The Air Force Portal provides essential online resources for the Air Force at a single location, and it also does the following except?

a. The Air Force's vision of how we eliminate duplication.

b. Integrate Air Force systems.

c. Provide easy access to information.

d. Provide faster, reliable service.

The Air Force Portal provides essential online resources for the Air Force at a single location, and it also does the following except?

a. The Air Force's vision of how we eliminate duplication.

b. Integrate Air Force systems.

c. Provide easy access to information.

d. Provide faster, reliable service.

Who is the approval authority for the public Web pages?

a. Web master

b. Unit commander

c. Information provider

d. Web page maintainer.

Who is the approval authority for the public Web pages?

a. Web master

b. Unit commander

c. Information provider

d. Web page maintainer.

What information is required for all top-level private Web pages?

a. Commander's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and email

b. Information provider's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and email

c. Web page maintainer's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and email

d. Emergency contact information to include commercial, DSN, home telephone numbers

What information is required for all top-level private Web pages?

a. Commander's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and email

b. Information provider's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and email

c. Web page maintainer's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and email

d. Emergency contact information to include commercial, DSN, home telephone numbers

Who is the approval authority for the private Web pages?

a. Web master

b. Unit commander

c. Information provider

d. Web page maintainer

Who is the approval authority for the private Web pages? 

a. Web master

b. Unit commander

c. Information provider

d. Web page maintainer

What is the primary purpose of managing Air Force information?

a. Document past actions of historical value.

b. Provide effective control of Privacy Act (PA) material

c. Comply with Air Force horizon vision documents

d. Effectively and efficiently enhance the Air Force mission

What is the primary purpose of managing Air Force information?

a. Document past actions of historical value.

b. Provide effective control of Privacy Act (PA) material

c. Comply with Air Force horizon vision documents

d. Effectively and efficiently enhance the Air Force mission

Which of the following are ways we manage information in support of information resources management?

a. Storage and privacy

b. Security and privacy

c. Storage and privacy

d. Security and disposition

Which of the following are ways we manage information in support of information resources management?

a. Storage and privacy

b. Security and privacy

c. Storage and privacy

d. Security and disposition

What stage of the life cycle management provides preservation?

a. Use

b. Storage

c. Disposition

d. Dissemination

What stage of the life cycle management provides preservation?

a. Use

b. Storage

c. Disposition

d. Dissemination

What is the objectiv eof the electronic communications program?

a. Create clear, efficient, and effective communications

b. Keep formats up-to-date with changing technologies

c. Use standard Air Force formats for all communications

d. Prepare correspondence consistent with day-to-day requirements 

What is the objectiv eof the electronic communications program? 

a. Create clear, efficient, and effective communications

b. Keep formats up-to-date with changing technologies

c. Use standard Air Force formats for all communications

d. Prepare correspondence consistent with day-to-day requirements 

Which plain language element emphasizes the need to put your main message up front?

a. Active voice

b. Short sentences

c. Common words

d. Logical Organization

Which plain language element emphasizes the need to put your main message up front? 

a. Active voice

b. Short sentences

c. Common words

d. Logical Organization

Which plain language element reinforces the message tha tthe document is intended for the reader?

a. Pronouns

b. Active voice

c. Short sentences

d. Common words

Which plain language element reinforces the message tha tthe document is intended for the reader?

a. Pronouns

b. Active voice

c. Short sentences

d. Common words

On the average, about what percentage of communication do you write in the active voice to communicate effectively?

a. 15

b. 25

c. 50

d. 75

On the average, about what percentage of communication do you write in the active voice to communicate effectively?

a. 15

b. 25

c. 50

d. 75

Which is not a Form Memorandum?

a. Fill-in

b. Fill-out

c. Prewriten

d. Optional statement

Which is not a Form Memorandum?

a. Fill-in

b. Fill-out

c. Prewriten

d. Optional statement

What type of Air Force correspondence receives the most indorsements?

a. Messages

b. Memorandums

c. Personal letters

d. Staff Sumarries

What type of Air Force correspondence receives the most indorsements?

a. Messages

b. Memorandums

c. Personal letters

d. Staff Sumarries

What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?

a. Brief

b. Official

c. Explanatory

d. Seperate page

What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?

a. Brief

b. Official

c. Explanatory

d. Seperate page

Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interst, or summarize problems are

a. Briefings

b. position papers

c. bullet background papers

d. memorandums for record

Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interst, or summarize problems are

a. Briefings

b. position papers

c. bullet background papers

d. memorandums for record

Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking?

a. sender

b. receiver

c. supervisor

d. commander

Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking?

a. sender

b. receiver

c. supervisor

d. commander

When an AutoArchive storage process is used what type of folder is created?

a. public

b. private

c. shared

d. personal

When an AutoArchive storage process is used what type of folder is created?

a. public

b. private

c. shared

d. personal

Once an item is archived how is it deleted?

a. manually

b. automatically

c. deleted permanently

d. moved to another archived location

Once an item is archived how is it deleted?

a. manually

b. automatically

c. deleted permanently

d. moved to another archived location

What must you do with containers endorsed "DO NOT FORWARD" that remain in action offices at the close of business?

a. place in an opaque container and have the highest-ranking individual take it home

b. inspect to determine classification of contents and then return to sender

c. return to the base information tansfer center for safeguarding

d. store in a classified storage container

What must you do with containers endorsed "DO NOT FORWARD" that remain in action offices at the close of business?

a. place in an opaque container and have the highest-ranking individual take it home

b. inspect to determine classification of contents and then return to sender

c. return to the base information tansfer center for safeguarding

d. store in a classified storage container

Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered news agents?

a. priority

b. first class

c. periodical

d. standard mail

Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered news agents?

