Term
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom |
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Definition
|
|
Term
At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Roles
B. Inputs and outputs
C. Functions
D. Metrics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all
services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be
expected of them?
A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and
deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the
normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually
improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the
momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan;
Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get
there?; How do we keep the momentum going? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the
assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met
their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?
A. Measurement, methods and metrics
B. Service design package
C. Service portfolio design
D. Process definitions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?
A. IT services and components
B. IT services and business processes
C. Components and business processes
D. IT services, components and business processes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a
set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration baseline
B. Project baseline
C. Change baseline
D. Asset baseline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. To detect security events and make sense of them |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?
A. The Deming Cycle
B. The continual service improvement approach
C. The seven-step improvement process
D. The service lifecycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Service strategy
C. Service design
D. Service transition |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?
A. Service level management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Request fulfilment
D. Demand management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following BEST describes partners' in the phrase people, processes, products and partners"?
A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B. Customers
C. Internal departments
D. The facilities management function |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?
A. The service level management
B. The IT service continuity management
C. The service catalogue management
D. The supplier management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding
within knowledge management?
A. Data
B. Information
C. Knowledge
D. Governance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?
1. Financial arrangements related to the contract
2. Description of the goods or service provided
3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment
management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration
management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfillment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A. Reduced total cost of ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they
have replaced?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Service portfolio management
D. Service catalogue management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction
D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?
A. Technical management
B. Service desk
C. Application management
D. Facilities management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an
organizational structure?
A. RACI model
B. Incident model
C. Continual service improvement (CSI) approach
D. The Deming Cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process will regularly anal0yse incident data to identify discernible trends?
A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. Change management
D. Event management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?
A. One which directly supports the business processes of customers
B. A service that cannot be allowed to fail
C. One which is not covered by a service level agreement
D. A service not directly used by the business |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?
A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating
together for a common purpose
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents
B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring incidents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?
A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement
B. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements
C. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it
D. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service design
B. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets
and service components
C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the
continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Reviewing measurements and metrics
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive media library (DML)
B. Configuration management system (CMS)
C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOP) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions
would be BEST to manage risk?
A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks
B. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk
C. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital
D. Training of all staff and investment of capital |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four Ps" include Partners, People,
Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?
A. Profit
B. Preparation
C. Products
D. Potential |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?
A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue
B. The design of new or changed services
C. The design of market spaces
D. The design of the technology architectures |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
A. A service level agreement (SLA)
B. A request for change (RFC)
C. The service portfolio
D. A service description |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customer's successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Defining the process strategy
2. Assisting with process design
3. Improving the process
4. Performing all activities involved in a process
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?
A. Capacity management
B. Governance
C. Service design
D. Service level management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and
metrics?
1. The services
2. The architectures
3. The configuration items
4. The processes
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?
A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit
B. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
C. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components
D. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?
A. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources
B. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions
C. Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes
D. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are underpinning contracts used to document?
A. The provision of IT services or business services by a service provider
B. The provision of goods and services by third party suppliers
C. Service levels that have been agreed between the internal service provider and their customer
D. Metrics and critical success factors (CSFs) for internal support teams |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?
A. Operational level agreement(OLA)
B. Capacity plan
C. Service level agreement(SLA)
D. SLA monitoring chart(SLAM) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the
agreed and documented standard?
A. The IT director
B. The process owner
C. The service owner
D. The customer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?
A. Knowledge management
B. Release and deployment management
C. Service asset and configuration management
D. Service level management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?
A. The results specific to the clauses in a service level agreement (SLA)
B. The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service
C. All the accumulated knowledge of the service provider
D. All incidents reported to the service desk |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the
Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Strategy
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Operation
D. Service Design |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service
designs?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Design coordination
D. Release management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and
deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after?
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
A. What is the return on investment (ROI)?
B. How much did it cost?
C. How do we keep the momentum going?
D. What is the value on investment (VOI)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT
A. The ECAB considers every high priority request for change (RFC)
B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following BEST describes a problem?
