Term
What coupler is used for HF RCV? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What is the nomenclature for the HF antenna covered in NTP2 and how tall is it? |
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Definition
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Term
What crypto device is used for HF? |
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Definition
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Term
What coupler is used for HF XMT? |
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Definition
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Term
What types of frequency ranges does HFRG support? |
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Definition
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Term
Are HF circuits simplex, duplex or half duplex? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the XMT frequency range for HF |
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Definition
2-3MHZ; increments of 10MHZ |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What is the component that interconnects red phones and SAS? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
WSC3 is which of the following: transmitter, receiver or transceiver? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the WSC3 designed for? |
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Definition
(AFLOAT) Single channel, half duplex |
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Term
What is the range for WSC3? |
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Definition
224-400MHZ; increments of 25KHZ |
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Term
How many preset channels does the WCS3 have? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the XMT frequency range in SATCOM mode for the WSC3? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the RCV frequency range in SATCOM Mode for the WSC3? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What is the XMT frequency range in SATCOM mode for the WSC5? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the RCV frequency range in SATCOM Mode for the WSC5? |
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Definition
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Term
What is AN/ARC-143 used for? |
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Definition
Transceiver used for ASWIXS (Anti Submarine Warfare Information Exchange) |
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Term
What aircraft has AN/ARC-143? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the range for AN/ARC-143? |
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Definition
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Term
What COTS Super High Frequency Satellite provides national imagery intel information in real near time to US Navy Afloat? |
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Definition
Challenge Athena, Secondary: to provide GENSER, VTC and POTS |
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Term
What modem is used for SHF? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the data rate for the SHF modem? |
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Definition
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Term
What does the SHF modem utilize for continuous transmission? |
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Definition
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Term
What does the FCC-100 (V)7 provide? |
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Definition
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Term
Who controls EHF resources? |
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Definition
Navy EHF Communications Controller (NECC) |
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Term
What is AN/USC-38 used for? |
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Definition
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Term
What multiplexer is used for EHF and what is its purpose? |
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Definition
TD-1150; takes in 15 channels at 75bps and puts them into a single channel at 1200bps output to reach the satellite. The 16th channel is used for timing (aggregated) |
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Term
USC-38 consist of how many variants and what are each used for? |
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Definition
(V)1-SUB, (V)2-Surface, (V)3-Shore |
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Term
What makes up the USC-38? |
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Definition
Communication Equipment Group, HPA, Antenna Pedestal Group (APG) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What are the variants for FOT? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
The HPA with solid state amplifier located on the APG in legacy systems |
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Term
What is VERCIMUX used for? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Why do we use UHF Fleet Relay Procedures? |
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Definition
To provide uninterrupted flow of communications without violating EMCON or HERO |
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Term
What do the UHF Fleet Relay ELECTRONIC procedures utilize? |
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Definition
SATCAT. MIDDLE MAN and AUTOCAT |
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Term
What do the UHF Fleet Relay NON-ELECTRONIC procedures utilize? |
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Definition
Pigeon Post: Method of traffic delivery to shore by aircraft |
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Term
What is a CLASS E message? |
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Definition
Priveleged massage personal in nature, not to be used to conduct business on behalf of the originator |
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Term
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Definition
Electromagnetic Spectrum Management |
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Term
What DOD Form is used to coordinate Fre_quency Allocation; both nationally and internationally? |
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Definition
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Term
How often are frequency assignments reviewed? |
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Definition
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Term
Why are frequency assignments reviewed? |
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Definition
To validate continuous requirement of frequencies |
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Term
What does HAVEQUICK provide? |
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Definition
AIR to AIR, AIR to Ground jam resistance UHF Voice Communications (anti jamming) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What does DSCS stand for? |
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Definition
Defense Satellite Communications System |
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Term
What are the three versions of DSCS satellites? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the characteristics of DSCS 3? |
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Definition
Exclusively SATCOM, 22,300 miles about the Equator |
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Term
Where does DSCS 3 provide coverage? |
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Definition
70 degrees N and 70 degrees S, EPAC, WPAC, ELANT, WLANT, IO |
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Term
What is the life span of DSCS 3 satellites? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Service Life Enhancement Program |
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Term
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Definition
Extends life, upgrades solar cells |
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Term
What British version of Nato exists for DSCS? What is the band for SHF? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the band for SHF? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the frequency range for SHF? |
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Definition
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Term
What is AN/GSC-39B used for? |
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Definition
(Shore) Standard DSCS medium terminal for fixed sites |
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Term
What is AN/FSC-78B used for? |
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Definition
(Shore) Fixed SHF High terminal |
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Term
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Definition
Sub High Date Rate - USC - 38 (V)1, Supports either EHF or SHF but not simultaneuosly |
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Term
Submit termination request at least how many days prior to desired activation date? |
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Definition
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Term
Activation date should proceed how many hours before underway? |
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Definition
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Term
When is the AAR required? |
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Definition
10 days after DSCS mission ends |
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Term
What is the AAR used for? |
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Definition
Evaulate system performance |
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Term
How many satellites is the space segment comprised of? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the types of satellites in the space segment? |
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Definition
FLTSAT-4, LEASAT-4, Gapfiller-2 |
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Term
How many channels does FLTSAT have? |
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Definition
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Term
How many of the FLTSAT channels are reserved for US NAVY use? |
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Definition
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Term
What a re the rates for the FLTSAT channels? |
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Definition
10-25KHZ, 12-5KHZ, 1-500KHZ |
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Term
How many channels does LEASAT have? |
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Definition
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Term
How many of the LEASAT channels are reserved for US Navy use? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
UHF System used to disseminate EAM from worldwide command post |
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Term
How many circuits does WSC5 provide? |
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Definition
8 full duplex circuits OR 6 full duplex circuits and 2 half duplex circuits |
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Term
How much power does the WSC5 provide? |
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Definition
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Term
WSC5 has ________ interface for connection to either modem or multiplexer, TD-1271? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What does the internal receiver frequency offset provide? |
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Definition
Allows the operator to select required 41MHZ for FLTSAT or LEASAT or 53MHZ for Gapfiller |
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Term
What is the wattage in AM mode for the WSC3? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the wattage in FM/PSK/FSK? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Mobile comms, transported by helo/truck/aircraft; intended for MAGTF |
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Term
What is VSC-7 used for? (*V for vehicle) |
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Definition
Vehicular satellite used on tactical vehicles |
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Term
What is PSC-3 used for? ( *P for Personnel) |
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Definition
