Term
| What are the five basic functions of bone? |
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Definition
1. Structure
2. Movement
3. Protection
4. Storage
5. Erythropoeisis |
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Term
Bone becomes an ossicification center by having a nutrient artery penetrate the cartilage. This occurs in which week of development.
a. 12th
b. 6th
c. 7th
d. 3rd |
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Definition
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Term
Tubular or long bones form by what type of ossification?
a. intramembranous
b. endochondral |
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Definition
| b. Endochondral. This type of ossification occurs when cartilaginous cells are calcified and then reasorbed. |
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Term
| Flat bones are formed by what type of ossification? |
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Definition
| Intramembranous ossification. In this type of ossification there is no cartilaginous remnant. |
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Term
| Flat bones are formed by what type of ossification? |
|
Definition
Intramembranous ossification.
In this type of ossification there is no cartilaginous remnant. |
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Term
| Describe the difference between osteoblasts, osteoclasts and osteocytes. |
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Definition
Osteoblasts-form bone, they secrete the material that forms bone.
Osteoclasts-absorb bone
Osteocytes-they are osteoblasts encompassed in bone |
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Term
| What is Wolff's law and why is it important to bone formation? |
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Definition
It is a law of physics that basically states that bone formation occurs under stress and the side of bone exposed to compression forces will form thicker, while the side of bone exposed to tension will form thinner.
Basically bone pressed together grows thicker, while bone pulled apart grows thinner. |
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Term
| Bone is formed as a crystalline structure, the main components of this structure are? |
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Definition
| Calcium and phosphorus. Together they form a crystalline structure called hydroxyapatite |
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Term
| What are the three regions of endochodral or long bones? |
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Definition
Diaphyseal region
Metaphyseal region
Epiphyseal region-secondary ossification center. |
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Term
| The periosteum covers what region of long bones? |
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Definition
The diaphyseal region.
The periosteum thins as we grow older. |
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Term
| The diaphyseal region of long bones has an outer periosteum and an inner endochondral membrane that function to do what? |
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Definition
| These two surfaces help to heal broken bones and add to the diameter of bone. |
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Term
| As we age, what two phenomena occur in the diaphysis oflong bones? |
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Definition
The diameter of the bone increases and the the medullary canal of the bone widens.
This helps to protect bone to increase its torsional strenght as osteoporosis occurs. |
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Term
| The nutrient artery penetrates where on a bone? |
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Definition
| Into the diaphysis. It branches into a proximal and a distal branch upon entry. |
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Term
At what age in children does the communication between the external epiphyseal artery and the internal nutrient artery become shut off in long bones?
a. one
b. three
c. two
d. four |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the significance of the the link between the epiphyseal artery and the nutrient artery in developing bone? |
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Definition
| This is inportnat infections. Infection can spread from the diaphysis to the epiphysis producing a septic joint in infants. |
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Term
Where do long bones grow in lenght?
In width? |
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Definition
The epiphyis
The Diaphysis |
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Term
| What are the names of the 4 zones of growth in the epiphysis? |
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Definition
The reserve zone
The proliferative zone
The hypertrophic zone
The zone of provisonal calcification |
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Term
| In what basic way do the 4 zones in the epiphysis of long bones differ? |
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Definition
They differ in their level of O2. O2 levels decline the closer the zone is to the metaphysis.
This is the reason that cells die, hypertrophy, then calcify as they move toward the plate. |
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Term
| As the calcific cells reach the metaphysis, they are decalcified by_______, then _________lay down osteoid to form new bone. |
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Definition
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Term
| The nutrients arteries make a hairpin turn at the metaphyseal plate, turning from arterioles to venules. The blood and oxygen supply at the plate is poor and sluggish and __________ can be easily initiated. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the two types of epiphyses and what is the function of each? |
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Definition
Pressure epiphyses- function in longitudinal growth of the bone
Traction epiphyses- function in chnging the shape of bone. |
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Term
In what week of development does the normal synovial joint usually develop?
a. 10th
b. 20th
c. 8th
d. 9th |
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Definition
a. 10th week. It is innervated by both
myelinated and unmyelinated nerve endings. |
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Term
| What are the functions of synovial fluid within a joint? |
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Definition
Nutrition- of the auricular cartilage
Lubrication- of the joint surfaces |
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Term
| About how much synovial fluid is usually found in a joint? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What is synovial tissue primarily composed of? |
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Definition
| Either macrophages or lymphoctyes |
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Term
| Give 4 clinically significant features of synovial tissue. |
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Definition
It is very vasucular and has a large number of nerve endings within it
It contains cells that can produce a large amount of fluid
It is very reactive to injury
It can form a pannus- a feature of rheumatoid arthritis |
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Term
| What are the 3 functions of hyaline cartilage? |
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Definition
To decrease friction
Lubrication
Shock absorption |
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Term
| What is the clinical significance that hyaline cartilage has no blood supply? |
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Definition
| It is not influenced by hormones, tissue rejection or neural input. |
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Term
| Hyaline cartilage is composed of __________ collagen |
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Definition
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Term
Hyaline cartilage is 65-80% ________
The cells imbedded within the matrix are called ____
The matrix is composed of _____ and _____ |
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Definition
Water- This water has a high frictional resistance to flow,this gives cartilage the ability to handle large loads
Chondrocytes
Glucoproteins and proteoglycans |
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Term
| The function of chondrocytes is? |
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Definition
| To produce the collagen maytrix, the glycooproteins and proteoglycans that compose the hyaline cartilage matrix |
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Term
The auricular cartilage is composed of 4 zones, what are they?