A. An issue reported by a user
B. The cause of two or more incidents
C. A serious incident which has a critical impact to the business
D. The cause of one or more incidents |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?
A. Internal
B. External
C. Service desk
D. Shared services unit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?
A. Incidents can only be reported by users
B. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service
C. All calls to the service desk must be logged as incidents
D. Incidents reported by technical staff must also be logged as problems |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?
A. Incident management
B. Access management
C. Change management
D. Request fulfillment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to
deliver customer facing services?
A. Business services
B. Component services
C. Supporting services
D. Customer services |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow
2. Measurement and reporting
3. Release and deployment
4. Process design
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?
A. As many as necessary to complete the activity
B. Only one - the process owner
C. Two - the process owner and the process enactor
D. Only one - the process architect |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service
component and its associated documentation is a definition of what?
A. A change
B. A change model
C. A change request
D. A change advisory board |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where should the following information be stored?
1. The experience of staff
2. Records of user behaviour
3. Supplier's abilities and requirements
4. User skill levels
A. The forward schedule of change
B. The service portfolio
C. A configuration management database (CMDB)
D. The service knowledge management system (SKMS) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?
1. The approach is pre-authorized
2. The risk is usually low and well understood
3. Details of the change will be recorded
4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of
the service lifecycle?
A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access
management
B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event management
D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management |
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Definition
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|
Term
With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?
A. Incident management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Capacity management
D. IT service continuity management |
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Definition
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|
Term
What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
B. Reporting intervals should be set by the service provider
C. Reports should be produced weekly
D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which one of the following does service metrics measure?
A. Functions
B. Maturity and cost
C. The end-to-end service
D. Infrastructure availability |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A. Demand management
B. Incident management
C. Release and deployment management
D. Request fulfillment |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?
A. Technical management
B. IT operations management
C. Request fulfillment
D. Applications management |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes
A. All of the above
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?
A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results
B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users |
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Definition
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|
Term
Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?
A. Do
B. Perform
C. Implement
D. Measure |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service
improvement (CSI)?
A. Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), quality
B. Strategic, tactical and operational
C. Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activities
D. Technology, process and service |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1. Customers
2. Users
3. Suppliers
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
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Definition
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|
Term
From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their
service targets known as?
A. User
B. Customer
C. Supplier
D. Administrator |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?
A. Request fulfilment
B. Service portfolio management
C. Service desk
D. IT finance |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following is the best definition of service management?
A. The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needs
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
C. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
D. An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?
A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services
B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C. To create and populate a service catalogue
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following activities does application management perform?
A. Defining where the vendor of an application should be located
B. Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome
C. Deciding who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording configuration items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
A. Before the change is approved
B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
C. After implementation but before the post implementation review
D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?
A. Only changes that introduce new services
B. It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activity
C. Only changes to business critical systems
D. Any change that the organization believes could benefit |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Service desk
D. Business relationship management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?
A. To ensure the impact of changes are understood
B. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated
C. To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management
system (CMS)
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
A. Strategic customers
B. External customers
C. Valued customers
D. Internal customers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Access management is closely related to which other process?
A. Capacity management only
B. 3rd line support
C. Information security management
D. Change management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management,
information security management, and supplier management?
A. Service strategy
B. Service design
C. Service transition
D. Service operation |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM)
activities
B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has
been found. Is this a valid approach?
A. Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so
B. No: the Known Error should be created before the problem is logged
C. No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raised
D. No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?
1. Things that were done correctly
2. Things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration
management?
A. Describes the topography of the hardware
B. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
3. Industry practices
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?
A. Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
B. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
C. Eliminating recurring incidents
D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?
1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Enabling
2. Core
3. Enhancing
4. Computer
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only |
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Definition
|
|
Term
In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?
A. The service level agreement (SLA)
B. The problem record
C. The availability management information system
D. The IT service plan |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measureable
B. It delivers specific results
C. It responds to specific events
D. It structure an organization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transaction stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service managed and operated accordance with constraints specified during design
B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To plan the resources required to manage a release |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following BEST describes technical management?
A. A function responsibilities for facilities management and building control systems
B. A function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to
customers
C. Senior managers responsibilities for all staff within the technical support function
D. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT infrastructure |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL?
