition
periodontal disease
*** gingival trauma with secondary bacterial infection affecting primarily the incisors |
|
|
Term
| When should you extract broken tooth from a ruminant? |
|
Definition
| if the fracture is sagital ***although tooth fractures are common in ruminants they rarely involve the roots and generally are not extracted |
|
|
Term
| Why is sinusitis associated with tooth root abscess so much more rare in ruminants than it is in horses? |
|
Definition
ruminants have a relatively small maxillary sinus compared to horses
**** however sinusitis associated with maxillary tooth root abscess is still possible in ruminants <-- all tooth root abcsesses need to be extracted |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathogenesis of osteodystropha fibrosa? |
|
Definition
young growing animals with deficiencies in either calcium, phosphorus, vitamin D or hyperparathyroidism (low serum calcium) --> resorption of calcium from the bones --> soft non-painful swelling of mandible, maxilla, or both
****slow to develop, need to assess feed that was provided months ago for mistakes in formulating the ration |
|
|
Term
| How can you differentiate wooden tongue from lumpy jaw? |
|
Definition
Lesions caused by wooden tongue are generally confined to soft tissues (tongue, LN) and organisms are gram negative
Lesions associated with lumpy jaw involve bony tissues and organisms are gram positive
**** both organisms produce sulfur granules |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment and prognosis associated with wooden tongue? |
|
Definition
| sodium iodine IV Q 7-10 days (1-3x) +/- surgical debridement <-- prognosis is good if just the tongue is involved |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment and prognosis associated with lumpy jaw (actonomycosis bovis)? |
|
Definition
lesion rarely regresses but medical treatment (NaI, penecillin etc.) can arrest development if no fistulaw or tooth involvement <-- if present surgical debridement
*** treatment is prolonged because it takes a long time for antibiotics to penetrate bone and accumulate to therapeutic levels within lesions; however, prognosis is good for small lesions that do not require surgical managment |
|
|
Term
| What are some clinical signs of pharyngeal trauma in ruminants? |
|
Definition
| head and neck extended, pain on pharyngeal palpation <-- often diagnostic (feel for area of roughness or feed accumulation) |
|
|
Term
| How do you manage pharyngeal trauma in ruminants? what is the prognosis? |
|
Definition
broad spectrum AB 10-14 day, limit feed intake to reduce risk of aspiration, NSAIDs to control inflammation (in well hydrated animals)
prognosis is good with tx |
|
|
Term
| T/F goat with caseous lymphadenitis can present without any peripheral lymphadenopathy |
|
Definition
TRUE
visceral form is less common, often present with weight loss |
|
|
Term
| How do you diagnose and treat caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats? |
|
Definition
culture abscess --> corynebacterium psudotuberculosis
Tx is cull |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common causes of choke in cattle? |
|
Definition
ingested chunks of solid feed (apples, potatoes etc.)
external compression of the esophagus by neoplasia or abcesses |
|
|
Term
| What is the sequela of complete esophageal obstruction in cattle? |
|
Definition
| inability to eructate rapidly leads to fatal free gas bloat |
|
|
Term
| What is the best surgical approach for intestinal lesions in cattle? |
|
Definition
| right flank/paralumbar fossa |
|
|
Term
| What is the most mobile region of the bovine intestinal tract? |
|
Definition
| distal phalange (distal jejunum and proximal coiled colon) |
|
|
Term
| Why is it hard to ligate individual vessels when performing intestinal surgery in cattle? |
|
Definition
| the mesentary is heavily fat laden |
|
|
Term
| What structure is often the first to be found and exteriorized when performing intestinal surgery in cattle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What six regions (compartments) of the abdomen should always be explored when performing abdominal surgery in a cow? |
|
Definition
caudal (pelvic canal and associated structures)
left (between lateral surface of rumen and left body wall)
central (between omental sling and medial rumen)
ventral (between ventral rumen/omental sling and ventral body wall)
right (between omental sling and right body wall)
cranial (structures that come in contact with the diaphragm- liver, reticulum, esophageal hiatus) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most practical means of treating a large intestinal obstruction in a cow? |