a. priority

b. first class

c. periodical

d. standard mail

When should you use certified mail?

a. when using consolidated mail

b. when required by law or Department of Defense (DoD) or Air Force directives

c. when the contents are valuable and a receipt is needed

d. when you need to trace communications sent between Air Force activities

When should you use certified mail?

a. when using consolidated mail

b. when required by law or Department of Defense (DoD) or Air Force directives

c. when the contents are valuable and a receipt is needed

d. when you need to trace communications sent between Air Force activities

What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container from the sender through the base information transfer system into the US Postal Service, and on to the receiver?

a. DD form 2825, internal receipt; and and AF form 310, Documentation Receipt and destruction certificate

b.Af form 74, communication status notice/request; and DD form 2825, internal receipt

c. container numbers and AF FORM 310, document receipt and destruction certificate

d. container numbers and DD form 2825, internal receipt

What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container from the sender through the base information transfer system into the US Postal Service, and on to the receiver?

a. DD form 2825, internal receipt; and and AF form 310, Documentation Receipt and destruction certificate

b.Af form 74, communication status notice/request; and DD form 2825, internal receipt

c. container numbers and AF FORM 310, document receipt and destruction certificate

d. container numbers and DD form 2825, internal receipt

Is an accurate example of an accountable container number

a. 2008-UUB-058

b. UUB-2008-58

c. UUB-08-058

d. 58-008-UUB

Which is an accurate example of an accountable container number

a. 2008-UUB-058

b. UUB-2008-58

c. UUB-08-058

d. 58-008-UUB

The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them

a. insured

b. express

c. certified

d. registered

The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them

a. insured

b. express

c. certified

d. registered

What level of damage to national security could reasonably be expected if unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information occured?

a. grave

b. serious

c. extremely serious

d. exceptionally grave

What level of damage to national security could reasonably be expected if unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information occured?

a. grave

b. serious

c. extremely serious

d. exceptionally grave

What type of classification decision involves information that is paraphrased or restated?

a. original

b. compiled

c. derivative

d. consolidated

What type of classification decision involves information that is paraphrased or restated?

a. original

b. compiled

c. derivative

d. consolidated

What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action contrary to the requirements of Executive Order 12958 that is not a security violation?

a. sanction

b. violation

c. infraction

d. compromise

What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action contrary to the requirements of Executive Order 12958 that is not a security violation?

a. sanction

b. violation

c. infraction

d. compromise

What must you do when you find classified material out of proper control?

a. inventory material and destroy

b. take custody of the material and safeguard it

c. leave where it is and contact security forces to investigate

d. determine who has responsibility for the material and return it

What must you do when you find classified material out of proper control?

a. inventory material and destroy

b. take custody of the material and safeguard it

c. leave where it is and contact security forces to investigate

d. determine who has responsibility for the material and return it

What is not a factor in releasing classified information?

a. rank

b. need to know

c. security clearance

d. nondisclosure agreement

What is not a factor in releasing classified information?

a. rank

b. need to know

c. security clearance

d. nondisclosure agreement

Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?

a. possessor

b. commander

c. security manager

d. original classifier

Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?

a. possessor

b. commander

c. security manager

d. original classifier

Top Secret material should never be sent

a. between appropriately cleared and designed persons

b. through the base information transfer system

c. over a cryptographic system

d. by defense courier service

Top Secret material should never be sent

a. between appropriately cleared and designed persons

b. through the base information transfer system

c. over a cryptographic system

d. by defense courier service

When is an outer container not required for the transfer of classified information?

a. Secret and below being entered into the base information transfer system

b. confidential material being sent to or from Army  Post Office (APO) addresses

c. transmiting to Department of Defense (DoD) contractors or non-DoD agencies

d. secret material sent overseas by the US Postal Service 

When is an outer container not required for the transfer of classified information?

a. Secret and below being entered into the base information transfer system

b. confidential material being sent to or from Army  Post Office (APO) addresses

c. transmiting to Department of Defense (DoD) contractors or non-DoD agencies

d. secret material sent overseas by the US Postal Service 

What must you do when you mail materials of different classifications in one package?

a. seperate each classifiaction with a receipt

b. place all material in a single inner container

c. place each classification in a seperate inner container

d. do not mail different classifications of material in one package

What must you do when you mail materials of different classifications in one package?

a. seperate each classifiaction with a receipt

b. place all material in a single inner container

c. place each classification in a seperate inner container

d. do not mail different classifications of material in one package

When you mail classified material, address containers to the

a. unit Top Secret control officer

b. office that is to take action on it

c. base information security program manager

d. specific person identified as the point of contact

When you mail classified material, address containers to the

a. unit Top Secret control officer

b. office that is to take action on it

c. base information security program manager

d. specific person identified as the point of contact

Air Force units at what level must document their organization, function, and activities preserve their records by implementing effective lifecycle management procedures within their areas of responsibility?

a. every

b. group

c. wing

d. major command (MAJCOM) 

Air Force units at what level must document their organization, function, and activities preserve their records by implementing effective lifecycle management procedures within their areas of responsibility?

a. Every

b. group

c. wing

d. major command (MAJCOM) 

Which of the following is not an example of an Air Force record?

a. magnetic tapes

b. motion pictures

c. museum material

d. machine readable material

Which of the following is not an example of an Air Force record?

a. magnetic tapes

b. motion pictures

c. museum material

d. machine readable material

What type of record is created when the Air National Guard (ANG) is creating the records and the federal emergency management agency gets involved and federal dollars are put towards the emergency?

a. state only

b. Federal only

c. personal only

d. state and federal only

What type of record is created when the Air National Guard (ANG) is creating the records and the federal emergency management agency gets involved and federal dollars are put towards the emergency?