A. Local
B. Centralized
C. Outsourced
D. Virtual |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary focus of the business management?
A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements
of IT technology
B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management
C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live,
operational IT services
D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a
timely fashion |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks could seriously affect IT services,
the IT service provider can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels?
A. Change management
B. IT service continuity management
C. Financial management for IT services
D. Service catalog management |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?
A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager
without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below
acceptable limits?
A. Service asset and configuration management
B. Event management
C. Service catalogue management
D. Problem management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operation s
contribution?
A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated
B. Measures for optimization are identified
C. Service value is modeled
D. Service value is visible to customers |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
A. Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)
B. Customer and user satisfaction
C. Service requirements and warranty
D. Resources and capabilities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored
and protected
C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and
protected |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?
A. Service level agreements (SLAs)
B. Third-party contracts
C. The service portfolio
D. Operational level agreements (OLAs) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during
design
B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To plan the resources required to manage a release |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are managed by facilities management?
1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room
2. Applications
3. Power and cooling equipment
4. Recovery sites
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service design
B. Service transition
C. Continual service improvement
D. Service operation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?
1. Design and modeling
2. Reporting
3. Pattern recognition and analysis
4. Detection and monitoring
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?
A. The availability of a service or component
B. The level of risk that affects a service or process
C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing
D. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?
A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
B. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration
management system (CMS)
C. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized
D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The configuration management system is part of the known error database
B. The service knowledge management system is part of the configuration management system
C. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system
D. The configuration management system is part of the configuration management database |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Implementation of IT1L service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and
efficient use of "the four Ps." What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, problems
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, perspective, partners |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1. Design of the service metrics
2. Business continuity strategy
3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
4. Risk assessment
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?
A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
D. A document that describes business services to operational staff |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following generates demand for services?
A. Infrastructure trends
B. Patterns of business activity (PBA)
C. Cost of providing support
D. Service level agreements (SLA) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is an objective of service transition?
A. To negotiate service levels for new services
B. To ensure that service changes create the expected business value
C. To minimize the impact of service outages on day-to-day business activities
D. To plan and manage entries in the service catalogue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service
D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the
service lifecycle?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
C. To design and build processes which will meet business needs
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?
A. An incident which is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be found
B. An incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C. An incident logged by a senior manager
D. An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed to
reactive?
1. Monitoring system availability
2. Designing availability into a proposed solution
A. None of the above
B. Both of the above
C. 1 only
D. 2 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?
A. Intrusion detection
B. Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centre
C. Recording service desk staff absence
D. Monitoring the status of configuration items |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of
SLA?
A. Customer level
B. Service level
C. Corporate level
D. Configuration level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between
components of the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. Change management
C. Incident management
D. Service asset and configuration management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?
A. Act
B. Plan
C. Do
D. Co-ordinate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?
A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization
C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?
1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is
2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider
3. Defining how value is created
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?
1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models
A. Both of the above
B. Neither of the above
C. Option 1 only
D. Option 2 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?
A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure
D. An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?
A. Providing physical security for staff at data centers and other buildings
B. Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locations
C. Managing access to the service desk
D. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of
the service lifecycle?
A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access
management
B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfillment, and event
management
D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfillment, access management, and event management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes
A. All of the above
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?
A. The change management process owner
B. The change advisory board (CAB)
C. The service owner
D. The continual service improvement manager |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are within the scope of service asset and configuration management?
1. Identification of configuration items (CIs)
2. Recording relationships between CIs
3. Recording and control of virtual CIs
4. Approving finance for the purchase of software to support service asset and configuration management
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the
service lifecycle?
A. Service operation
B. Service transition
C. Continual service improvement
D. Service strategy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase
'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles
defined in the vision'?
A. Where are we now?
B. Where do we want to be?
C. How do we get there?
D. Did we get there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the
business?