MANPACK - allows comms between landing forces for selected aircraft, Weighs 30lbs |
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Term
What is LST-5B (*L for light weight) |
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Definition
Light weight pack-less than 20pounds Used for LOS and SATCOM |
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Term
What circuit is NOVEMBER? |
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Definition
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Term
What is another name for AS-2815? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the Fleet Broadcast system? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of system in Fleet Broadcast? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the freq range for Fleet Broadcast? |
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Definition
249MHZ-259MHZ with modulation bandwidth of 25KHZ |
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Term
What is the amplifier nomenclature for Fleet Broadcast? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the location of the AM-6534 a ccording to the publication? |
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Definition
Located within 10 cable feet of each antenna |
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Term
How many AS-2815's are there aboard a ship? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the demodulator of the SSR-1? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the demultiplexer of the SSR-1? |
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Definition
TD-1063- receives 1200bps signal and breaks it into 16 channels at 75bps |
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Term
What can you substitute the AS-2815s with? |
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Definition
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Term
What happens when multiple antennas receive a frequency? |
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Definition
The signal to noise ration improves |
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Term
What is the frequency range for the OE-82C? |
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Definition
292-311MHZ XMT, 248-272MHZ RCV |
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Term
What type of OE-82 is used on shore? |
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Definition
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|
Term
How many OE-82A's work in conjunction with WSC5? |
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Definition
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Term
Using OE-82C what is used to track manually? |
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Definition
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Term
Using OE-82C what is used to track automatically? Using OE-82C what is used to track manually? |
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Definition
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Term
Using OE-82A (shore) what is tracked manually? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Officer in Tactical Command Information Exchange System |
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Term
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Definition
Provides two way satellite link, half duplex, supports over the horizon target |
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Term
What does OTCIXS relay on? |
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Definition
ON-143 (V)6 Satellite link controller |
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Term
What is a deferred casrep? |
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Definition
When the Tycom determines a casualty can't be corrected anytime soon |
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Term
What status does a deferred casrep put the casualty in? |
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Definition
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Term
Per casualty, how many of the following is required: Cascor, Cancellation, and Initial? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Logistics requirement- must be sent within 48 hrs of a ships arrival |
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Term
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Definition
Movement report. Must be sent 24-48hrs before going underway |
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Term
What center is responsible for movreps and logreqs? |
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Definition
Movement report center - they are responsible for the accuracy and bringing any discrepancies found to originator |
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Term
What are the four types of rnovreps? |
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Definition
Depart, Arrival, Position, Cancellation |
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Term
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Definition
Communications Instructions General |
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Term
What is meant by multiple address? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
A msg destined for two or more addressees and that no addresses need to be informed of of the other (like BCC in email) |
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Term
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Definition
Wide standard distribution ie ALCON 25 |
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Term
What is Exempt addressee? |
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Definition
Certain addressees don't get msgs. They are excluded from the group. |
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Term
What format line is Exempt? |
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Definition
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Term
Why is repetition used in messaging? |
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Definition
To prevent errors and not used solely for emphasis |
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Term
What are three special markings? |
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Definition
Exclusive: Msgs delivered only and only to the person whose name appears immediately following exclusive (ie Personal for), Eyes only: Information is not releasable for others outside of the nation, Cyrpto Security: contains crypto information |
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Term
What are call signs and address groups used for? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Procedure in which entire address of a msg is encrypted within the text, provides max transmission security (transec) and used when making a classified reply, always unclas |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
How can you recei ve Fleet Broadcast? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the difference btwn JANAP 128 and and ACP 126? |
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Definition
JANAP 128 - requires all routing indicators in FL2, ACP126 - requires only RHMCSUU |
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Term
How many characters per address line? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
1 for action, 1 for addressee |
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Term
What is the frequency for the EPIRB? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is meant by DIVERSITY operation? |
|
Definition
Allows converter to compare two audio signals and process only the strongest |
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Term
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Definition
50, OTO=Operator to Operator |
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Term
What does NAVMACS stand for? |
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Definition
Naval Modular Automated Comms System |
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Term
If a message is processed through NAVMACS successfully, where is it logged? |
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Definition
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Term
If a message is not processed through NAVMACS successfully, where is it logged? |
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Definition
Operator Intervention Log, Message Log |
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Term
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Definition
Unformatted Raw Data - any msg format that is not recognized by NAVMACS |
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Term
What is TimePlex 2+ Data rate? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Single Message Solution-introduced to NAVMACS improve messaging services in the shipboard environment, uses two OS's: Santa Cruz and WindowsNT or 2000 |
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Term
What is the model server for NAVMACS? |
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Definition
Based on Compact Prolient DL380 Model server |
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Term
What does eight E's and AR at the end of a message on NAVMACS indicate? |
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Definition
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Term
What does eight E's at the end of message on NAVMACS indicate? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What receivers are used for HF? |
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Definition
R-2368: If USB MUST be used with converter. IF FSK, no converter is needed. |
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Term
What converter is used with HF? |
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Definition
URA-17A (individual CV3510) |
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Term
What type of circuit is SATHICOM? |
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Definition
Half Duplex, Secure Voice, Free Net |
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|
Term
What crypto does SATHICOM use? |
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Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
Full duplex bulk encryption; 9.6kbps-13mbps |
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Term
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Definition
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|
Term
Who declares a state of distress for an Air Squadron? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Signal where the station is about to transmit signal with important navigational or meteorological warning |
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Term
How is a ground signal shown using aircraft? |
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Definition
Daylight: Rock wings, Nighttime: Flash landing lights twice |
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Term
What shall an aircraft do if they are trying to convey a message to survivors below where two way radio or comms are not available? |
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Definition
Drop message or comms equipment |
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Term
What are the format lines 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 15 and 16 |
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Definition
FL1: Start of message, FL2: Routing designator, DTG, Precendence, Classification, RHMCSUU, FL4: Security, FL5: DTG, FL6: Originator, FL7: Action, FL8: Info, FL9: Exempt, FL11: Break, FL12: Body, FL12: Body, FL13: Break, FL15: Validation, FL16: End of msg (NNNN) |
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|
Term
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Definition
Encrypt for transmission only |
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Term
Who will not receive EFTO? |
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Definition
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Term
What is a straggler message? |
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Definition
Garbled. May be due to malfunction equipment |
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Term
What if FL4 appeared as: ZNY TTTTT/AAAAA? What do the A's mean? |
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Definition
SIOP-ESI, Single integrated operation procedure emergency sensitive information |