a. state only

b. Federal only

c. personal only

d. state and federal only

Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained within

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 4 months

d. 6 months

Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained within

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 4 months

d. 6 months

Who appoints a records custodian?

a. base records manager (BRM)

b. command records manager (CRM)

c. Chief of the Office of Record (COR)

d. functional area records manager (FARM)

Who appoints a records custodian?

a. base records manager (BRM)

b. command records manager (CRM)

c. Chief of the Office of Record (COR)

d. functional area records manager (FARM)

Who should know and implement the recorde maintenance, use, and disposition policies and procedures for records maintained?

a. base records manager (BRM)

b. Records Custodian (RC)

c. Chief of the Office of Record (COR)

d. functional area records manager (FARM)

Who should know and implement the recorde maintenance, use, and disposition policies and procedures for records maintained?

a. base records manager (BRM)

b. Records Custodian (RC)

c. Chief of the Office of Record (COR)

d. functional area records manager (FARM)

By filling out summary information for documents you create, your final records will be

a. easier to manage

b. harder to manage and retrieve

c. somewhat complex and hard to retrieve

d. somewhat complex and easier to retrieve

By filling out summary information for documents you create, your final records will be

a. easier to manage

b. harder to manage and retrieve

c. somewhat complex and hard to retrieve

d. somewhat complex and easier to retrieve

How does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) ensure standardization and accuracy of every records series?

a. using a standard format for all Air Force file plans

b. centralizing all records management functions Air Force-wide

c. controlling the life cycle of all records series used throughout the Air Force

d. Ensuring offices Air Force-wide use the same disposition instructions for records

How does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) ensure standardization and accuracy of every records series?

a. using a standard format for all Air Force file plans

b. centralizing all records management functions Air Force-wide

c. controlling the life cycle of all records series used throughout the Air Force

d. Ensuring offices Air Force-wide use the same disposition instructions for records

What type of labels does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) print?

a. file drawer

b. Subdivision

c. locator guide card

d. decision logic table

What type of labels does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) print?

a. file drawer

b. Subdivision

c. locator guide card

d. decision logic table

The Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) generates a file disposition control label for

a. Each item listed on the file plan

b. each subdivision identified on the file plan

c. only the local record series on the file plan

d. only the permanent record series on the file pan

The Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) generates a file disposition control label for

a. Each item listed on the file plan

b. each subdivision identified on the file plan

c. only the local record series on the file plan

d. only the permanent record series on the file pan

How many disposition authorities (table& rule) are allowed per records series?

a. five

b. two

c. One

d. three

How many disposition authorities (table& rule) are allowed per records series?

a. five

b. two

c. One

d. three

What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?

a. file folders

b. subdivision folders

c. locator guide cards

d. Disposition guide cards

What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?

a. file folders

b. subdivision folders

c. locator guide cards

d. Disposition guide cards

Where are lacels placed on the file folders?

a. on the right

b. on the left

c. in the center

d. Placement is based on the needs of the office and is consistent

Where are lacels placed on the file folders?

a. on the right

b. on the left

c. in the center

d. Placement is based on the needs of the office and is consistent

What information does not appear on a subdivision label?

a. title

b. Cutoff

c. item number

d. office of record

What information does not appear on a subdivision label?

a. title

b. Cutoff

c. item number

d. office of record

What is reviewed when files expand to more than one drawer or files are filed in other locations to determine the inclusive series numbers to be placed on the drawer label?

a. File Plan

b. decision logic table

c. disposition control label

d. records disposition schedule (RDS)

What is reviewed when files expand to more than one drawer or files are filed in other locations to determine the inclusive series numbers to be placed on the drawer label?

a. File Plan

b. decision logic table

c. disposition control label

d. records disposition schedule (RDS)

What should you remove from a document prior to filing?

a. attachments

b. Envelopes

c. staples and fasteners

d. destruction certificate 

What should you remove from a document prior to filing?

a. attachments

b. Envelopes

c. staples and fasteners

d. destruction certificate 

Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?

a. the file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 01

b. To help rerieve filed documents efficiently

c. it's the table of contents for the filing system

d. the filing system doesn't identify the file plan

Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?

a. the file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 01

b. To help rerieve filed documents efficiently

c. it's the table of contents for the filing system

d. the filing system doesn't identify the file plan

What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is ocated somewhere else?

a. file plan

b. directory

c. memo of record

d. Cross-reference sheet

What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is ocated somewhere else?

a. file plan

b. directory

c. memo of record

d. Cross-reference sheet

When using additional copies of a record for cross-referenceing, hwo is the cross-reference lacation identified?

a. attach a cross-reference sheet to each copy of the record

b. write "cross-reference" across the top of each copy of the record

c. Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are filed

d. annotate each copy with a list of each location where the record is filed and a justification for the additional copies 

When using additional copies of a record for cross-referenceing, hwo is the cross-reference lacation identified?

a. attach a cross-reference sheet to each copy of the record

b. write "cross-reference" across the top of each copy of the record

c. Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are filed

d. annotate each copy with a list of each location where the record is filed and a justification for the additional copies 

Cross-referencing provides more reliable files service as long as

a. Excessive cross-referencing is avoided

b. written instructions are filed with each record

c. all records are given a cross-reference location

d. cross-reference are detailed and very descriptive

Cross-referencing provides more reliable files service as long as

a. Excessive cross-referencing is avoided

b. written instructions are filed with each record

c. all records are given a cross-reference location

d. cross-reference are detailed and very descriptive

What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?

a. Period of time the record is needed

b. number of copies the individual will make

c. frequency of reference to the requested material

d. how many people will have access to the records

What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?

