Term
1. Cost is a resource
a. that is usually reported on project incrementally rather than cumulatively.
b. to balance against schedule and scope.
c. best shown by the project schedule.
d. none of the above. |
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Definition
| 1. B - to balance against schedule and scope. |
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Term
2. A key tool for controlling project costs is ___________.
a. Earned value analysis
b. Network diagram
c. JAD
d. CPM |
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Definition
| 2. A - Earned value analysis |
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Term
3. A big picture view of the cost of a project over its entire existence is ___________.
a. WBS
b. Life cycle costing
c. Networking view
d. JAD costing |
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Definition
| 3. B - Life cycle costing |
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Term
4. In the project life cycle, it is usually more cost-effective to spend money___________.
a. late
b. early
c. in the middle
d. in keeping with a summary baseline |
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Definition
| 4. D - in keeping with a summary baseline |
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Term
5. Cost or benefits that are easily measured in dollars are called __________.
a. tangible
b. intangible
c. baselined
d. time-adjusted |
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Definition
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Term
6. Money that has been spent in the past is known as a(n) ___________.
a. constrained cost
b. indirect cost
c. sunk cost
d. direct cost |
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Definition
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Term
7. When a project's processes and products meet written specifications, we say there is a
a. critical path with no variance.
b. conformance to requirements.
c. conformance to standards.
d. fitness of use. |
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Definition
| 7. B - conformance to requirements. |
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Term
8. When a product can be used as intended, we say it
a. adheres to the life cycle.
b. conforms to requirements.
c. conforms to standards.
d. has a fitness for use. |
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Definition
| 8. D - has a fitness for use. |
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Term
9. Deming is known for
a. his work with the PMI.
b. his work with the German auto industry for process improvement.
c. establishing the systems development life cycle.
d. the Cycle for Improvement -- plan, do, check, and act. |
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Definition
| 9. D - the Cycle for Improvement -- plan, do, check, and act. |
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Term
10. Deming had 14 points for management that included which of the following?
a. Drive out fear and break down barriers between staff members.
b. Create an atmosphere of competition, and make sure you inspect for quality.
c. Make sure you inspect for quality, and work with multiple suppliers to drive down costs.
d. Establishing a project for quality improvement with a clear end date. |
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Definition
| 10. A - Drive out fear and break down barriers between staff members. |
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Term
11. Human resource management includes
a. sponsors and customers.
b. project team members and support staff.
c. vendors supporting the project.
d. all of the above. |
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Definition
| 11. D - all of the above. |
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Term
12. Building individual and group skills is a part of
a. assigning resources.
b. team development.
c. organizational planning.
d. resource leveling. |
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Definition
| 12. B - team development. |
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Term
13. Which of the following is a motivation theory developed by Abraham Maslow?
a. Hierarchy of needs.
b. Motivational factors.
c. Psychosocial theory.
d. Self-realization. |
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Definition
| 13. A - Hierarchy of needs. |
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Term
14. Behavioral psychologists see people as
a. self motivated.
b. controlled by their environment.
c. motivated by others.
d. dependent upon heredity. |
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Definition
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Term
15. The highest need in Maslow's theory is
a. psychosocial.
b. physiological.
c. self-actualization.
d. behavioral. |
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Definition
| 15. C - self-actualization. |
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Term
16. The bottom four needs in Maslow's theory are referred to as
a. elementary needs.
b. deficiency needs.
c. sensory needs.
d. base needs. |
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Definition
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Term
17. A master list of all acronyms and definitions is found in the _______________ section of the communications management plan.
a. NPV analysis
b. information collection and filing structure
c. information distribution
d. format for communicating key project information |
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Definition
| 17. C - information distribution |
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Term
18. The communications management plan is ____.
a. often represented by a bar chart or Gantt chart.
b. a document that guides project communications.
c. targeted for members of the product development team.
d. best designed after an initial implementation milestone. |
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Definition
| 18. B - a document that guides project communications. |
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Term
19. Which part of the communications management plan outlines who receives status reports?
a. Distribution.