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Term
What if FL4 appeared as: ZNY TTTTT/BBBBB? What do the B's mean? |
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Definition
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|
Term
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Definition
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|
Term
What rprecedence is an EAM? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is meant by precedence of W? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the max of routing indicators that may be included in a msg? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is unique about a service msg? |
|
Definition
Short and concise to exchange info and instructions, ZYVW |
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|
Term
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Definition
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|
Term
What is sent out due to an investigation conducted to determine the reason in delay or non-delivery of a msg? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the difference btwn AMPN and NARR? |
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Definition
AMPN: One reference, NARR: Multiple references |
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Term
Example of nonreportable PDS is what? |
|
Definition
Documentation errors in CMS-25 but 100% accountability was always maintained |
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Term
What is the main policy/procedures manual of EKMS? |
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Definition
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Term
What document has additional policy of equipment? |
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Definition
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Term
What is Navy EKMS inspection manual? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is used for records of crypto? |
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Definition
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|
Term
3 types of Comsec materials? |
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Definition
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|
Term
3 types of Comsec incidents? |
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Definition
Espionage, physical and crypto |
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|
Term
Describe a physical incident |
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Definition
Loss of TPI, key or equipment |
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|
Term
Descrive a crypto incident |
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Definition
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|
Term
Where is comsec issuing office? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is unclassified until loaded? |
|
Definition
CCI controlled crypto item |
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|
Term
What is a controlling authority? |
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Definition
Someone owning keying material (vault) |
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|
Term
What portions of segments has operational parts? |
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Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
Two types of local elements? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is end item accounting for? |
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Definition
EKMS equipments power cables, etc. |
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|
Term
What is extractable keymat? |
|
Definition
In canister, not extractable, is stored in computer chip |
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|
Term
3 types of supercession are? |
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Definition
Regular, irregular and emergency |
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|
Term
What is irregular supercession? |
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Definition
If we no longer have the equipment |
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|
Term
What are 3 status conditions? |
|
Definition
Effective, superceded, or 1 directed |
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
CENTRAL DISTRIBUTION FACILITY |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NATIONAL SECURITY AGENCY (NSA) |
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|
Term
|
Definition
COMMAND WITH LOCAL MANAGEMENT DEVICE/KEY PROCESSOR IE: PARENT COMMAND |
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|
Term
|
Definition
COMMANDS WITHOUT/LOCAL MANAGEMENT/DEVICE/KEY PROCESSOR/IE: LOCAL ELEMENT |
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|
Term
WHAT DOES ISIC STAND FOR? |
|
Definition
IMMEDIATE SUPERIOR IN COMMAND |
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|
Term
WHAT DOES ISIC STAND FOR? |
|
Definition
STAFF COMSEC MATERIAL STAND SECURITY RESPONSIBILITY OFFICER |
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|
Term
WHAT COMPRISE THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY COMSEC WISE? |
|
Definition
NAVY/MARINE/COAST GUARD/SEALIFT COMMANDS |
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
WHO CAN THE SCRO DELEGATE TO? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
HOW MANY DIGITS IS THE EKMS ACCOUNT COMPRISED OF? |
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Definition
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|
Term
HOW LONG DOES THE EKMS MANAGER HAVE TO COMPLETE TRAINING? |
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Definition
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|
Term
HOW MANY ACCOUNTS CAN A COMMAND HAVE? |
|
Definition
TWO: IF THE COMMAND IS AWAY FROM THE PARENT COMMAND LONGER THAN 45 DAYS. IF THE COMMAND IS IN DIRE NEED OF COMSEC TO MEET THE MISSION OBJECTIVE |
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
IF THE EKMS MANAGER IS GONE LONGER THAN 60 DAYS CAN THEY RESUME THEIR DUTIES UPON RETURN? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
HOW LONG DOES THE EKMS ALTERNATIVE HAVE TO COMPLETE TRAINING? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
CAN A WITNESS BE A CLERK? |
|
Definition
NO. A WITNESS CANT BE A CLERK BECAUSE THEY ARE NOT ALLOWED TO HANDLE COMSEC DOCUMENTS. A CLERK, HOWEVER, CAN BE A WITNESS. |
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|
Term
DOES A WITNESS HAVE TO BE AN IT? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
ACCOUNTABILITY LEGEND CODES 6 AND 7 ARE FOR WHAT TYPE OF COMSEC? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR KEY PROCESSOR? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
ACCOUNTABILITY LEGEND CODES 1, 2 AND 4 ARE FOR WHAT TYPE OF COMSEC? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
HOW MANY KEY PROCESSORS CAN A COMMAND HAVE? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
INFORMATION HANDLING EQUIPMENT ASSOCIATED CRYPTOGRAPHIC COMPONENT OR OTHER HARDWARE ITEM WHICH PERFORMS A CRITICAL COMSEC FUNCTION. ITEMS SO DESIGNATED MAY BE UNCLASSIFIED BUT ARE SUBJECT TO SPECIAL ACCOUNTING CONTROLS AND REQUIRED MARKINGS. TAKES CLASSIFICATION BASED ON KEY TYPE IT IS LOADED WITH. |
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|
Term
|
Definition
CONTROLLED CRYPTOGRAPHIC ITEM |
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|
Term
HOW MANY DAYS DO YOU HAVE TO DESTROY COMSEC EQUIPMENT? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
WHAT IS THE ORDERIN WHICH CRYPTO IS DESTROYED? |
|
Definition
SUPERSEDED EFFECTIVE RESERVE ON BOARD |
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|
Term
HOW MANY DAYS DO YOU HAVE TO DESTROY COMSEC PUBS? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
WHEN DOA&A INSPECT/TRAIN? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
HOW LONG IS THE A&A TRAINING? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
HOW MANY TEAMS DOES THE A&A TEAM AS A WHOLE COMPRISE OF? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
WHO IS PRESENT WHEN ESTABLISHING AN EKMS ACCOUNT? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
IF A COMMAND REQUEST MORE THAN ONE INSPECTION FROM THE A&A TEAM WHAT MUST THEY DO? |
|
Definition
THEY MUST PROVIDE FUNDING FOR TRAVEL OF A&ATEAM |
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|
Term
HOW MANY DAYS DO YOU HAVE TO ESTABLISH AN EKMS ACCOUNT? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
HOW MANY DAYS DO YOU HAVE TO NOTIFY NCMS ONCE EKMS ACCREDITATION IS COMPLETE? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
CAN TAD PERSONNEL TAKE THE ROLE AS EKMS MANAGER? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
WHAT IS THE LOWEST RANK YOU CAN BE TO TAKE THE ROLE OF EKMS MANAGER IN TIER 2? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
WHAT IS THE HIGHEST LEVEL OF COMSEC A RESIDENT ALIEN CAN HANDLE? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
WHEN SENDING TS MATERIAL, WHAT CARRIER SERVICE DO YOU USE? |
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Definition
DEFENSE CARRIER SERVICE (DCS) |
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Term
WHAT IS THE LOWEST RANK YOU CAN BE TO TAKE THE ROLE OF EKMS MANAGER IN TIER 3? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT IS THE LONGEST AN EKMS MANAGER OR AL T CAN BE INTERIM? |
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Definition
WHAT IS THE LONGEST AN EKMS MANAGER OR AL T CAN BE INTERIM? |
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Term
WHAT NEEDS TO BE ON THE VISITOR'S LOG? |
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Definition
RANK, POSITION, TITLE, PURPOSE, ESCORT |
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Term
WHO IS EXEMPT FROM COMSEC DESTRUCTION TIME LIMITS? |
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Definition
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Term
WHEN DEALING WITH 87 ACCOUNTS WHO NEEDS TO BE NOTIFIED |
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Definition
NCMS NEEDS TO BE NOTIFIED WHEN DEALING WITH CIVILIAN TRANSFERS |
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Term
WHO IS ALLOWED TO CHANGE THE COMBO FOR THE VAULT? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT DATE IS FOUND ON THE LOCAL MANAGEMENT DEVICE (LMO)? |
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Definition
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Term
HOW OFTEN DOES THE LMD RESET? |
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Definition
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Term
WHEN SENDING COMSEC WHAT IS THE WRAPPING PROCEDURE FOR THE PACKAGE? |
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Definition
WRAP TWICE 1ST LAYER= WRITE DOWN YOUR ACCOUNT# TS OR SECRET? FROM/TO 2ND LAYER= OUTER LAYER, MAKE SURE TO MAKETHEPACKAGELOOK LIKE REGULAR MAIL, THE 1ST LAYER SHOULD NOT SHOW |
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Term
WHO IS NOT ALLOWED TO SHIP ANY TYPE OF COMSEC MATERIAL? |
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Definition
UNCLEARED COMMERCIAL CARRIERS |
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Term
WHAT PUBLICATION IS USED FOR OTAT/OTAR? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT MUST BE DONE PRIOR TO SENDING EQUIPMENT? |
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Definition
ZERORIZE AND REMOVE BATTERY *EXCEPTION: IF EQUIPMENT IS IN IMMEDIATE REPLACEMENT |
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Term
WHAT ARE THE REQUIREMENTS OF AN AIR DROP? |
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Definition
DROPPER MUST BE CLEARED PERSONNEL COMMUNICATION NEEDS TO BE KEPT AT ALL TIMES TO ENSURE DELIVERY |
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Term
WHAT ARE THE REQUIREMENTS OF A SHREDDER? |
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Definition
MUST BE ABLE TO SHRED WITH 1/5 WIDTH AND 3/64 LENGTH |
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Term
WHAT ARE THE REQUIREMENTS FOR PULPING? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT ARE THE TYPES OF DESTRUCTION? |
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Definition
REGULAR - ROUTINE EMERGENCY COMPROMISE, NATURAL DISASTER ETC. |
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Term
IN AN EMERGENCY SITUATION WHAT IS THE LAST TYPE OF COMSEC TO BE DESTROYED? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT DO YOU DO IF YOU RECEIVED A PACKAGE THAT IS NOT YOURS AND HAVE ALREADY OPENED IT? |