a. Period of time the record is needed

b. number of copies the individual will make

c. frequency of reference to the requested material

d. how many people will have access to the records

What is "disposition" when dealing with Air Force records?

a. destruction of active records

b. Actions taken with inactive orders

c. time when you stop filing in the active records

d. eradication process used for the records staging area

What is "disposition" when dealing with Air Force records?

a. destruction of active records

b. Actions taken with inactive orders

c. time when you stop filing in the active records

d. eradication process used for the records staging area

What is disposition based on when dealing with Air Force records?

a. Time period or event

b. specific action or disposition

c. disposal method or time period

d. retention period or specific action

What is disposition based on when dealing with Air Force records?

a. Time period or event

b. specific action or disposition

c. disposal method or time period

d. retention period or specific action

How does the records disposition program play a key role in the management of Air Force records?

a. preservation of classified records

b. Economic and efficient management

c. enduring value for temporary records

d. reference tools for commander's decisions

How does the records disposition program play a key role in the management of Air Force records?

a. preservation of classified records

b. Economic and efficient management

c. enduring value for temporary records

d. reference tools for commander's decisions

How are long-term paper records 10 years or older handled?

a. kept in active file until destroyed

b. placed in the inactive file until destroyed

c. Retired to authorized federal records centers

d. disposed through the functional area records manager

How are long-term paper records 10 years or older handled?

a. kept in active file until destroyed

b. placed in the inactive file until destroyed

c. Retired to authorized federal records centers

d. disposed through the functional area records manager

Who is authorized to approve the permanent retention of records?

a. air force records manager

b. Archivist of the United States

c. united states records manager

d. national archives and records administration

Who is authorized to approve the permanent retention of records?

a. air force records manager

b. Archivist of the United States

c. united states records manager

d. national archives and records administration

When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are

a. sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period

b. cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a seperate entity

c. cut of the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual

d. Continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occured

When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are

a. sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period

b. cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a seperate entity

c. cut of the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual

d. Continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occured

The emergency disposal of records, without regard to tables and rules, is applied when the records

a. destruction by hostile or potentially action is an ever-present danger

b. do not protect the legal or financial rights of individuals or the Air Force

c. are considered valuable enough to warrant preservation

d. Are a menace to health, life, or property 

The emergency disposal of records, without regard to tables and rules, is applied when the records

a. destruction by hostile or potentially action is an ever-present danger

b. do not protect the legal or financial rights of individuals or the Air Force

c. are considered valuable enough to warrant preservation

d. Are a menace to health, life, or property 

What is the first part of the plan when developing a vital records plan?

a. identify the records

b. Description of the records

c. specific measures for storing copies

d. determine the most critical function

What is the first part of the plan when developing a vital records plan?

a. identify the records

b. Description of the records

c. specific measures for storing copies

d. determine the most critical function

Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except

a. physically stop adding records to a series

b. seperating active records from inactive records

c. transfer of eligible records to the records staging area

d. point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file

Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except

a. physically stop adding records to a series

b. seperating active records from inactive records

c. Transfer of eligible records to the records staging area

d. point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file

Which of the following is not a cutoff period?

a. monthly

b. Quarterly

c. fiscal year (FY)

d. calendar year (CY)

Which of the following is not a cutoff period?

a. monthly

b. Quarterly

c. fiscal year (FY)

d. calendar year (CY)

At least how many years remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?

a. two

b. five

c. six

d. Three

At least how many years remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?

a. two

b. five

c. six

d. Three

What type of records does the SF 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt, identify?

a. records for transfer to another organization only

b. retirement to a federal records center or staging center only

c. transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only

d. Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization

What type of records does the SF 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt, identify?

a. records for transfer to another organization only

b. retirement to a federal records center or staging center only

c. transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only

d. Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization

What type of records does the staging area store?

a. perpetual and temporary

b. perpetual and transitory

c. Permanent and temporary

d. permanent and transitory

What type of records does the staging area store?

a. perpetual and temporary

b. perpetual and transitory

c. Permanent and temporary

d. permanent and transitory

Who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2- to 8- year retention records in the current files area?

a. command records manager (CRM)

b. chief of the office of record (COR)

c. Records Manager (RM)

d. functional area records manager (FARM)

Who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2- to 8- year retention records in the current files area?

a. command records manager (CRM)

b. chief of the office of record (COR)

c. Records Manager (RM)

d. functional area records manager (FARM)

What does the staging area review to determine what records are eligible for disposal and when?

a. disposition control label

b. disposition control label, before the end of each calendar or fiscal year

c. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and receipt before the end of each calender year (CY) or fiscal year (FY)

d. sf form 135, Records transmittal and receipt 

What does the staging area review to determine what records are eligible for disposal and when?

a. disposition control label

b. disposition control label, before the end of each calendar or fiscal year

c. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and receipt before the end of each calender year (CY) or fiscal year (FY)

d. sf form 135, Records transmittal and receipt 

To recycle Privacy Act (PA) material, what must recycling contracts include?

a. Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction

b. specific contract employess authorized to handle for official use only (FOUO) materials

c. guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination

d. fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials 

To recycle Privacy Act (PA) material, what must recycling contracts include?

a. Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction

b. specific contract employess authorized to handle for official use only (FOUO) materials

c. guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination

d. fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials

Who does the office of primary responsibility (OPR) submit an AF IMT 525, Records Disposition Recommendation, to?

a. records custodian (RC)

b. Records Manager (RM)

c. command records manager (CRM)

d. functional area records manager (FARM)

Who does the office of primary responsibility (OPR) submit an AF IMT 525, Records Disposition Recommendation, to?