b. Filing.
c. NPV.
d. Collection. |
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Definition
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Term
20. What is a good starting point for identifying internal stakeholders?
a. The resource histogram.
b. The WBS.
c. The project's organizational chart.
d. None of the above. |
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Definition
| 20. C - The project's organizational chart. |
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Term
21. How can accessing standard forms be made easier?
a. Providing an index within the critical path.
b. Covering forms possibility usage in the initial analysis.
c. Storing templates and samples of project documents electronically.
d. Creating new forms for each project. |
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Definition
| 21. C - Storing templates and samples of project documents electronically. |
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Term
22. Project risk management should be done
a. before the kickoff meeting.
b. throughout the life of the project.
c. at the final phase initiation.
d. during the close-out of the project. |
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Definition
| 22. B - throughout the life of the project. |
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Term
23. Risk management can
a. have a positive impact on selecting projects.
b. help determine the scope of projects.
c. assist in developing realistic schedules and cost estimates.
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
24. The investment in risk management associated with a project should depend upon
a. the degree of confidence expressed in a WBS.
b. who is leading the project.
c. the nature of the project and the experience of the project team.
d. the critical path. |
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Definition
| 24. C - the nature of the project and the experience of the project team. |
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Term
25. Tolerance for risk
a. may be different for individuals and organizations.
b. should be discouraged.
c. should be the same across projects.
d. may be reduced through a more detailed WBS. |
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Definition
| 25. A - may be different for individuals and organizations. |
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Term
26. Risk aversion
a. should be avoided.
b. is an avoidance activity.
c. is when someone has a lower tolerance for risk.
d. all of the above. |
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Definition
| 26. C - is when someone has a lower tolerance for risk. |
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Term
27. Tools of risk identification include the
a. Monte Carlo analysis and NPV.
b. critical path and the Monte Carlo analysis.
c. stakeholder analysis and the critical path.
d. checklists and flowcharts. |
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Definition
| 27. D - checklists and flowcharts. |
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Term
28. Risk quantification
a. is usually impossible.
b. is most appropriate at the final stages of a project as a lessons learned issue.
c. involves expected monetary values and PERT calculations.
d. should be performed by the key stakeholder. |
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Definition
| 28. C - involves expected monetary values and PERT calculations. |
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Term
29. The goal of risk management is to
a. maximize potential risks while minimizing potential payoffs.
b. minimize potential risks while maximizing potential opportunities.
c. reduce risk under all circumstances.
d. share risk with other projects. |
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Definition
| 29. B - minimize potential risks while maximizing potential opportunities. |
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Term
30. Many organizations are turning to outsourcing in order to
a. increase accountability.
b. reduce both fixed and recurrent costs.
c. access skills and technology.
d. all of the above. |
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Definition
| 30. D - all of the above. |
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Term
31. Outsourcing can allow the client organization to
a. increase skills in the procurement phase.
b. increase head count
c. focus on core competencies.
d. reduce concerns over contracting. |
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Definition
| 31. C - focus on core competencies. |
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Term
32. Procurement planning involves
a. determining what to procure and when.
b. advertising for procurement.
c. soliciting bids.
d. evaluating vendors. |
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Definition
| 32. A - determining what to procure and when. |
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Term
33. Managing the relationship with the vendor is usually a part of what procurement process?
a. Contract administration
b. RFP
c. Contract close-out
d. None of the above |
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Definition
| 33. A - Contract administration |
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Term
34. At the end of solicitation planning, a key milestone is often the issuance of a(n) _________.
a. WBS
b. contract
c. RFP
d. make-or-buy decision |
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Definition
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Term
35. Formal acceptance should occur
a. when an RFP is issued.
b. at the end of solicitation planning.
c. at the completion of contract close-out.
d. before procurement planning. |
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Definition
| 35. C - at the completion of contract close-out. |
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Term
36. The organization's strategic plan
a. has little to do with the kind of projects that actually should be approved.
b. provides the basis for information technology project planning.
c. should contain a section on how projects get initiated.