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Definition
ON THE FIRST LAYER, WRITE DOWN YOUR ACCOUNT# AND REASON FOR OPENING THE PACKAGE. REWRAP AND MAIL OR DELIVER |
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Term
WHAT MUST YOU DO TO A CANISTER IN A DESTRUCTION PROCEDURE? |
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Definition
PUNCTURE THE CANISTER WITH HOLES |
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Term
HOW MANY BITS DOES THE KP RUN OFF OF? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT IS THE AMOUNT A COMMAND NEEDS TO KEEP RESERVE ON BOARD MATERIAL? |
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Definition
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Term
IF A COMMAND WANTS TO INCREASE THEIR RESERVE ON BOARD MATERIAL WHAT IS THE LEAD TIME THEY NEED TO GIVE? |
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Definition
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Term
IF A COMMAND SENDS MATERIAL AS SPECIAL MOVEMENT WHAT MUST THEY DO TO AVOID THEIR SHIPMENT TURNING INTO REGULAR MOVEMENT? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
THE ACCOUNT# AND COMMAND NAME OF A COMMAND IN ORDER TO SHIP COMSEC |
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Term
WHAT IS CHAPTER 7 OF EKMS1? |
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Definition
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Term
IF AN EKMS MANAGER HAS EKMS RELATED QUESTIONS, WHO CAN THEY REFER TO? |
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Definition
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Term
WHEN A COMMAND MOVES WHAT MUST THEY DO IN TERMS OF MAIL? |
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Definition
NOTIFY DCS WITH NEW ADDRESS DESTROY ANY COMSEC FROM PREVIOUS GEOGRAPHICAL AREA AND REQUEST NEW COMSEC FOR CURRENT GEOGRAPHICAL AREA |
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Term
WHAT MUST THEY DO IN TERMS OF MAIL? |
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Definition
ADDRESS DESTROY ANY COMSEC FROM PREVIOUS GEOGRAPHICAL AREA AND REQUEST NEW COMSEC FOR CURRENT GEOGRAPHICAL AREA |
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Term
WHAT IS THE MOST IMPORTANT ASPECT OF COMSEC ACCOUNT MANAGEMENT? |
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Definition
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Term
HOW MANY SIGNATURES IS REQUIRED WHEN HANDLING COMSEC? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT IS THE MINIMUM AN INCIDENT REPORT CAN BE CLASSIFIED AS? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT FORM IS USED IN THE INVENTORY, RECEIPT AND DESTRUCTION OF COMSEC? |
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Definition
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Term
TRUE OR FALSE: EXCEPT IN CASES OF EXTREME EMERGENCY, COMSEC MATERIAL MUST ALWAYS BE DESTROYED WITH TWO PEOPLE. |
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Definition
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Term
HOW MANY TAPES DO YOU NEED TO BACK UP LCMS DATABASE? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT IS THE PREFERRED METHOD OF DESTRUCTION? |
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Definition
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Term
HOW MANY KOK 22'S CAN A COMMAND HAVE? |
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Definition
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Term
WHEN ARE COMSEC MATERIAL ASSIGNED AL CODES 1, 2, 4, 6 AND 7 INVENTORIED? |
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Definition
SEMI-ANNUALLY OR CHANGE OF COMMAND NEW COMMO COMPROMISE DECOMMISSION |
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Term
WHAT MUST EVERY PERSON TO WHICH COMSEC IS MATERIAL USED IS RESPONSIBLE FOR COMPLETING WHAT FORM? |
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Definition
RESPONSIBILITY ACKNOWLEDGEMENT FORM |
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Term
WHO HAS DIRECT ACCESS TO THE CO WHEN IT COMES TO POLICY AND PROCEDURE CHANGES? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT TYPE OF INK IS ALLOWED TO WRITE ON HARD COPIES OF COMSEC? |
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Definition
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Term
WHO IS RESPONSIBLE TO ADVISE AND ENSURE CORRECT AND UP TO DATE INFORMATION IS GIVEN TO CLEARED PERSONNEL? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT FORM OF COMSEC MATERIAL IS A TWO SIDED DOCUMENT USED TO RECORD DESTRUCTION OF ONE TIME KEYING MATERIAL? |
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Definition
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Term
WHEN DOES A COMMAND DISESTABLISH AN ACCOUNT? |
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Definition
DECOMMISSION AND WHEN A COMMAND NO LONGER NEEDS COMSEC MATERIALS |
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Term
WHEN INVENTORY OF COMSEC MATERIALS, SUCH AS A CANISTER, IS CONDUCTED WHO COMPARES DOCUMENTS TO MATERIAL? |
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Definition
THE EKMS MANAGER HANDLES DOCUMENTS AND A WITNESS READS OFF THE CANISTER OR MATERIAL. THE WITNESS CANT HANDLE DOCUMENTS |
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Term
WHAT IS CHAPTER 8 OF EKMS1? |
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Definition
DISESTABLISHMENT OF EKMS ACCOUNT |
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Term
WHAT IS THE LEAD TIME TO DISESTABLISH AN ACCOUNT? |
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Definition
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Term
WHO IS PRESENT DURING DISESTABLISHMENT OF EKMS ACCOUNT? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT MUST YOU KEEP UNTIL A FINAL CLEARANCE MESSAGE HAS BEEN RECEIVED FROM NCMS? |
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Definition
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Term
WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR VALIDATING THE REQUIREMENTS TO ESTABLISH/DISESTABLISH AN EKMS ACCOUNT? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT NEEDS TO HAPPEN PRIOR TO THE REQUESTED DISESTABLISHED DATE? |
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Definition
INVENTORY WITHIN A MINIMUM OF 10 DAYS |
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Term
WHAT IS KEPT FOR ONE YEAR? |
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Definition
FINAL CLEARANCE MESSAGE FROM NCMS |
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Term
WHAT IS CHAPTER 9 OF EKMS1? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT DOES NCIRES STAND FOR? |
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Definition
NATIONAL COMSEC INCIDENT REPORTING AND EVALUATION SYSTEM |
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Term
WHO ESTABLISHED THE NCIRES? |
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Definition
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Term
HOW MUST REPORT INCIDENTS BE SUBMITTED? |
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Definition
GENSER MESSAGE *SECURE FAX IS USED WHEN GENSER MESSAGE CANT BE SENT |
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Term
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Definition
EVALUATE ALL ACTIONS THAT CAN BE TAKEN TO MINIMIZE AN ADVERSE IMPACT ON NATIONAL SECURITY |
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Term
DISCIPLINARY ACTIONS SHOULD NOT BE TAKEN FOR INDIVIDUALS FOR REPORTING A COMSEC INCIDENT UNLESS IT OCCURRED AS THE RESULT OF |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT ARE THE 3 CATEGORIES OF COMSEC INCIDENTS? |
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Definition
CRYPTOGRAPHIC PERSONNEL PHYSICAL |
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Term
WHAT ARE THE TYPES OF COMSEC INCIDENT REPORTS? |
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Definition
INITIAL AMPLIFYING INTERIM FINAL |
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Term
IF SOMEONE IS REPORTED UA AND THERE IS SUSPICION ON COMPROMISE, WHAT MUST BE DONE? |
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Definition
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Term
WHO OPENS AND CLOSES A INCIDENT CASE FILE? |
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Definition
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Term
WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF PDS? |
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Definition
REPORTABLE AND NON-REPORTABLE |
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Term
WHAT ARE TWO EXAMPLE OF A PDS? |
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Definition
REPORTABLE - LOSS OF EYING MATERIAL BEFORE EFFECTIVE DATE NON-REPORTABLE - NO SIGNATURE ON INVENTORY |
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Term
DISTRIBUTION TO UNAUTHORIZED PERSONNEL SUCH AS CIVILIANS MUST BE AUTHORIZED BY WHOM AND REPORTED TO WHOM? |
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Definition
AUTHORIZED BY CONTROLLING AUTHORITY AND NOTIFY CENTRAL OF RECORD NCMS |
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Term
IF EQUIPMENT CANT BE ZERORIZED WHAT MUST BE ANNOTATED? |
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Definition
SF-153 WITH REASON WHY EQUIPMENT CANT BE ZERORIZED |
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Term
WHAT IS THE ONLY METHOD OF SHIPPING THE KP? |
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Definition
DCS DEFENSE CARRIER SYSTEM |
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Term
What will a service member not be required to do concerning their EVAL? |
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Definition
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Term
Which trait mark recommendation says the member needs development in this trait, but is promotable if overall performance warrants? |
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Definition
Useful, Promising Performance – 2.0 |
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Term
What is the maximum combined percent of summary group for early promote and must promote for E-7 to E-9? |
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Definition
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Term
The system utilizes which type of report for chief petty officers (CPO) (E7-E9)? |
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Definition
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Term
What summarizes a member’s professional and performance history? |
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Definition
Performance Summary Record |
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Term
An enlisted OIC in the grade of E9 and civilians in command positions who hold the grade of GS-9 through GS-12 may sign reports on whom? |
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Definition
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Term
Which day should you begin each Regular report? |
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Definition
On the day following the ending date of the previous report |
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Term
Which trait mark recommendation says until the member corrects deficiencies in this trait, they should not be promoted regardless of performance in other traits? |
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Definition
Disappointing Performance – 1.0 |
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Term
The rater for personnel E1-E4 can be an? |
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Definition
E6 or civilian equivalent |
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Term
A CPO or senior chief petty officers (SCPOs) may sign reports on whom? |
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Definition
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Term
The reporting senior must retain copies of FITREPs on all officers and CHIEFEVALs on all CPOs for at least ___ years. The command must retain copies of enlisted EVALs and CHIEFEVALS for ___ years. |
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Definition
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Term
In EVAL block 45 and FITREP block 42 (Individual promotion recommendation), what are recommendations for promotion? |