a. records custodian (RC)

b. Records Manager (RM)

c. command records manager (CRM)

d. functional area records manager (FARM)

Which of the following is an objective for determining retention?

a. whether the retention period can be increased

b. How much Air Force documentation is really essential

c. how many records designated as "temporary" are of real enduring value

d. whether the records efficiently document individual activities and transactions

Which of the following is an objective for determining retention?

a. whether the retention period can be increased

b. How much Air Force documentation is really essential

c. how many records designated as "temporary" are of real enduring value

d. whether the records efficiently document individual activities and transactions

What is the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of federal agencies and organizations, and other presidential documents?

a. The Federal Register

b. the federal requirements

c. the product announcement

d. the information collection report

What is the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of federal agencies and organizations, and other presidential documents?

a. The Federal Register

b. the federal requirements

c. the product announcement

d. the information collection report

What is one of the duties of the AIr Force Federal Register Liaison Office (AFFRLO)?

a. act as the multiple point of contact with all offices of the federal registrar

b. Provide advice/guidance to Air Force personnel on publishing rules and notices

c. describe procedures by which to conduct business with the public

d. maintain copies of certificates of determination

What is one of the duties of the AIr Force Federal Register Liaison Office (AFFRLO)?

a. act as the multiple point of contact with all offices of the federal registrar

b. Provide advice/guidance to Air Force personnel on publishing rules and notices

c. describe procedures by which to conduct business with the public

d. maintain copies of certificates of determination

The Department of Defense's (DOD) policy on providing information on its activities in an open manner to the general public is to provide

a. all information concerning its activities

b. only unclassified information concerning its activities

c. accurate and timely information on a need-to-know basis

d. A maximum amount of accurate and timely information concerning its activities 

The Department of Defense's (DOD) policy on providing information on its activities in an open manner to the general public is to provide

a. all information concerning its activities

b. only unclassified information concerning its activities

c. accurate and timely information on a need-to-know basis

d. A maximum amount of accurate and timely information concerning its activities 

Who is responsible for preparing and coordinating on all proposed replies to a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requestor?

a. office of primary responsibility (OPR)

b. initial denial authority

c. disclosure authority

d. FOIA manager

Who is responsible for preparing and coordinating on all proposed replies to a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requestor?

a. office of primary responsibility (OPR)

b. initial denial authority

c. disclosure authority

d. FOIA manager

Who is the focal point for the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) portion of the installation web site?

a. FOIA manager

b. system manager

c. installation manager

d. director, communication and information

Who is the focal point for the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) portion of the installation web site?

a. FOIA manager

b. system manager

c. installation manager

d. director, communication and information

Who finds and provides the requested records and helps to determine whether to release the records?

a. office of primary responsibility (OPR)

b. disclosure authority

c. FOIA manager

d. requestor

Who finds and provides the requested records and helps to determine whether to release the records?

a. office of primary responsibility (OPR)

b. disclosure authority

c. FOIA manager

d. requestor

Who acts as the declassification authority when such action is appropriate and coordinates the release or denial of records?

a. freedom of information act (FOIA) manager

b. Office of primary responsibility (OPR)

c. information security program manager

d. disclosure authority 

Who acts as the declassification authority when such action is appropriate and coordinates the release or denial of records?

a. freedom of information act (FOIA) manager

b. Office of primary responsibility (OPR)

c. information security program manager

d. disclosure authority 

Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests categorized as simple involve records that are

a. privledged

b. easy to read

c. Small in volume

d. highly accessible

Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests categorized as simple involve records that are

a. privledged

b. easy to read

c. Small in volume

d. highly accessible

Who does a requestor submit an appeal to, when a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) office withholds a record from release because they determined the record is exempt under one or more of the exemptions?

a. privacy act (PA) officer

b. defense privacy office

c. Secretary of the Air Force

d. director, communications and information 

Who does a requestor submit an appeal to, when a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) office withholds a record from release because they determined the record is exempt under one or more of the exemptions?

a. privacy act (PA) officer

b. defense privacy office

c. Secretary of the Air Force

d. director, communications and information 

An official system of records must be

a. Authorized by law or executive order

b. used to retrieve information on individuals

c. controlled by a Department of Defense directive

d. organized in accordance with the federal register

An official system of records must be

a. Authorized by law or executive order

b. used to retrieve information on individuals

c. controlled by a Department of Defense directive

d. organized in accordance with the federal register

Who is the focal point in a functional area for general Privacy Act (PA) questions?

a. system manager

b. pa officer

c. PA monitor

d. air force employees

Who is the focal point in a functional area for general Privacy Act (PA) questions?

a. system manager

b. pa officer

c. PA monitor

d. air force employees

What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy Act (PA) records?

a. official

b. directed

c. Functional

d. informational

What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy Act (PA) records?

a. official

b. directed

c. Functional

d. informational

To avoid conflicts or discrepancies, the best possible source for collecting personal data is

a. personnel roster

b. The subject of the record

c. close friends of the member

d. other data systems holding the information

To avoid conflicts or discrepancies, the best possible source for collecting personal data is

a. personnel roster

b. The subject of the record

c. close friends of the member

d. other data systems holding the information

When wroking with Privacy Act (PA) information, if more protection is needed for a system of records, be sure to balance the

a. acceptable losses with the system expenses

b. Additional protection measures against risk and cost

c. quantity of information stored against the security measures required

d. organizational mission with the time restraints imposed by security policies

When wroking with Privacy Act (PA) information, if more protection is needed for a system of records, be sure to balance the

a. acceptable losses with the system expenses

b. Additional protection measures against risk and cost

c. quantity of information stored against the security measures required

d. organizational mission with the time restraints imposed by security policies

What is used to determine the disposal of Privacy Act (PA) records?