d. should include recommendations by team member of IT projects. |
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Definition
| 36. B - provides the basis for information technology project planning. |
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Term
37. What could serve as a foundation for choosing which projects to initiate?
a. The WBS
b. NPV
c. Strategic planning
d. all of the above |
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Definition
| 37. C - Strategic planning |
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Term
38. Preparation of a feasibility study
a. should be a part of project initiation.
b. should not be included in project initiation.
c. has little effect on managing projects.
d. should be accomplished before strategic planning |
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Definition
| 38. A - should be a part of project initiation. |
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Term
39. The outcome of project initiation includes
a. project charter.
b. selecting of a project manager.
c. documentation of key project constraints and assumptions.
d. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
40. Plans must be
a. realistic and useful.
b. focused on deliverables.
c. broad in nature.
d. easily communicated. |
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Definition
| 40. B - focused on deliverables. |
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Term
41. Project time management includes
a. activity definition.
d. activity sequencing.
c. duration estimating.
d. all of the above. |
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Definition
| 41. D - all of the above. |
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Term
42. Solicitation planning is a part of
a. risk assessment.
b. human resource planning.
c. project procurement planning.
d. project communications management. |
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Definition
| 42. C - project procurement planning. |
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Term
43. Developing an overall project plan is a part of project
a. communication management.
b. total quality.
c. integration.
d. risk assessment. |
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Definition
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Term
44. The main purpose of a project plan is to
a. acquire resources
b. guide project execution.
c. meet standards expectations.
d. reduce risk. |
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Definition
| 44. B - guide project execution. |
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Term
45. The WBS is an output of what knowledge area?
a. Integration
b. Scope
c. Cost
d. Quality |
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Definition
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Term
46. Activity definition is a part of what knowledge area?
a. Integration
b. Time
c. Cost
d. Quality |
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Definition
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Term
47. Organizational planning is a part of which knowledge area?
a. Integration
b. Scope
c. Human Resources
d. Procurement |
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Definition
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Term
48. During project execution
a. project goals and scope are highlighted.
b. the products of the project are produced.
c. overall key stakeholder analysis is provided.
d. the WBS is scheduled. |
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Definition
| 48. B - the products of the project are produced. |
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Term
49. During project execution, the quality of products should
a. not be considered.
b. remain constantly in focus.
c. become a part of every key stakeholder report.
d. none of the above. |
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Definition
| 49. B - remain constantly in focus. |
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Term
50. Project execution involves taking actions to
a. establish a good plan.
b. close out the project.
c. ensure that activities in the project plan are completed.
d. provide feedback to key vendors. |
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Definition
| 50. C - ensure that activities in the project plan are completed. |
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Term
51. Project execution should target
a. vendors.
b. planners.
c. RFPs.
d. none of the above. |
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Definition
| 51. D - none of the above. |
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Term
52. The most important output of project execution is
a. change requests.
b. work products.
c. stakeholder analysis.
d. the WBS. |
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Definition
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Term
69. An activity has probabilistic completion times of 18, 22 and 32. What is its mean time?
a. 16
b. 24
c. 22
d. 23
e. None of these |
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Definition
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Term
70. For the activity described above with probabilistic completion times of 18, 22 and 32, what is the variance of the completion time?
a. 5.44
b. 6.78
c. 4.33
d. 9.32
e. none of these |
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Definition
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Term
71. Any technique that uses only one time estimate is considered to be a ______________ technique.
a. Deterministic
b. Stochastic
c. Probabilistic
d. Random |
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Definition
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Term
72. Determining the earned value involves collecting data on the percent complete for each work package and then converting this percentage to a dollar amount by multiplying the _________________ of the work package by the percent complete.
a. total budgeted cost
b. cumulative budgeted cost
c. total cumulative fees
d. contract cumulating amount |
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Definition
| 72. A - total budgeted cost |
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Term
73. The cumulative earned value for each work package is calculated by multiplying each percent complete by the ________________ for the work package.