A. Service level management
B. Financial management
C. Demand management
D. Risk management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?
A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services
D. An SLA for a service with no customers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?
A. Strategic service
B. Delivered service
C. Internal service
D. External service |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?
A. Service management
B. Incident management
C. Resource management
D. Service support |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?
A. The user
B. The customer
C. The supplier
D. The administrator |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?
A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require
B. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized
C. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and
tracked
D. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and
processes?
A. Change management
B. Capacity management
C. Service transition planning and support
D. Release management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?
A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the
lifecycle
B. Ensuring all service designs have availability designed into them
C. Designing of all the links between every service design process and all other processes in the service
lifecycle
D. Control of all supplier relationships from design right through to the production environment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service
charters and change requests'?
A. Service transition planning and support
B. Design coordination
C. Service level management
D. Change management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?
1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance
2. Identifying improvement opportunities
3. Appointing people to required roles
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?
A. Process practitioner
B. Process manager
C. Service manager
D. Change manager |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome
A. 1 only
B. Both of the above
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service desk
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?
A. Change management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Supplier management
D. Release and deployment management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?
1. Service pipeline
2. Service knowledge management system (SKMS)
3. Service catalogue
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following?
1. A new IT service
2. A major change to an IT service
3. An emergency change to an IT service
4. An IT service retirement
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. None of the above
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?
1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources
2. Reduced cost to design new services
3. Result in higher volume of successful changes
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?
1. Capacity management
2. Request fulfillment
3. Demand management
4. Incident management
A. All of the above
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 2 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?
A. Planning how to recover the cost of a change
B. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful
C. Planning how to compensate a user for a failed change
D. Planning how to advise the change requestor of a failed change |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?
A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available
B. Only incidents reported to the service desk can be logged
C. All incidents must be fully logged
D. The service desk decide which incidents to log |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management
information can be obtained?
A. Categorization
B. Detection
C. Prioritization
D. Escalation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents
that cannot be prevented?
A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. Change management
D. Event management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?
A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations
are in one place
C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?
A. A capacity database
B. A definitive media library
C. A request for change
D. A known error database |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy?
A. Naming and numbering conventions
B. Entry and exit criteria of the release into testing
C. Roles and responsibilities for the release
D. The risk register for the release |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?
A. The five ITIL volumes are concise
B. It is not tied to any particular vendor platform
C. It tells service providers exactly how to be successful
D. It is designed to be used to manage projects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of record should you raise when a problem diagnosis is complete and a workaround is
available?
A. A service object
B. An incident
C. A change
D. A known error |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?
A. Budgeting and charging
B. Accounting and charging
C. Budgeting and accounting
D. Costing and charging |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary focus of business capacity management?
A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements
of IT technology
B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management
C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live,
operational IT services
D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a
timely fashion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement about the service portfolio is TRUE?
A. The service portfolio includes ail services except those managed by third parties
B. It is an integral part of the service catalogue
C. It allows the organization unlimited resources when planning for new service deployments
D. It represents all resources presently engaged or being released in various stages of the service
lifecycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements describes the objectives of service asset and configuration
management?
1. To identify, control, report and verify service assets and configuration items (CIs)
2. To account for, manage and protect the integrity of service assets and configuration items
3. To establish and maintain an accurate and complete configuration management system
4. To document all security controls together with their operation and maintenance
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which stage of the change management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
A. Remediation planning
B. Categorization
C. Prioritization
D. Review and close |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
A. Change management
B. Service transition
C. Service strategy
D. Service design |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these recommendations is best practice for service level management?
1. Include legal terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)
2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
A. 1 only
B. 2only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statement about the service owner is INCORRECT?
A. Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
B. Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they own
C. Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes which support the service they own
D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Functions are included in IT operations management?
A. Network management and application management
B. Technical management and change management
C. IT operations control and facilities management
D. Facilities management and release management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process would seek to understand levels of customer satisfaction and communicate what action
plans have been put in place to deal with dissatisfaction?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Business relationship management
D. Service catalogue management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The definitive media library is the responsibility of:
A. Facilities management
B. Access management
C. Request fulfillment
D. Service asset and configuration management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three service provider business models?