a. for official use only (FOUO) register

b. squadron policy

c. records retention schedule

d. Privacy Act (PA) disposition list

What is used to determine the disposal of Privacy Act (PA) records?

a. for official use only (FOUO) register

b. squadron policy

c. records retention schedule

d. Privacy Act (PA) disposition list

What type of information should be considered and protected as for official use only (FOUO)?

a. information that has been given a security classification

b. unclassified information that is being processed in a foreign country

c. classified information that contains FOUO information

d. Information that may be withheld because disclosure would cause a foreseeable harm to an interest protected by the freedom of information act

What type of information should be considered and protected as for official use only (FOUO)?

a. information that has been given a security classification

b. unclassified information that is being processed in a foreign country

c. classified information that contains FOUO information

d. Information that may be withheld because disclosure would cause a foreseeable harm to an interest protected by the freedom of information act

What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of For ooficial Use Only (FOUO) records occurs?

a. corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization

b. Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization

c. process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence, and notify the originating organization

d. notify originating organization, follow guidance provided by that organization, and investigate all events that led to the occurrence

What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of For ooficial Use Only (FOUO) records occurs?

a. corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization

b. Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization

c. process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence, and notify the originating organization

d. notify originating organization, follow guidance provided by that organization, and investigate all events that led to the occurrence

When should For Official Use Only (FOUO) markings on a file or document be terminated?

a. when placed in the inactive file

b. only when documents have been marked for destruction

c. when a request for the records has been made under the freedom of informaation act

d. When circumstances indicate the information no longer requires protection from public disclosure

When should For Official Use Only (FOUO) markings on a file or document be terminated?

a. when placed in the inactive file

b. only when documents have been marked for destruction

c. when a request for the records has been made under the freedom of informaation act

d. When circumstances indicate the information no longer requires protection from public disclosure

Which of these processes is not a step in the publishing process of electronic products?

a. Producing

b. formatting

c. posting

d. storing

Which of these processes is not a step in the publishing process of electronic products?

a. Producing

b. formatting

c. posting

d. storing

Who is authorized to serve as the point of contact for, provide coordination on, certify, and/or approve official Air Force publications and forms?

a. any civilian employee

b. any contractor employee

c. any foreign national employee

d. Only civilian employees or military members of the Air FOrce

Who is authorized to serve as the point of contact for, provide coordination on, certify, and/or approve official Air Force publications and forms?

a. any civilian employee

b. any contractor employee

c. any foreign national employee

d. Only civilian employees or military members of the Air FOrce

A special review of a publication orr form is conducted when the

a. point of contact (POC) decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review

b. poc decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review

c. office of primary (OPR) decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review

d. OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review

A special review of a publication orr form is conducted when the

a. point of contact (POC) decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review

b. poc decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review

c. office of primary (OPR) decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review

d. OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review

When should you establish a foraml paper version requirement for publications?

a. Mission-related need only

b. access to an official electronic source of publications

c. mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications

d. defense automated printing service approval and access to an official electronic source of publications

When should you establish a foraml paper version requirement for publications?

a. Mission-related need only

b. access to an official electronic source of publications

c. mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications

d. defense automated printing service approval and access to an official electronic source of publications

Administrative changes to publications DO NOT affect subject matter

a. content only

b. authority only

c. purpose only

d. content, authority, purpose, and application

Administrative changes to publications DO NOT affect subject matter

a. content only

b. authority only

c. purpose only

d. Content, authority, purpose, and application

Up to what amount is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act (PA) record system that has not been published in the Federal Register or for marking an unauthorized disclosure?

a. $5,000

b. $10,000

c. $15,000

d. $20,000

Up to what amount is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act (PA) record system that has not been published in the Federal Register or for marking an unauthorized disclosure?

a. $5,000

b. $10,000

c. $15,000

d. $20,000

To reduce costly, inefective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collection and reports management programs'

a. goal

b. mission

c. Purpose

d. objective

To reduce costly, inefective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collection and reports management programs'

a. goal

b. mission

c. Purpose

d. objective

What is the management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements?

a. Reports control symbol

b. unit reporting document

c. information collection and reports

d. records information management system

What is the management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements?

a. Reports control symbol

b. unit reporting document

c. information collection and reports

d. records information management system

U2

In the context of cognitive hierarchy what information is analyzed provide meaning and value, or evaluated as to implacations for the operation?

a. data

b. information

c. Knowledge

d. understanding

U2

In the context of cognitive hierarchy what information is analyzed provide meaning and value, or evaluated as to implacations for the operation?

a. data

b. information

c. Knowledge

d. understanding

U2

In the context of cognitive hierarchy what is knowledge that has been synthesized and judgement applied to it in a specific situation to comprehend the situation's inner relationships?

a. data

b. information

c. knowledge

d. Understanding

U2

In the context of cognitive hierarchy what is knowledge that has been synthesized and judgement applied to it in a specific situation to comprehend the situation's inner relationships?

a. data

b. information

c. knowledge

d. Understanding

U2

Data analyzed describes what level of cognitive hierarchy? 

a. data

b. Information

c. knowledge

d. understanding

U2

Data analyzed describes what level of cognitive hierarchy? 

a. data

b. Information

c. knowledge

d. understanding

U2

Knowledge combined with judgement and experience describes what level of the cognitive hierarchy? 

a. data

b. information

c. knowledge

d. Understanding

U2

Knowledge combined with judgement and experience describes what level of the cognitive hierarchy? 