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Definition
Promotable, Must Promote, and Early Promote |
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Term
For the comments portion of the EVAL what size font should you use? |
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Definition
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Term
A member eligible for consideration by a selection board may communicate in what means with the board? |
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Definition
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Term
Which trait mark recommendation says the member can handle this aspect of the next higher pay-grade? |
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Definition
Dependable, "Fully-Qualified," Journeyman Performance – 3.0 |
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Term
What format is used for entering info in the narrative blocks of FITREPs and EVALs? |
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Definition
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Term
What is indicated by a mark of significant problems? |
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Definition
Recommendation against promotion which must be justified in the comments |
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Term
Normally, who is the counselor for E1-E4 personnel? |
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Definition
The rater E6 or above, who is usually the division, department, or work center LPO |
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Term
When may a member lose their eligibility for their Good Conduct medal and must wait another 3 years? |
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Definition
When they receive any 1.0 trait grade |
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Term
What should the comments section on the EVAL be based on? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What is indicated by a mark of 4.0 in block 39? |
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Definition
An above average contribution towards achieving goals |
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Term
Normally, who is the counselor for E5 to E6 personnel? |
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Definition
Division, Department, or Work Center CPO |
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Term
Regular reports, including letter-extensions, may not cover more than how many months without NAVPERSCOM approval? |
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Definition
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Term
When may a member receive a 5.0 in military bearing/character? |
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Definition
Only when member meets all 5.0 traits |
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Term
The system utilizes which type of report for officers (W2-O6)? |
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Definition
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Term
For pay-grades O1 and O2 (with the exception of Limited Duty Officers), no promotion recommendation higher than what is allowed? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the maximum combined percent of a summary group for early promote and must promote for E-6 members? |
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Definition
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Term
Which performance trait grade represents performance to full Navy standards? |
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Definition
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Term
When submitting a statement for your EVAL it may be no longer than how many pages? |
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Definition
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Term
The member has the right to submit a statement to the record concerning their report, either at the time of the report or within how many years? |
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Definition
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Term
When are E1-E3 EVALs due? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Which article of the U.S. Navy Regulations provides authority for the request mast, at which questions concerning FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs and EVALs may be raised with the CO? |
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Definition
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Term
What is entered in block 21 (billet subcategory) if there is no billet subcategory code? |
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Definition
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Term
When may a recommendation of must promote or early promote not be assigned? |
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Definition
With any trait assessed as 2.0 |
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Term
When must report drafts be destroyed? |
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Definition
When the finished report is signed |
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Term
What is entered in EVAL block 41 and FITREP block 40 (career recommendations) if none? |
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Definition
Either “NA” or “None” do not leave blank |
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Term
What additional action is required if “NOT PERF” is entered in block 30 (Date Counseled)? |
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Definition
A brief explanation must be entered in Block 31 |
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Term
What directive provides guidance in performance evaluation and counseling |
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Definition
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Term
What copies of a report may block 27 (SSN) not contain a reporting seniors SSN? |
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Definition
Members copy, enlisted field service record copy and the command files. |
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Term
When is an “X” placed in block 16 (not observed report)? |
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Definition
When the report is a wholly not observed report |
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Term
Members should review their Continuity of Reports on BOL approximately how many days after the reports are signed and mailed to NAVPERSCOM? |
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Definition
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Term
A Periodic report may be omitted if the member has received a graded Regular report within the past how many months? |
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Definition
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Term
The system utilizes which type of report for other enlisted personnel (E1-E6)? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the maximum amount of characters and spaces that may be entered in block 25 for the reporting seniors title? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the foundation of the performance record? |
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Definition
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Term
At a minimum, a member should attempt to obtain any missing report covering significant duty in the grades of E5 or above going back how many years? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What is indicated by an entry of “FROCKED” in block 8 (Promotion Status)? |
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Definition
Frocked to the grade or rate entered in Block 2, but not yet regularly promoted |
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Term
What is indicated by a members signature in block 32 (Signature of individual counseled)? |
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Definition
Verifies that blocks 30 and 31 are accurate, does not necessarily mean that the counseling was considered adequate |
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Term
What grade or rate is entered in block 2? |
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Definition
The one the member is wearing on the ending date of the report |
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Term
Which trait mark recommendation says the member could be promoted two pay-grades, and still be a standout in this trait? |
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Definition
Superstar Performance – 5.0 |
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Term
Which trait mark recommendation says the member is far more than promotion ready in this trait right now? |
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Definition
Advanced Performance – 4.0 |
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Term
What are the ending dates for enlisted FITREPs/EVALs? |
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Definition
Always on the 15th day of the month |
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Term
What is entered in block 44 (qualifications/achievements)? |
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Definition
Only completed, not anticipated achievements |
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Term
For personnel E5-E6, the rater should be a Navy CPO whenever possible, but if none is available within the command, the rater may be a? |
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Definition
E7 or above or civilian equivalent |
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Term
After submitting a statement for your EVAL how long does the reporting senior have to endorse and forward it with a copy back to the member? |
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Definition
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Term
How long from the ending date of a report can the reporting senior, for good cause, submit an administrative change or evaluative supplement? |
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Definition
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Term
All members should periodically review their NAVPERSCOM records. Members should complete this review at least how long prior to any board convening date to allow time to correct discrepancies? |
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Definition
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Term
What FITREP block is used for qualifications and achievements for E-7 to O-6 members? |
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Definition
Block 41 (Comments on Performance) |
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Term
Which article of the U.S. Navy Regulations requires that records be maintained on naval personnel "which reflect their fitness for the service and performance of duties."? |
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Definition
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Term
By a virtue of their command authority Commanding Officers and Officers in charge are a what? |
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Definition
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Term
During a Mid-Term Counseling what should you not enter on the Mid-Term? |
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Definition
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Term
Normally, who is the counselor for E7-O6 personnel? |
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Definition
The reporting senior or the immediate supervisor who will draft the FITREP |
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Term
What percentage of each summary group rounded up to the nearest whole number excluding non-Limited Duty Officers O1/O2 can be Early Promotes? |
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Definition
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Term
When are E7 and E8 FITREPs due? |
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Definition
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Term
How long prior to the EVAL due date should you obtain the member’s written input? |
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Definition
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Term
What were summary groups formerly known as? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the ending dates for officer FITREPs? |