|
Definition
| bypass <-- too hard to resect |
|
|
Term
| What are the two most common surgical conditions of the bovine small intestine? |
|
Definition
intussusception (jejunojejunal or jejunoileal)
incarceration |
|
|
Term
| What clinical signs are associated with SI intissusception (jejunojejunal or jejunoileal) in cattle? |
|
Definition
acute colic - biphasic
multiple small pings
raspberry jam feces |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common site of SI incarceration in cattle? |
|
Definition
distal jejunum and proximal ileum
**** rare in hernias because small intestine are separated from the ventral abdominal wall by the omental sling |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common intraluminal SI obstruction in calves? in adults? |
|
Definition
hairballs in calves
blood clots (secondary to abomasal ulcers)in adults |
|
|
Term
| Why are high producing diary cows at higher risk for cecal dilation? |
|
Definition
| these animals rely more heavily on cecal fermentation for additional energy resulting in altered motility and increased accumulation of cecal gas |
|
|
Term
| What is the only intestinal structure in a cow that can torse? |
|
Definition
| the cecum (b/c not connected to the mesentary) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most simple technique for diagnosing cecal dilation? |
|
Definition
rectal
with cecal dilation it will be hard to get your hand past the pelvic inlet |
|
|
Term
| What location would a ping associated with cecal dilation be? |
|
Definition
| large right sided ping centered in the paralumbar fossa |
|
|
Term
| What three medical treatments can be used to manage mild cecal dilation? |
|
Definition
correct hypocalcemia
increase fiber length
decrease amount of concentrate feed in diet
**** requires close monitoring |
|
|
Term
| What effect dose cecal resection have on production? |
|
Definition
| normal life span, decreased milk production |
|
|
Term
| Why is surgical treatment of cecal volvulus so challeneging? |
|
Definition
| blood supply to the ileum and proximal colon are closely associated to the ileocecal junction and can be damaged when resecting non-viable (ischemic necrosis) tissue secondary to cecal volvulus |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of spiral colon obstruction? |
|
Definition
| extraluminal masses (ex. abscesses) and adhesions |
|
|
Term
| What three mechanisms contribute to the development of metabolic acidosis in calves with diarrhea? |
|
Definition
intestinal loss of HCO3
accumulation of L- lactic acid secondary to hypoperfusion
Absorption of D-lactic acid from bacterial fermentation of undigested milk in the gut |
|
|
Term
| What etiologic agent is responsible for causing hypersecretory diarrhea in calves <3 days of age? |
|
Definition
enterotoxigenic (K99+) e coli
*** colonizes crypt epithelium of ileum --> secretion of enterotoxin --> increased secretion of Na, Cl, K into intestinal lumen |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of calf scours in north america? |
|
Definition
rotavirus
*** destroys villous epitherium --> malabsorptive diarrhea |
|
|
Term
| How is clinical disease caused by rotavirus different from that caused by coronavirus? |
|
Definition
both cause malabsorptive diarrhea but disease associated with coronoavirus is more severe and prolonged
additionally lesions associated with rotavirus are generally limited to the SI, while coronavirus can affect the colon as well |
|
|
Term
| What two agents that cause diarrhea in calves are zoonotic? |
|
Definition
| cryptosporidium parvum and salmonelosis |
|
|
Term
| In a calve with diarrhea that is recumbant and depressed what is a good estimate of base deficit in the calf is <1 wk old? >1 wk? |
|
Definition
<1 wk ~10-15 mmol/L
>1 wk ~15-20 mmol/L |
|
|
Term
| If a calf with diarrhea is alert, standing, and eating what would be a good estimate of base deficit if the calf is <1wk old? >1 wk? |
|
Definition
<1 wk No base deficit
>1 wk up to 5 mmol/L |
|
|
Term
| What is the best indicator of dehydration in a calf? |
|
Definition
globe of eye sunken into orbit (>4mm is an indication for IV fluid therapy)
*** second best is skin tenting over the neck (>6 seconds is an indication for IV fluid therapy) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three guidelines for treatment of calf diarrhea? |
|
Definition
ISOLATE affected animals
Symptomatic and supportive care |
|
|
Term