A. Internal service provider, outsourced 3rd party and off-shore party
B. Internal service operations provider, external service operations provider, shared service unit
C. Internal service provider, external service provider, outsourced 3rd party
D. Internal service provider, external service provider, shared service unit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?
A. Only changes that introduce new services are included
B. All changes are mandated to be included
C. Only changes to business critical systems are included
D. Any changes that would benefit the organization are included |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?
1. Details of failed changes
2. Updates to the change schedule
3. Reviews of completed changes
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 2only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Core
2. Enabling
3. Special
A. 1 and 3only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed
function when required?
A. Serviceability
B. Availability
C. Capacity
D. Continuity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident?
1. Incident model
2. Known error record
A. 1 only
B. 2only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?
1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?
A. CSI register
B. Known error database
C. Capacity management information system
D. Configuration management database |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?
A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other
B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority
C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority
D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Event management, problem management, access management and request fulfillment are part of which
stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Service strategy
B. Service transition
C. Service operation
D. Continual service improvement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. They are units of organizations
B. They are measurable
C. They deliver specific results
D. They respond to specific events |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process has the following objective “Establish new or changed services into supported
environments within the predicted cost, time and resource estimates”?
A. Service strategy
B. Service transition planning and support
C. Service level management
D. Change management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are customers of an IT service provider who purchase services in terms of a legally binding contract
known as?
A. Strategic customers
B. External customers
C. Valued customers
D. Internal customers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the continual service improvement (CSI) approach enable a business to achieve?
A. It keeps the communication going within the business
B. It helps the business in making decisions on improvement initiatives
C. It helps the stakeholders understand their customers
D. It dictates the way the business interacts with external suppliers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following BEST describes an operational level agreement (OLA)?
A. It contains targets that underpin those within an SLA to ensure that targets will not be breached by
failure of the supporting activity.
B. It is an agreement between a supplier and another part of the same organization that assists with the
provision of services.
C. It is a written agreement between a supplier and the IT customer(s), defining the key service targets
and responsibilities of both parties.
D. It is a legally binding contract outlining services delivered to an IT service provider that underpin a
service that provider delivers to its customers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the operations management function?
A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT operations failures that occur
B. Delivering operational improvements to achieve reduced costs
C. Management of the definitive media library (DML)
D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the BEST description of an external customer?
A. Someone who works in the same organization but in a different business unit to the service provider
B. Anyone who gets charged for the delivered services
C. Customers who are not part of the same organization as the service provider
D. Customers for whom the cost of the service is the primary driver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified?
A. Internal service
B. External service
C. Mission critical service
D. Organizational service |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What BEST describes the value of service transition to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a catalogue of services
B. It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality
C. It provides quick and effective access to standard services
D. It results in higher volumes of successful change |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is an objective of access management?
A. To efficiently respond to requests for granting access to services
B. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service
C. To assist with general information, complaints or comments
D. To minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should be documented as part of every process?
A. The process owner, process policy and set of process activities
B. The service owner, service level agreement and set of process procedures
C. The policy owner, operational level agreement and set of process steps
D. The service manager, service contract and set of work instructions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What BEST defines serviceability?
A. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order
B. How long a service or component can perform its agreed function without failure
C. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of its contract
D. The part of the business process that is critical to providing the service |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In service design, which term describes services, technologies and tools?
A. People
B. Partners
C. Products
D. Processes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should a release policy include?
A. Roles and responsibilities across all the service transition processes
B. Roles and responsibilities for updating the configuration management database (CMDB)
C. Criteria and authorization to exit early life support and handover to the service operation function
D. How request for changes (RFCs) are approved for software releases in the IT production environment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process is responsible to provide and maintain accurate information on all services that are being
transitioned or have been transitioned to the live environment?
A. Service portfolio management
B. Service level management
C. Service catalogue management
D. Service capacity management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation?
A. It is efficient, effective and economical for all IT services
B. It has an intended purpose or a resultant action
C. It focuses on creating a relationship between processes and products
D. It has responsibility for creating policies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is an objective of event management?
A. To maintain user satisfaction with the quality of IT services
B. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service
C. To provide a channel for users to receive standard services that they are expecting
D. To minimize the impact of incidents due to service failures that cannot be prevented |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are the details of core and enhancing services provided?