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Definition
Always on the last day of the month |
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Term
What provide a record of significant performance in an additional duty (ADDU) or temporary additional duty (TEMADD) status? |
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Definition
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Term
Who is responsible for ensuring the continuity of members FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL records? |
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Definition
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Term
What grade is entered in block 23 (grade) for a reservist who is a civilian reporting senior? |
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Definition
Their civilian grade, not their military grade |
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Term
When the Commanding Officer authorizes a deserter’s uniforms to be sold what should done to the uniforms? |
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Definition
The name of the former owner shall be obliterated with a red “D.C.” stamp and the purchaser’s name shall be placed above, below, or next to it |
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Term
How many rings are authorized while in uniform? |
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Definition
One ring per hand, plus wedding/engagement ring set |
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Term
Women's uniforms were designed to duplicate what? |
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Definition
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Term
How should the watch cap be worn? |
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Definition
Wear squarely on the head, double folded approximately 2-1/2 inches to 3 inches, with the bottom edge parallel to and 1-1/2 inches above the eyebrows |
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Term
When a hairstyle of multiple braids is worn, braids shall be small in diameter approximately? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the size of the CPO cap device? |
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Definition
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Term
As a part of a full sea bag how many pairs of coveralls are required? |
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Definition
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Term
What kind of military creases are not authorized with the uniform? |
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Definition
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Term
Who is responsible for monitoring and ensuring individuals with shaving waivers are following the treatment regimen? |
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Definition
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Term
What it the maximum length a man can have his hair? |
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Definition
No longer than 4 inches and may not touch the ears, collar, extend below the eyebrows when headgear is removed show under front edge of headgear or interfere with the proper wear of headgear |
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Term
What are the earring uniform regulations for women? |
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Definition
One earring per ear centered on the earlobe, 4mm – 6mm approximately 1/8 to ¼ inch plain with shiny or brushed matte finish, screw on or with post |
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Term
What will a Fleet Admiral wear on their sleeve? |
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Definition
One 2 inch stripe with four ½ inch stripes above it |
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Term
When are cover's required to be worn while out to sea? |
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Definition
On specific watches or on ceremonial occasions |
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Term
What is the annual clothing replacement allowance? |
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Definition
A cash allowance provided for replacing a minimum quantity of each required uniform and paid over the estimated useful life of the articles |
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Term
What are men authorized to wear to cover natural baldness or a physical disfigurement? |
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Definition
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Term
When is it authorized to wear covers indoors? |
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Definition
Those member's in a duty status and wearing side arms |
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Term
What is the regulation for embroidery on the utilities and coveralls? |
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Definition
1/2 inch high blocked letters on the utilities and 3/4 inch high blocked letters on the coveralls |
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Term
How far above the visor shall the insignia for a ball cap be placed? |
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Definition
1-1/4 inch above the visor |
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Term
On what side do men and women coats button? |
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Definition
Women’s coats button on the left and men’s button to the right |
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Term
How far above the eyebrows should the garrison cap be worn? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the cap device for commissioned warrant officers? |
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Definition
Consists of two gold crossed fouled anchors, of a size to be inscribed in a circle 2-1/4 inches in diameter |
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Term
Where may former members of the Armed Forces wear a military uniform if they are authorized to wear one? |
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Definition
Military funerals, memorial services, weddings, inaugurals and patriotic parades or ceremonies which any active or reserve United States military unit is taking part |
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Term
What is the size of the CPO collar device? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the size of the CPO miniature cap device? |
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Definition
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Term
How should the ball cap be worn? |
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Definition
Wear squarely on the head, with bottom edge parallel to and 1-1/2 inch above the eyebrows |
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Term
Which personnel are not authorized to wear any facial hair? |
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Definition
Brig awardees, brig prisoners, and restrictees |
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Term
What is the correct wear of the beret for women? |
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Definition
Wear the beret toward the front of the head approximately ¾ inch from the forehead hairline, and tilted slightly to the right, align insignia above the left eye |
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Term
What is the hair regulation for women in while in uniform? |
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Definition
The hair may touch, but not fall below the horizontal line level with the lower edge of the back of the collar. With the jumper uniform, hair may extend a maximum of 1½ inches below the top of the jumper collar |
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Term
What will a Captain wear on their sleeve? |
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Definition
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Term
As a part of a full sea bag how many sets of NWU are required? |
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Definition
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Term
Who is the Uniform Board guided and established by? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the cap device for commissioned officers? |
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Definition
Consists of two gold crossed fouled anchors with burnish silver shield surmounted by a burnish silver spread eagle facing the wearer’s right |
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Term
Where does the first stripe start on the sleeve of an officer? |
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Definition
It starts 2 inches form the edge of the sleeve, multiple stripes have ¼ inch intervals in between |
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Term
What elements are grooming standards based on? |
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Definition
Neatness, cleanliness, safety, military image and appearance |
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Term
Who is responsible for uniform policy afloat? |
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Definition
Senior Officer Present (SOPA) |
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Term
What will a Rear Admiral (Lower Half) wear on their sleeve? |
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Definition
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Term
How shall the hair above the ears and around the neck for men be? |
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Definition
Tapered from the lower natural hairline upwards at least ¾ inch and outward not greater than ¾ inch to blend with hairstyle; hair must not touch the collar |
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Term
What is on the visor of flag officers? |
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Definition
2 rows of gold leaves and acorns |
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Term
Who is responsible for paying for the soiled uniforms that are damaged due to lack of adequate protective garments? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the maximum of small barrettes/combs/clips that are similar to the hair coloring be used? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the regulation for stencils? |
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Definition
Stencil letters shall be approximately 3/8 inch high blocked letters |
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Term
When may former members of the Armed Forces wear a military uniform? |
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Definition
Former members who served honorably during a war and whose most recent service was terminated under honorable conditions may wear the uniform of the highest grade held |
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Term
When can’t conservative sunglasses be worn? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the maximum bulk of hair for men and women? |
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Definition
Shall not exceed approximately 2 inches as measured from the scalp |
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Term
When is the Service Dress Blue uniform authorized for wear while traveling? |
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Definition
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Term
In the event that ordering special uniform items is not practical, Navy women are authorized to wear what male uniform items until when? |
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Definition
Peacoat, all-weather coat, jacket and sweaters, shoes, rating badges, coveralls, belts and buckles, utility shirts and trousers, working Khaki shirts and trousers; as long as they are serviceable |
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Term
How are men and women belts to be worn? |
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Definition
Men wear the belt with clip to the left of the buckle and women wear the belt with clip to the right of the buckle |
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Term
What is the maximum length that the mustache may be? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the widths of the stripes that are worn on the sleeve of officers? |