Which zone is the transition between cartilage and bone? |
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Definition
Superficial zone
Middle zone- regular in organiztion
Vertical zone- deep zone
calcified cartilage zone- tarnsition between cartilage and bone. |
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Term
| What is the clinical significance of cartilage having no blood supply? |
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Definition
| It cannot heal itself. Cuts and tears remain permanent. |
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Term
| How does cartilage dgenerate? |
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Definition
| By increasing its water content. |
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Term
cartilagenous tears that progress into subchondral bone producing bleeding, will
unlike normal cartilage tears get healed.
What type of cartilage will repair this type of injury? |
|
Definition
Type I cartilage will repair this defect
This type of cartilage is found in skin and bone.. |
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Term
| What stimulates the chondrocytes to lay down more matrix? |
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Definition
Pressure and deformation.
Loading, unloading and movement. |
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Term
| What stimulates the breakdown of cartilage? |
|
Definition
High impact single loading, repetitive trauma, and shearing forces
These all decrease the compression on cartilage |
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Term
| Once an area in cartilage starts to degrade, newer chondrocytes cannot migrate to the site of injury. Why? |
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Definition
There is no blood supply in cartilage to bring them.
Cartilage will continue to wear away till subchondral bone is exposed |
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Term
The structural component of the body is _____
The articular component is ______
The power component is ______ |
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Definition
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Term
Skeletal muscle makes up what percentage of the weight of the body?
The contractile elements of straited muscle are _______ and ________ |
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Definition
40-45%
Myosin-thicker fiber
Actin-thinner fiber |
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Term
| The neural input to skeletal muscle is from the _________ of the spinal cord |
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Definition
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Term
How does the anterior horn os the spinal cord connect to muscle fibers?
What is the neurotransmitter found here? |
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Definition
Through the motor end plate
Acetylcholine |
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Term
The more myofibrils controlled per motor end plate the _________ the control and sensitivity.
a. greater
b. less |
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Definition
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Term
Contractions that shorten a muscle fiber are termed:
a. Isometric
b. Isotonic
c. Eccentric |
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Definition
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Term
Contractions that lenghten a muscle fiber are termed:
a. Isometric
b. Isotonic
c. Eccentric |
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Definition
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Term
Contractions that neither lenghten nor shorten a muscle fiber are termed:
a. Isometric
b. Isotonic
c. Eccentric |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of muscular contraction generates the greatest amount of force on a tendon, and is resposible for the greatest number of injuries?
a. Isometric
b. Isotonic
c. Eccentric |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following types of muscle fibers is aerobic?
a.Type I
b.Type II |
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Definition
| a. Type I aka slow twitch |
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Term
Which of the following types of muscle fibers is anaerobic and phases out as we grow older?
a.Type I
b.Type II |
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Definition
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Term
| This vertebrae has no centrum. It is a synovial joint that allows the nodding of the head. |
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Definition
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Term
| This vertebrae articulates with the atlas via a single pivot called the dens. |
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Definition
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Term
Rotation of the skull is made possible by the ______ and the _____
Flexion, extension and lateral movement of the skull is made possible by _______through _____. |
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Definition
Atlas and the axis
C3 through T1 |
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Term
| How does the intervertebral disc spaces in the cervical spine differ from that of the rest of the spinal column and what is the significance of this difference? |
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Definition
| The disc spaces are narrower. This allows less material in each disc which serves less of a cushioning role and more of a stabilizing role in connecting the vertebrae. |
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Term
| How does the facet joints in the cervical spine differ from those of the the rest of the spinal column? |
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Definition
| They are elaongated and slanted to allow a gliding motion with forward flexion and extension. |
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Term
| Why is disruption, separation or dislocation of the cervical unlikely except with a great deal of force? |
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Definition
| Because thye ligaments of the cervical vertebrae wrap around them almost completely, and the thick heavy muscles of the neck stabilize them as well. |
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Term
The site of attachment of muscles to the thoraic vertebrae is where?
a. the tranverse process
b. the centrum
c. the lamina
d. the spinous process |
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Definition
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Term
The site of attachment of ribs to the thoraic vertebrae is where?
a. the tranverse process
b. the centrum
c. the lamina
d. the spinous process |
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Definition
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Term
Adjacent vertebrae of the thoraic spine articulate with one another in two ways.
What are they? |
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Definition
1. Synovial apophyseal joints
2. Intervertebral discs |
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Term
| Apophyseal joints of the thoraic vertebrae are formed by what? |
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Definition
| The superior and inferior articulating processes of the adjacent vertebrae. together these form a synovial joint. |
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Term
| Intervertebral disc are composed a tough outer layer called the _______. and a soft gel-like core callled_______? |
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Definition
annulus fibrosus
nucleus pulposus |
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Term
| The lumbar spine is sometimes composed of 6 vertebrae. True/ False |
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Definition
| True. This may represent a lumberization of the 1st sacral segment and will have abnormal articulations with the segments above and below it. |
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