A. The definitive media library
B. The configuration management system
C. The service portfolio
D. The service catalogue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is used to assess business demand for services?
A. Premium business assets
B. Patterns of business activity
C. Provider business assets
D. Predicted business architecture |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What BEST describes the value of service operation to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services
B. It ensures IT services are continuously aligned to business requirements
C. It defines the control of service assets and configurations
D. It reduces the duration and frequency of service outages |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which process analyses services that are no longer viable and when they should be retired?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Service level management
D. Business relationship management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What BEST defines roles and responsibilities in relation to process and activities?
A. Human resource model
B. Configuration baseline
C. Service model
D. RACI matrix |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following answers shows two of the activities relating to tools that will take place during
the transition stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Testing the tool and training process managers on using the process
B. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the tools
C. Training tool administrators how to manage tools and monitoring tool performance in operational
environment
D. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the process |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?
A. Technology metrics, service desk metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics
B. Process metrics, software metrics and financial metrics
C. Technology metrics, process metrics and service metrics
D. Service metrics, technology metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following are CORRECT Service Design Aspects?
1. Service Solutions for new or changed services
2. Management policies and guidelines
3. Business requirements technology and management architectures
4. Process requirements technology and management architectures
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which stage of the service lifecycle includes the scope of service retirement and transfer of services
between service providers?
A. Service transition
B. Service level management
C. Service operation
D. Service design |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the BEST definition of a definitive media library?
A. It is a secure library in which the latest versions of authorized software items are stored and protected.
B. It is a structured document with definitive information regarding all live IT services, including those
available for deployment.
C. It is a secure library in which all definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items are
stored and protected.
D. It is a set of tools and databases that is used to manage knowledge, information and data. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is an objective of the design coordination process?
A. To ensure service design packages are handed over to service transition
B. To ensure that all changes are assessed for their impact on service designs
C. To document the initial structure and relationship between services and customers
D. To handover new service level requirements to the service level management process |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What BEST defines IT service management?
A. An organization supplying services to only external customers
B. The customer of an IT service provider who defines and agrees the service targets
C. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs
D. The resources that are utilized to provide value to customers through services |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which role is responsible for sponsoring, designing and change managing a process and its metrics?
A. The process practitioner
B. The process owner
C. The service owner
D. The process manager |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two MAJOR activities in problem management?
A. Technical and service
B. Resource and proactive
C. Reactive and technical
D. Proactive and reactive |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the CORRECT activity to carry out the “How do we get there” phase of the Continual Service
improvement approach?
A. Service and process improvement
B. Baseline assessments
C. Policy and governance review
D. Measurable targets |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An incident is proving difficult to resolve. A technician informs their manager that more resource is needed
to restore the service.
What has taken place?
A. A functional escalation
B. A service level escalation
C. An incident resolution
D. A hierarchic escalation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement about service review meetings is FALSE?
A. Actions from service review meetings should only be assigned to the service provider
B. Meetings should be held on a regular basis to review service achievement
C. Issues for the upcoming period should be discussed at the meetings
D. Progress and success of the service improvement program (SIP) should be reviewed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement BEST describes the value of service strategy to the business?
A. It allows higher volumes of successful change
B. It reduces unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. It reduces the duration and frequency of service outages
D. It enables the service provider to understand what levels of service will make their customers
successful |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Remediation planning is a key part of which process?
A. Capacity management
B. Change management
C. Financial management for IT services
D. Availability management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term describes assurance that a product or service will meet its agreed requirements?
A. Underpinning contract
B. Warranty
C. Service level agreement
D. Utility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are sources of best practice?
A. Customers, suppliers, advisors
B. Industry practices, academic research, training and education
C. Substitutes, regulators, customers
D. Competition, compliance, commitments |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is an objective of the service design lifecycle stage?
A. To embed continual service improvement (CSI) in all service design activities
B. To ensure that all service design activities use the minimum amount of resources
C. To monitor service level targets as agreed in service level agreements
D. To create and maintain a portfolio of quantified services |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is NOT a service desk type described in the ITIL service operation guidance?