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Definition
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Term
What it the policy on military creases? |
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Definition
Military creases are an individual option, sewn in creases are not authorized |
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Term
Historically, uniforms have been the product of a sailor's environment by what three things? |
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Definition
Physical, Geographical, and Technical |
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Term
What will an ensign wear on their sleeve? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Communication Instructions General |
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Term
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Definition
Communications Instructions Security |
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Term
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Definition
Automatic Digital Network(AUTODIN) Operating Procedures |
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Term
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Definition
Communications Instructions Distress and Rescue Procedures |
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Term
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Definition
Cyber Incident Handling Program |
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Term
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Definition
IA Training,Certification and Workforce Managemnet |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
EE130-AG-HBK-020 Volume 1 |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
EKMS Policy and Procedures/teir 2-3 |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Electronics Technician Volume 3-Comms Systems |
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Term
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Definition
Electronics Tech Volume 7- Antenns and Wave Propagation |
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Term
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Definition
Naval Telecommunications Procedures Navy UHF SAT COMMs |
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Term
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Definition
Navy EHF Satellite Communications |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Navy Electromagnatic Spectrum (EMS) Guide |
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Term
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Definition
Special Incident Reporting(OPREP-3 Pinnacle,OPREP-3 Navy Blue, OPREP-3 Navy Unit) |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Department of the Navy IA policy |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Enlisted to Officer Commissioning Programs Application |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Navy Fraternization Policy |
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Term
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Definition
Sexual Assault Prevention and Response |
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Term
What is the core of the system? It really is the PC; everything else is connected to it, and it controls everything in the system. |
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Definition
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Term
What is a single ring of data on one side of a disk? |
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Definition
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Term
What protocol suite is utilized by most Windows-based networks, as well as Linux, Unix, MacOS and other networks? |
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Definition
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Term
Hard disk drives are sometimes referred to as? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the frame or chassis that houses the motherboard, power supply, disk drives, adapter cards, and any other physical components in the system? |
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Definition
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Term
What is a type of memory that can permanently or semi-permanently store data? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of memory is available in access times of 2ns or less? |
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Definition
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Term
Tracks are divided into several numbered divisions known as? |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of file system was the standard file system supported by DOS and Windows 9x/Me? |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of file system is an optional file system supported by Windows 95 OSR2 (OEM Service Release 2) and later? |
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Definition
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Term
A nanosecond is defined as? |
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Definition
one billionth of a second |
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Term
What protocol suite is utilized by mainly Novell 4.x and earlier networks? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the type of memory chip used for most of the main memory in a modern PC? |
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Definition
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Term
What motherboard form factor is used in tower and desktop systems; popular in high-end major OEM systems starting in 2007? |
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Definition
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Term
What defines storage that retains the data even when no power is supplied to the computer? |
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Definition
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Term
What holds all the programs and data the processor is using at a given time? |
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Definition
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Term
What is often thought of as the "engine" of the computer? It's also called the CPU? |
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Definition
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Term
What motherboard form factor is used in Standard tower and desktop systems; most common form factor from mid-1996 through the present; supports high-end systems? |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ coordinate the storage and transfer of e-mail between users on a network. |
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Definition
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Term
A(n) _________________________ is a computer installed with the appropriate software to supply Web pages to many different clients upon demand |
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Definition
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Term
The term _________________________ refers to those skills that are not easily measurable, such as customer relations, oral and written communications, dependability, teamwork, and leadership abilities. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ is the process of mastering material pertaining to a particular hardware system, operating system, programming language, or other software application, and then proving your mastery by passing a series of exams. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ refers to the capability of a server to share data files, applications, and disk storage space. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ is an organization composed of more than a thousand representatives from industry and government who together determine standards for the electronics industry and other fields, such as chemical and nuclear engineering, health and safety, and construction. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ is a networking technology originally developed at Xerox in the early 1970s and improved by Digital Equipment Corporation, Intel, and Xerox. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ is a method of identifying segments that belong to the same group of subdivided data. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ protocols ensure that data arrives exactly as it was sent by establishing a connection with another node before they begin transmitting data. |
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Definition
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Term
Transport layer protocols break large data units received from the Session layer into multiple smaller units called _________________________. |
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Definition
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Term
Network layer addresses are also called _________________________. |
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Definition
virtual addresses, logical addresses |
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Term
_________________________ layer services manage data encryption and decryption. |
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Definition
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Term
A wave's _________________________ is a measure of its strength at any given point in time. |
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Definition
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Term
A(n) _________________________ is a distinct communication path between nodes. |
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Definition
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Term
The most common way to measure latency on data networks is by calculating a packet's _________________________. |
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Definition
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Term
The distance between corresponding points on a wave's cycle is called its _________________________. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ occurs when a signal traveling on one wire or cable infringes on the signal traveling over an adjacent wire or cable. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ is a Network layer protocol that obtains the MAC address of a host, or node, then creates a database that maps the MAC address to the host's IP address. |
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Definition
Address Resolution Protocol |
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Term
_________________________ contain databases of associated names and IP addresses and provide this information to resolvers on request. |
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Definition
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Term
The _________________________ provides a means of resolving NetBIOS names to IP addresses. |
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Definition
Windows Internet Naming Service |
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Term
_________________________ allows one device to send data to a specific group of devices. |
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Definition
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Term
A(n) _________________________ is a special 32-bit number that, when combined with a device's IP address, informs the rest of the network about the segment or network to which it is attached. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ are any hosts on the Internet that need to look up domain name information. |
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Definition
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Term
A computer's _________________________ is the circuit, or signaling pathway, used by the motherboard to transmit data to the computer's components, including its memory, processor, hard disk, and NIC. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ are physically designed to be linked with other hubs in a single telecommunications closet. |
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Definition
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Term
In _________________________, a connection is established between two network nodes before they begin transmitting data |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ is a network technology whose standards were originally specified by ANSI in the mid-1980s and later refined by ISO. |