a. data

b. information

c. knowledge

d. Understanding

U2

What objectives will the maturation of the services oriented architecture directly support?

a. dept of defense

b. Secretary of the Air Force

c. majcom commander

d. wing commander

U2

What objectives will the maturation of the services oriented architecture directly support?

a. dept of defense

b. Secretary of the Air Force

c. majcom commander

d. wing commander

U2

What is a data element? 

a. personal record of structure type

b. Physical representation of data entity attribute

c. data structure of how data resides in a database

d. specialized format for organizing and storing data

U2

What is a data element? 

a. personal record of structure type

b. Physical representation of data entity attribute

c. data structure of how data resides in a database

d. specialized format for organizing and storing data

U2

What term is a structured description of records used to describe database objects representations, and the relationship among them?

a. model

b. pointer

c. Schema

d. structure

U2

What term is a structured description of records used to describe database objects representations, and the relationship among them?

a. model

b. pointer

c. Schema

d. structure

U2

When storing data structures a group of ordered data items or elements defines what type of list? 

a. stack

b. Linked

c. sequential

d. hierarchial

U2

When storing data structures a group of ordered data items or elements defines what type of list? 

a. stack

b. Linked

c. sequential

d. hierarchial

U2

What term do you used to address the data item instead of addressing the entire size of the data item?  

a. model

b. Pointer

c. schema

d. structure

U2

What term do you used to address the data item instead of addressing the entire size of the data item?  

a. model

b. Pointer

c. schema

d. structure

U2

What term describes a set of data elements or values organized by using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns?  

a. view

b. build

c. meta-data

d. Database table

U2

What term describes a set of data elements or values organized by using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns?  

a. view

b. build

c. meta-data

d. Database table

U2

A tree structure within a hierarchial data structure is best used to display database records that have what type of fields?

a. reliant

b. Repetitive

c. structure

d. independent

U2

A tree structure within a hierarchial data structure is best used to display database records that have what type of fields?

a. reliant

b. Repetitive

c. structure

d. independent

U2

Another data structure name for a network that is similar to a tree structure is called a

a. Plex

b. view

c. model

d. schema

U2

Another data structure name for a network that is similar to a tree structure is called a

a. Plex

b. view

c. model

d. schema

U2

Who must test and certify user-developed software before installing it on an automated information system?

a. database administrator

b. Local security officials

c. base IAA security officials

d. functional database administrator

U2

Who must test and certify user-developed software before installing it on an automated information system?

a. database administrator

b. Local security officials

c. base IAA security officials

d. functional database administrator

U2

One method to provide protection of critical data against tampering is to control the physical access to the automated information system itself by 

a. managing data activities

b. Installing keyboard locks

c. performing periodical audits

d. using the least pivilege concept

U2

One method to provide protection of critical data against tampering is to control the physical access to the automated information system itself by 

a. managing data activities

b. Installing keyboard locks

c. performing periodical audits

d. using the least pivilege concept

U2

One method a database administrator can maintain database access control is to limit a user access to

a. manage data activities

b. install keyboard locks

c. perform periodical audits

d. Use the least privlege concept

U2

One method a database administrator can maintain database access control is to limit a user access to

a. manage data activities

b. install keyboard locks

c. perform periodical audits

d. Use the least privlege concept

U2

The main purpose of a database is to 

a. process organized data into tables

b. represent data in a quantifiable manner

c. Make data independent of its programs

d. identifying data and the corresponding relationships

U2

The main purpose of a database is to 

a. process organized data into tables

b. represent data in a quantifiable manner

c. Make data independent of its programs

d. identifying data and the corresponding relationships

U2

What term best describes the process of organizing data into tables that result in the database being unambiguous as intended? 

a. Normalization

b. semantic modeling

c. data denormalization

d. entity-relationship diagram

U2

What term best describes the process of organizing data into tables that result in the database being unambiguous as intended? 

a. Normalization

b. semantic modeling

c. data denormalization

d. entity-relationship diagram

U2

What database normalization form has a type of entity dependency called transistive dependency?

a. first

b. second

c. Third

d. fourth 

U2

What database normalization form has a type of entity dependency called transistive dependency?

a. first

b. second

c. Third

d. fourth

U2

What term best describes the redundant storing of the customer name in the purchase order entity?

a. normalization

b. semantic modeling

c. Data denormalization

d. entity-relationship modeling

U2

What term best describes the redundant storing of the customer name in the purchase order entity?

a. normalization

b. semantic modeling

c. Data denormalization

d. entity-relationship modeling

U2

What method is used by a database administrator to manage the updating of information on an enterprise's computer system? 

a. data activity

b. data repository

c. configuration control

d. System documentation

U2

What method is used by a database administrator to manage the updating of information on an enterprise's computer system? 

a. data activity

b. data repository

c. configuration control

d. System documentation

U2

The database maintenance responsibility that address disk fragmentation is

a. The DBMS

b. data activity

c. a data repository

d. the database structure

U2

The database maintenance responsibility that address disk fragmentation is

a. The DBMS

b. data activity

c. a data repository

d. the database structure

U2

What causes database fragmentation?

a. Gaps left in the database due to record deletions

b. database becoming logically unorganized

c. unstructured record formats

d. data denormalization

U2

What causes database fragmentation?

a. Gaps left in the database due to record deletions

b. database becoming logically unorganized

c. unstructured record formats

d. data denormalization

U2

The database maintenance responsibility that maintains a collection of metadata, DBMS, software, code libraries, and editing tools is managing 

a. the DBMS

b. data activity

c. A data repository

d. the database structure

U2

The database maintenance responsibility that maintains a collection of metadata, DBMS, software, code libraries, and editing tools is managing 

a. the DBMS

b. data activity

c. A data repository

d. the database structure

U2

What option is not a key element in the Air FOrce enterprise architecture of the Air Force Portal?