| How can you calculate amount of HCO3 to supplement for a calf with acidosis secondary to diarrhea? |
|
Definition
| BW (kg)x base deficit (mmol/L) x 0.5 |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of HCO3 is in isotonic fluid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should be avoided when choosing oral electrolyte products? |
|
Definition
large amounts of HCO3 or citrate (unless milk is withheld) --> can interfere with clotting and digestion
*** we do want at least 50-80mmol/L of HCO3, citrate, or acetate (best for calves receiving milk) in order to provide alkalinizing capacity |
|
|
Term
| What are the three most important elements for oral fluid therapy for calves with diarrheal disease? |
|
Definition
| Na, alkalinizing agent (acetate, HCO3, citrate) and energy source (glucose/glycine <-- additionally, these facilitate Na absorption) |
|
|
Term
| T/F in order to assure adequate caloric intake inappetant calves being treated for diarrhea, milk should be provided via nasogastric tube |
|
Definition
| FALSE undigested milk ferments in the rumen --> d-lactic acid is absorbed systemically further exacerbating metabolic acidosis |
|
|
Term
| When should calves with diarrhea be treated with antibiotics? |
|
Definition
evidence of systemic disease or toxemia
FPT
salmonellosis
hematochezia or shreds of mucosa in feces (breakdown of gut-blood barrier) |
|
|
Term
| What antibiotic characteristics are ideal for the treatment of calf scours? |
|
Definition
parentral route, bactericidal, broad spectrum with good gram negative coverage, excretion in bile, safe in dehydrated patient
*** ceftiofur, ampicillin/amoxicillin, TMS (not in US) |
|
|
Term
| What vaccines are available for use in neonates in order to boost immunity against specific enteric pathogens? |
|
Definition
All are administered orally
equine anti-enterotoxigenic e coli antibodies (passive immunity)
MLV rotavirus/coronavirus (active immunity) |
|
|
Term
| Rumen chloride concentrations >30mEq/L are associated with what type of GI lesions in cattle? |
|
Definition
| obstruction at the pylorus or proximal small intestine |
|
|
Term
| rumen fluid analysis can be used to assess the status of what four elements of GI physiology in cattle? |
|
Definition
analyze rumen fluid to assess pH, status of fermentation (new methylene blue reduction test and sedimentation test), microbial flora, and abomasal outflow
***avoid salivary contamination (will artifactually elevate pH) |
|
|
Term
| T/F rectal palption is indicated in ruminants where there is suspicion of ANY GI/abdominal disorder |
|
Definition
TRUE
***if suspecting ulcers test feces for occult blood BEFORE doing the rectal exam |
|
|
Term
| What decreases rumen motility? |
|
Definition
severe distention
very low pH (normal is 5.5-7)
very high VFA concentrations
toxemia, systemic dz, CNS dz --> depression at the level of the medulla oblongata |
|
|
Term
| What two physical phenomena increase rumen motility? |
|
Definition
eating (ie. presence of feed in mouth, esophagus and forestomach)
mild-moderate distention of the rumen and abomasum |
|
|
Term
| What central and peripheral innervation is involved in maintaining rumen motility? |
|
Definition
| vagus nerves transmit motor and sensory info to and from the gastric centers in the medulla oblongata |
|
|
Term
| What two major contraction patterns are associated with normal rumen motility? |
|
Definition
primary contraction cycle --> mixing of ingesta to maintain normal fermentation and stratification of rumen contents
secondary contraction cycle --> occurs secondary to gas distention of the dorsal aspect of the rumen -> cardia relaxes and cranial wave of contraction pushed gas into the esophagus -> eructation |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal range of rumen pH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Other than VFAs what is the other major byproduct of the anaerobic fermentation that occurs within the rumen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does diet affect the mucosal lining of the rumen? |
|
Definition
forage based diet --> smaller rumena papillae (less VFA production)
high CHO diets --> high levels of VFAs produced -->larger more developed papillae |
|
|
Term
| When performing a blind procedure to correct LDA which side should the cow be cast on? |
|
Definition
cast in right lateral recumbancy and roll into dorsal recumbancy, locate the ping ventrally and decompress the abomasum percutaneously with a large bore needle
*** we want to use the gas in the abomasum to restore normal midline positioning |
|
|