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Definition
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Term
A(n) _________________________ topology consists of a single cable connecting all nodes on a network without intervening connectivity devices. |
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Definition
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Term
In _________________________, a 3-byte packet, called a token, is transmitted from one node to another in a circular fashion around the ring. |
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Definition
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Term
A WAN in which each site is directly connected to no more than two other sites in a serial fashion is known as a _________________________. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ is an updated, digital version of X.25 that relies on packet switching |
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Definition
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Term
A _________________________ modulates outgoing signals and demodulates incoming signals. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ specifies framing and multiplexing techniques at the Physical layer of the OSI Model. |
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Definition
Synchronous Optical Network |
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Term
_________________________ is an analog, packet-switched technology designed for long-distance data transmission and standardized by the ITU in the mid-1970s. |
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Definition
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Term
_________________________ is an international standard, originally established by the ITU in 1984, for transmitting digital signals over the PSTN. |
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Definition
Integrated Services Digital Network ISDN |
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Term
Which INFOCON level is described as the maximum CND force readiness? |
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Definition
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Term
What are teams composed of personnel with technical expertise and organic equipment that may deploy to assist remote sites in the restoration of computer services? |
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Definition
Computer Emergency Response Team |
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Term
Certification and accreditation (C&A) of information systems that process Top Secret Sensitive Compartmented Information will comply with the requirements of what? |
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Definition
Director of Central Intelligence Directive |
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Term
What is a type of incident resulting from any action or series of actions that prevents any part of an information system (IS) from functioning? |
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Definition
Distributed Denial of Service |
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Term
What are operations to disrupt, deny, degrade or destroy information resident in computers and computer networks, or the computers and networks themselves? |
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Definition
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Term
What is an organizational, procedural and technological construct for ensuring information superiority and enabling speed of command for the war-fighter? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the assurance the sender of the data is provided with proof of delivery and the recipient is provided with proof of the sender’s identity, so neither can later deny having processed the data? |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of threats describes common hacker tools and techniques used in a non-sophisticated manner? |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of threats describes state-sponsored computer network attack or espionage? |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of threats describes non state-sponsored computer network attack, espionage or data theft? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the ability to rapidly collect, process and disseminate information while denying these capabilities to adversaries? |
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Definition
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Term
What consists of actions and operations to defend computer systems and networks from unauthorized activities that degrade mission performance and adversely impact survivability? |
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Definition
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Term
What enables operations and intelligence collection to gather data from target or adversary automated information systems or networks? |
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Definition
Computer Network Exploitation (CNE) |
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Term
What is the DOD consolidated worldwide enterprise level telecommunications infrastructure that provides the end-to-end information transfer network for supporting military operations? |
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Definition
Defense Information Systems Network |
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Term
Which instruction states all DOD information systems and networks will be certified and accredited IAW with the DOD policy and guidance, currently the DOD Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP)? |
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Definition
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Term
What does network management enable based on priority, system status and capacity? |
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Definition
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Term
COMSEC material is continuously accountable and must be accounted for by serial/register number from production to destruction |
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Definition
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Term
COMSEC material is continuously accountable by quantity from production to destruction. |
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Definition
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Term
COMSEC material is locally accountable by quantity and handled or safeguarded based on its classification after initial receipt to Director, Communication Material System (DCMS) . |
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Definition
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Term
COMSEC material is electronically generated and is continuously accountable to the central office of record (COR) by short title and accounting number from production to destruction . |
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Definition
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Term
COMSEC material is electronically generated and is accountable to the generation facility. All key transfers, including all subsequent transfers, must also be reported to the generating facility. |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Classified Container Information, must be placed on the inside of each COMSEC storage container |
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Term
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Definition
Security Container Check Sheet must be maintained for each lock on the COMSEC storage container. |
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Term
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Definition
Maintenance Record for Security Containers/ Vault Doors, must be maintained for each COMSEC storage container/vault door. This is a permanent record and must be placed with the container. |
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Term
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Definition
COMSEC Material Report, and all COMSEC and container forms will be provided by NAVPERSCOM |
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Term
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Definition
What provide communications and procedures, which are essential to the conduct of military operations? |
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Term
The primary purpose of military communications and information systems(CIS) is to serve the what? |
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Definition
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Term
what is the transmission and reception of messages using the International Morse Code? |
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Definition
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Term
Date and time togetrher are expressed as how many figures followed by the zone letter on a message? |
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Definition
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Term
Messages intended for training communications personnel are what messages? |
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Definition
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Term
what is an element of a military messsage that is udes by the most CCEB and NATO memeber nations for delivery purposes? |
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Definition
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Term
Puncuation is not authorized to be in SMA with the exception of the hyphen and the what? |
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Definition
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Term
It is the responsibility of the what to ensure that the proper classification is indicated on the message? |
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Definition
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Term
Routing indicators consist of how many types |
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Definition
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Term
Call signs and what else are used in lieu of plain language for brevity purposes? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the form of military address designator representing a predetermined list of specific and frequently recurring combinations of action and/or information addresses? |
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Definition
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Term
AIGs are divided into how many major categories |
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Definition
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Term
The responsible authority is responsible for forwarding modifications to AIGs as they occur and reviewing the AIG at least how often for continued requirement and necessary modification? |
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Definition
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Term
Routing indicators will consist of not less than four and not more than how many letters, including suffixes? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the procedure whereby the entire address of a message is contained within the encrypted text? |
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Definition
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Term
CODRESS is not supported by what systems as these systems require the complete PLAD components to make delivery? |
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Definition
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Term
What series should be consulted for complete details of maritime enemy contact reporting? |
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Definition
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Term
The procedure to be used for the transmission of enemy contact reports by radiotelephony are given in what series? |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following devices connects different network segments and uses tables to create a map of the network topology? |
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Definition
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