a. common virtual platform for access and sharing accurate information

b. catalyst for reducing overlap and duplication among cross-functional information systems

c. means for performing self-service functions

d. Means for faster reliable service

U2

What option is not a key element in the Air FOrce enterprise architecture of the Air Force Portal?

a. common virtual platform for access and sharing accurate information

b. catalyst for reducing overlap and duplication among cross-functional information systems

c. means for performing self-service functions

d. Means for faster reliable service

U2

Who is the most important part of the Air Force Portal intiative? 

a. User

b. writer

c. supervisor

d. programmer

U2

Who is the most important part of the Air Force Portal intiative? 

a. User

b. writer

c. supervisor

d. programmer

U2

Who oversees organization's implementation of the Air Force Portal program?

a. majcom content manager

b. advance content manager

c. Content manager

d. content publisher

U2

Who oversees organization's implementation of the Air Force Portal program?

a. majcom content manager

b. advance content manager

c. Content manager

d. content publisher

U2

Who ensures the links in your website are maintained and in working order? 

a. majcom content manager

b. advance content manager

c. content manager

d. Content publisher

U2

Who ensures the links in your website are maintained and in working order? 

a. majcom content manager

b. advance content manager

c. content manager

d. Content publisher

U2

Which content publishing form is used to complete other forms as well as for its own uses?

a. biography

b. multimedia

c. Editorial

d. event calender

U2

Which content publishing form is used to complete other forms as well as for its own uses?

a. biography

b. multimedia

c. Editorial

d. event calender

U2

What environment do you use to enter or edit content into in-line publishing forms?

a. Publishing center portal

b. content previw portal

c. air force portal production

d. web browser production

U2

What environment do you use to enter or edit content into in-line publishing forms?

a. Publishing center portal

b. content previw portal

c. air force portal production

d. web browser production

U2

What environment does all air force users see when they sign on to the air force portal? 

a. publishing center portal

b. content previw portal

c. Air force portal production

d. web browser production

U2

What environment does all air force users see when they sign on to the air force portal? 

a. publishing center portal

b. content previw portal

c. Air force portal production

d. web browser production

U2

Content must be entered into what environment before it can be deployed? 

a. Publishing center portal

b. content previw portal

c. air force portal production

d. web browser production

U2

Content must be entered into what environment before it can be deployed? 

a. Publishing center portal

b. content previw portal

c. air force portal production

d. web browser production

U2

When you click the "Insert" button to import graphics the 

a. closes button closes

b. save button appears

c. deploy button appears

d. Insert/edit image widget closes

U2

When you click the "Insert" button to import graphics the 

a. closes button closes

b. save button appears

c. deploy button appears

d. Insert/edit image widget closes

U2

What must you do as a Content Publisher for a user to use images from the Air Force Portal directory? 

a. the images must have been uploaded to the local server prior to creating the document

b. the images must have been downloaded to the local server prior to creating the document

c. the images must have been uploaded to the Air Force portal prior to creating the document

d. the images must have been downloaded to the Air Force portal prior to creating the document

U2

What must you do as a Content Publisher for a user to use images from the Air Force Portal directory? 

a. the images must have been uploaded to the local server prior to creating the document

b. the images must have been downloaded to the local server prior to creating the document

c. The images must have been uploaded to the Air Force portal prior to creating the document

d. the images must have been downloaded to the Air Force portal prior to creating the document

U2

What is the highest level element in a basic web document? 

a. body

b. head

c. HTML

d. close

U2

What is the highest level element in a basic web document? 

a. body

b. head

c. HTML

d. close

U2

What section is where all content to include text and more HTML code for formatting is placed in a basic web document? 

a. Body

b. head

c. HTML

d. close

U2

What section is where all content to include text and more HTML code for formatting is placed in a basic web document? 

a. Body

b. head

c. HTML

d. close

U2

What does the Privacy Advisory on public websites inform users about? 

a. how your information will be used on the internet

b. Why the information is solicited and how it will be used

c. why the information is stored and how it will be used

d. how your information will be stored and why is it publicly solicited

U2

What does the Privacy Advisory on public websites inform users about? 

a. how your information will be used on the internet

b. Why the information is solicited and how it will be used

c. why the information is stored and how it will be used

d. how your information will be stored and why is it publicly solicited

U2

When may For Official Use Only material be placed on an Internet website? 

a. only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience

b. only if the information is encrypted or password protected

 c. Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience and the information is encrypted or password protected 

d. never

U2

When may For Official Use Only material be placed on an Internet website? 

a. only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience

b. only if the information is encrypted or password protected

 c. Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience and the information is encrypted or password protected 

d. never

U2

Knowledge Information implementation lead to all the following except 

a. a capability to harvest existing knowledge

b. Restricting that knowledge across your organization

 c. leaverage the knowledge by providing search mechanisms to locate relevant knowledge

d. create new knowledge by extending what has been shared and reused

U2

Knowledge Information implementation lead to all the following except 

a. a capability to harvest existing knowledge

b. Restricting that knowledge across your organization

 c. leaverage the knowledge by providing search mechanisms to locate relevant knowledge

d. create new knowledge by extending what has been shared and reused

U2

"Knowledge results in when information is organized and abstracted to produce something that is useful, predictive and expository to the decision maker," describes which phase of knowledge management?  

a. I

b. II

 c. III

d. IV

U2

"Knowledge results in when information is organized and abstracted to produce something that is useful, predictive and expository to the decision maker," describes which phase of knowledge management?  

a. I

b. ii

 c. iii

d. iv