A. Local
B. Centralized
C. Outsourced
D. Virtual |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is an example of improving service utility using service management automation?
A. Pre-determined routing of a service request
B. Reducing the time to compile service data
C. Monitoring service availability
D. Faster resource allocation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the CORRECT list of metrics to support CSI activities?
A. Technology, customer and business
B. Business, service and technology
C. Customer, business and process
D. Process, technology and service |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is an example of an internal customer?
A. A customer who has a contract with an internet service provider for a broadband connection
B. The HR department whose payroll service is provided by their organization’s IT department
C. An IT department that uses a network service obtained from a supplier
D. A retail bank that outsources its infrastructure to a third-party supplier |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the CORRECT list of the three levels of a multi-level service level agreement (SLA)?
A. Technology, customer, user
B. Corporate, customer, service
C. Corporate, customer, technology
D. Service, user, IT |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the term “Wisdom” represent within the Data-to-Information-to-Knowledge-to-Wisdom (DIKW)?
A. The complete collection of all data and data repositories in the organization
B. The knowledge to manage organization processes and people
C. The complete collection of all process management structures in the organization
D. The contextual awareness to provide strong common sense judgement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What BEST describes the purpose of analyzing risk?
A. To assess impact and urgency
B. To assess impact and probability
C. To review remediation planning
D. To review transition planning |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which ITIL process is used to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible?
A. Service level management
B. Incident management
C. Problem management
D. Availability management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which stage of service lifecycle has the purpose of aligning IT services with the changing business needs
by identifying improvements to IT services?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Service operation
C. Service strategy
D. Service design |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement about the known error database (KEDB) is CORRECT?
A. It is maintained by the service desk and updated with the details of each new incident
B. It is a part of the configuration management database (CMDB) and contains workarounds
C. It is maintained by problem management and is used by the service desk to help resolve incidents
D. It is maintained by incident management and contains solutions to be implemented by problem
management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where should all master copies of controlled software and documentation be stored?
A. In the definitive capacity library
B. In the definitive media library
C. In the definitive security library
D. In the definitive production library |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is one of the five aspects of service design?
A. Management information systems and tools
B. Risk analysis and management approach
C. Management policy for business case creation
D. Corporate governance and policy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which tool helps with defining accountability and responsibility within processes?
A. A CSI register
B. A project charter
C. A RACI model
D. A communications plan |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement about change management is CORRECT?
A. It optimizes overall business risk
B. It optimizes financial exposure
C. It ensures that all changes are authorized by the change advisory board (CAB)
D. It ensures that service requests follow the normal change management process |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the type of notification that should be sent when a threshold has been reached, something has
changes or a failure has occurred?
A. an emergency change
B. an alert
C. an emergency event
D. a request for change |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management?
A. Automated detection of an infrastructure or application fault, using event/alert tools automatically to
raise an incident
B. Analysis of an incident by a technical support group which revels that an underlying problem exists, or is likely to exist
C. Suspicion or detection of a cause of one or more incidents by the service desk
D. Trending of historical incident records to identify one or more underlying causes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is a reason why incident management interfaces with service level management?
A. To ensure that problem records are circulated to all customers
B. To ensure that the status of faulty configuration items (CI) is recorded
C. To ensure that incident resolution times are aligned with business needs
D. To ensure that incident workarounds are acceptable to the customers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a characteristic of a process?
A. It requires a specific tool
B. It is performance driven and measurable
C. It provides generic technical skills and resources
D. It does not react to a specific trigger |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement about stakeholders is TRUE?
A. Customers, users and suppliers are examples of stakeholders, who may be external to the service
provider organization
B. External customers are those who work for the same organization as the IT service provider
C. Internal customers are always charged for the IT services they receive from the IT service provider
organization
D. Internal customers purchase services from third-party suppliers by means of a legally binding contract
or agreement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which capacity management sub-process focuses on the management, control and prediction of the endto-
end performance?
A. Business capacity management
B. Supplier capacity management
C. Service capacity management
D. Component capacity management |
|
Definition
|
|