a. total budgeted cost
b. cumulative budgeted cost
c. total cumulative fees
d. contract cumulating amount |
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Definition
| 73. A - total budgeted cost |
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Term
74. _________________ is the difference between the cumulative earned value of the work performed and the cumulative actual cost. It is also the difference between BCWP (=earned value) and ACWP (Actual cost of Work Performed).
a. Cost performance index
b. Cost variance
c. Budgeted costs
d. Cost quality index |
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Definition
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Term
75. A work package is 70% done and $200,000 was budgeted for it. What is its BCWP?
a. $140,000
b. $80,000
c. simply the value earned
d. all of the above
e. a and c only |
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Definition
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Term
76. BCWS stands for ______.
a. Budgeted Cost of Work Studied
b. Budget Cumulative of Working Students
c. Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled
d. None of the above |
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Definition
| 76. C - Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled |
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Term
77. If the work package in 75 above has an ACWP of $100,000 then ______.
a. cost variance is $20,000
b. cost variance is -$20,000
c. the work package is over budget
d. none of the above
e. b and c only |
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Definition
| 77. D - none of the above |
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Term
78. At this point in time the work package in 75 above should be 80% complete. Then ____.
a. schedule variance is $10,000
b. the work package is behind schedule
c. the work package is ahead of schedule
d. a and c above
e. none of the above |
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Definition
| 78. B - the work package is behind schedule |
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Term
79. Which of the following is not one of the stages of the CMM?
a. INITIAL
b. DEFINED
c. REPEATABLE
d. MEASURED
e. OPTIMIZING |
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Definition
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Term
80. How long does it take to go from one stage of the CMM to the next?
a. one year at least
b. six months at least
c. two years at least
d. one quarter year at least
e. none of these |
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Definition
| 80. A - one year at least |
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Term
81. The ________ organization structure allows for fast response upon problem identification because it has both a horizontal (project) and a vertical (functional) path for the flow of information.
a. matrix
b. mixed
c. functional
d. progressive |
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Definition
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Term
82. In system dynamics, states or stocks are
a. places where information gets transformed
b. places where flows are controlled
c. places where content can accumulate and deplete
d. parameters
e. outputs |
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Definition
| 82. C - places where content can accumulate and deplete |
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Term
83. In system dynamics, inputs are ____. (Use the same list as in 82 above.)
a. places where information gets transformed
b. places where flows are controlled
c. places where content can accumulate and deplete
d. parameters
e. outputs |
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Definition
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Term
84. In system dynamics, rates are _____. (Use the same list as in 82 above.)
a. places where information gets transformed
b. places where flows are controlled
c. places where content can accumulate and deplete
d. parameters
e. outputs |
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Definition
| 84. B - places where flows are controlled |
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Term
85. In system dynamics, auxiliaries are _____. (Use the same list as in 82 above.)
a. places where information gets transformed
b. places where flows are controlled
c. places where content can accumulate and deplete
d. parameters
e. outputs |
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Definition
| 85. A - places where information gets transformed |
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Term
86. In system dynamics, there are two types of connectors:
a. Flow and information
b. Transfer and flow
c. Transfer and information
d. Data and algorithms
e. None of the above |
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Definition
| 86. A - Flow and information |
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Term
87. In a simple model involving births, deaths and population, ____ would be a ____.
a. births, state
b. population, rate
c. deaths, rate
d. population, auxiliary
e. none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
88. The simple population model described in class exhibited a behavior called _____.
a. exponential growth
b. exponential goal-seeking
c. exponential decay
d. none of the above |
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Definition
| 88. A - exponential growth |
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Term
89. A balancing loop exhibits what kind of behavior?
a. exponential growth
b. exponential goal-seeking
c. exponential decay
d. none of the above |
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Definition
| 89. B - exponential goal-seeking |
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Term
90. When faced with too much work and too little time to get it done, you can pursue three strategies. Which of the following is not one of the strategies we discussed in class?
a. try to get an extension on the deadline
b. work longer hours
c. reduce the effort applied to each required task
d. renegotiate the task assignments |
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Definition
| 90. D - renegotiate the task assignments |
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